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26 CFR Part 1 · Subpart ECFRb467872627553f1--ECFRdd2bbf38de1f0ac

Part 1—Income Taxes

Internal Revenue · Chapter I, Chapter I—Internal Revenue Service, Department of the Treasury · Subchapter A

26 CFR Part 1, Subpart ECFRb467872627553f1--ECFRdd2bbf38de1f0ac
Official text on eCFR ↗
Words
9,021,652
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150
Last amended
September 30, 2026

26 CFR Part 1

Text as published by eCFR on .

Items Specifically Excluded From Gross Income

§ 1.101-1 Exclusion from gross income of proceeds of life insurance contracts payable by reason of death.

(a) Exclusion from gross income—(1) In general. Section 101(a)(1) states the general rule that the proceeds of life insurance policies, if paid by reason of the death of the insured, are excluded from the gross income of the recipient. Death benefit payments having the characteristics of life insurance proceeds payable by reason of death under contracts, such as workmen's compensation insurance contracts, endowment contracts, or accident and health insurance contracts, issued on or before December 31, 1984, are covered by this provision. The exclusion from gross income allowed by section 101(a) applies whether payment is made to the estate of the insured or to any beneficiary (individual, corporation, or partnership) and whether it is made directly or in trust. The extent to which this exclusion applies in cases where life insurance policies have been transferred for a valuable consideration is stated in section 101(a)(2) and in paragraph (b) of this section. The extent to which this exclusion applies in cases in which life insurance policies have been gratuitously transferred or issued in an exchange to which section 1035(a) or section 1031 (to the extent it relates to section 1035(a)) applies (section 1035 exchange) is stated in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. In cases where the proceeds of a life insurance policy, payable by reason of the death of the insured, are paid other than in a single sum at the time of such death, the amounts to be excluded from gross income may be affected by the provisions of section 101 (c) (relating to amounts held under agreements to pay interest) or section 101(d) (relating to amounts payable at a date later than death). See §§ 1.101-3 and 1.101-4. However, neither section 101(c) nor section 101(d) applies to a single sum payment which does not exceed the amount payable at the time of death even though such amount is actually paid at a date later than death. If the life insurance contract is an employer-owned life insurance contract within the definition of section 101(j)(3), the amount to be excluded from gross income may be affected by the provisions of section 101(j).

(2) Cross references. For rules governing the taxability of insurance proceeds constituting benefits payable on the death of an employee—

(i) Under pension, profit-sharing, or stock bonus plans described in section 401(a) and exempt from tax under section 501(a), or under annuity plans described in section 403(a), see section 72 (m)(3) and paragraph (c) of § 1.72-16;

(ii) Under annuity contracts to which § 1.403(b)-3 applies, see § 1.403(b)-7; or

(iii) Under eligible State deferred compensation plans described in section 457(b), see paragraph (c) of § 1.457-1.

For the definition of a life insurance company, see section 801.

(b) Transfers and exchanges of life insurance policies—(1) Transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract for valuable consideration—(i) In general. In the case of a transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract for valuable consideration, including a reportable policy sale for valuable consideration, the amount of the proceeds attributable to the interest that is excludable from gross income under section 101(a)(1) is limited under section 101(a)(2) to the sum of the actual value of the consideration for the transfer paid by the transferee and the premiums and other amounts subsequently paid by the transferee with respect to the interest. For exceptions to this general rule for certain transfers for valuable consideration that are not reportable policy sales, see paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. The application of section 101(d), (f) or (j), which is not addressed in paragraph (b) of this section, may further limit the amount of the proceeds excludable from gross income.

(ii) Exceptions—(A) Exception for carryover basis transfers. The limitation described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section does not apply to the transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract for valuable consideration if each of the following requirements are satisfied. First, the transfer is not a reportable policy sale. Second, the basis of the interest, for the purpose of determining gain or loss with respect to the transferee, is determinable in whole or in part by reference to the basis of the interest in the hands of the transferor (see section 101(a)(2)(A)). Third, paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B) of this section does not apply. In the case of a transfer described in this paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A), the amount of the proceeds attributable to the interest that is excludable from gross income under section 101(a)(1) is limited to the sum of the amount that would have been excludable by the transferor if the transfer had not occurred and the premiums and other amounts subsequently paid by the transferee with respect to the interest. The preceding sentence applies without regard to whether the interest previously has been transferred and the nature of any prior transfer of the interest.

(B) Exception for transfers to certain persons—(1) In general. The limitation described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section does not apply to the transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract for valuable consideration if both of the following requirements are satisfied. First, the transfer is not a reportable policy sale and the interest was not previously transferred for valuable consideration in a reportable policy sale. Second, the interest is transferred to the insured, a partner of the insured, a partnership in which the insured is a partner, or a corporation in which the insured is a shareholder or officer (see section 101(a)(2)(B)).

(2) Transfers to certain persons subsequent to a reportable policy sale. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3) of this section, if a transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract would be described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(1) of this section, but for the fact that the interest previously was transferred for valuable consideration in a reportable policy sale (whether in the immediately preceding transfer or an earlier transfer), then the amount of the proceeds attributable to the interest that is excludable from gross income under section 101(a)(1) is limited to the sum of—

(i) The higher of the amount that would have been excludable by the transferor if the transfer had not occurred or the actual value of the consideration for the transfer paid by the transferee; and

(ii) The premiums and other amounts subsequently paid by the transferee with respect to the interest.

(3) Transfers to the insured subsequent to a reportable policy sale—(i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(ii) of this section, to the extent that an interest (or portion of an interest) in a life insurance contract that was transferred for valuable consideration in a reportable policy sale subsequently is transferred to the insured for valuable consideration, the limitations described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section and paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(2) of this section do not apply. To the extent that fair market value is not paid by the insured for the transferred interest, the transfer of the portion of the interest with a value in excess of the consideration paid will be treated as a gift under the bargain sale rule in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section.

(ii) This paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(ii) applies with respect to an interest described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(i) of this section (or portion of such an interest) that subsequently is transferred by the insured to any other person. If all subsequent transfers of the interest (or portion of the interest) are gratuitous transfers that are not reportable policy sales, the amount of the proceeds excluded from gross income is determined under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, taking into account the application of paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(i) of this section to the insured's acquisition of the interest. If any subsequent transfer of the interest (or portion of the interest) is for valuable consideration or is a reportable policy sale, the amount of the policy proceeds excludable from gross income is determined in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section; if the amount that would have been excludable from gross income by the insured following the transaction described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(i) of this section if no subsequent transfer had occurred is relevant, that amount is determined under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(2) of this section. Paragraph (g)(8) (Example 8) of this section and paragraph (g)(9) (Example 9) of this section illustrate the application of this paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(ii).

(2) Other transfers and exchanges—(i) Gratuitous transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract. To the extent that a transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract is gratuitous, including a reportable policy sale that is not for valuable consideration, the amount of the proceeds attributable to the interest that is excludable from gross income under section 101(a)(1) is limited to the sum of the amount of the proceeds attributable to the gratuitously transferred interest that would have been excludable by the transferor if the transfer had not occurred and the premiums and other amounts subsequently paid by the transferee with respect to the interest. However, if an interest in a life insurance contract is transferred gratuitously to the insured, and that interest has not previously been transferred for value in a reportable policy sale, the entire amount of the proceeds attributable to the interest transferred to the insured is excludable from gross income.

(ii) Partial transfers. When only part of an interest in a life insurance contract is transferred, the transferor's exclusion is ratably apportioned between or among the several parts. If multiple parts of an interest are transferred, the transfer of each part is treated as a separate transaction, with each transaction subject to the rule under paragraph (b) of this section that is applicable to the type of transfer involved.

(iii) Bargain sales. When the transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract is in part a transfer for valuable consideration and in part a gratuitous transfer, the transfer of each part is treated as a separate transaction for purposes of determining the amount of the proceeds attributable to the interest that is excludable from gross income under section 101(a)(1). Each separate transaction is subject to the rule under paragraph (b) of this section that is applicable to the type of transfer involved.

(iv) Section 1035 exchanges. When an interest in a life insurance contract (old interest) is exchanged in a section 1035 exchange for an interest in a newly issued life insurance contract (new interest), except as otherwise provided by this section with respect to any portion of the new interest that is transferred or exchanged subsequent to the section 1035 exchange, the amount of the proceeds attributable to the new interest that is excludable from gross income under section 101(a) is determined under either paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(A) or paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(B) of this section.

(A) If, at the time of the exchange, the entire amount of the proceeds attributable to the old interest would have been excludable from gross income under section 101(a), the entire amount of the proceeds attributable to the new interest is excludable from gross income.

(B) If, at the time of the exchange, less than the entire amount of the proceeds attributable to the old interest would have been excludable from gross income under section 101(a), the amount of the proceeds attributable to the new interest that is excludable from gross income is limited to the sum of the amount of the proceeds attributable to the old interest that would have been excludable at the time of the exchange and the premiums and other amounts paid with respect to the new interest by the policyholder, reduced (but not below zero) by amounts received by the policyholder under the new life insurance contract that are not received as an annuity, to the extent excludable from gross income under section 72(e). For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(B), the amount of the proceeds attributable to the old interest that would have been excludable at the time of the exchange is decreased by the amount of any money and the fair market value of any other property received by the policyholder in the exchange and increased by the amount of gain to the policyholder that was recognized on such exchange.

(3) Determination of amounts paid by the transferee. For purposes of paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, in determining the amounts, if any, of consideration paid by the transferee for the transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract and premiums and other amounts subsequently paid by the transferee with respect to that interest, the amounts paid by the transferee are reduced, but not below zero, by amounts received by the transferee under the life insurance contract that are not received as an annuity, to the extent excludable from gross income under section 72(e).

(c) Reportable policy sale—(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a reportable policy sale for purposes of this section and section 6050Y is any direct or indirect acquisition of an interest in a life insurance contract if the acquirer has, at the time of the acquisition, no substantial family, business, or financial relationship with the insured apart from the acquirer's interest in the life insurance contract. See paragraph (c)(3) of this section for special rules applicable to section 1035 exchanges.

(2) Exceptions. None of the following transactions is a reportable policy sale:

(i) A transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract between entities with the same beneficial owners, if the ownership interest of each beneficial owner in the transferor entity does not vary by more than a 20 percent ownership interest from that beneficial owner's ownership interest in the transferee entity. In a series of transfers, the prior sentence is applied by comparing the beneficial owners' ownership interest in the first transferor entity and the last transferee entity. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(i), each beneficial owner of a trust is deemed to have an ownership interest determined by the broadest possible exercise of a trustee's discretion in that beneficial owner's favor. Paragraph (g)(13) (Example 13) of this section provides an illustration of the application of this paragraph (c)(2)(i).

(ii) A transfer between corporations that are members of an affiliated group (as defined in section 1504(a)) that files a consolidated U.S. income tax return for the taxable year in which the transfer occurs.

(iii) The indirect acquisition of an interest in a life insurance contract by a person if—

(A) A partnership, trust, or other entity in which an ownership interest is being acquired directly or indirectly holds the interest in the life insurance contract and acquired that interest before January 1, 2019, or acquired that interest in a reportable policy sale reported in compliance with section 6050Y(a) and § 1.6050Y-2; or

(B) Immediately before the acquisition, no more than 50 percent of the gross value of the assets (as determined under paragraph (f)(4) of this section) of the partnership, trust, or other entity that directly or indirectly holds the interest in the life insurance contract, and in which an ownership interest is being directly acquired, consists of life insurance contracts, provided that, after the acquisition, with respect to that partnership, trust, or other entity, the person indirectly acquiring the interest in the life insurance contract and his or her family members own, in the aggregate—

(1) With respect to an S corporation, stock possessing 5 percent or less of the total combined voting power of all classes of stock entitled to vote and 5 percent or less of the total value of shares of all classes of stock of the S corporation;

(2) With respect to a trust or decedent's estate, 5 percent or less of the corpus and 5 percent or less of the annual income (taking into account, for the purpose of determining any person's ownership interest, the maximum amount of income and corpus that could be distributed to or held for the benefit of that person); or

(3) With respect to a partnership or other entity that is not a corporation or a trust, 5 percent or less of the capital interest and 5 percent or less of the profits interest.

(iv) The acquisition of a life insurance contract by an insurance company that issues a life insurance contract in an exchange pursuant to section 1035.

(v) The direct acquisition of an interest in a life insurance contract by a C corporation if:

(A) Immediately before the acquisition, the interest is held by another C corporation (target C corporation) that actively conducts a trade or business within the meaning of § 1.367(a)-2(d)(2) and (3);

(B) Immediately before the acquisition, the target C corporation does not engage in a trade or business of investing in interests in life insurance contracts;

(C) Immediately before the acquisition, no more than 5 percent of the gross value of the assets (as determined under paragraph (f)(4) of this section) of the target C corporation consists of life insurance contracts;

(D) The acquisition results from a transaction that qualifies as a reorganization under section 368(a) with respect to which the target C corporation and the acquiring C corporation each is a party to the reorganization (within the meaning of section 368(b));

(E) Immediately after the acquisition, the acquiring C corporation does not engage in a trade or business of investing in interests in life insurance contracts; and

(F) Immediately after the acquisition, no more than 5 percent of the gross value of the assets (as determined under paragraph (f)(4) of this section) of the acquiring C corporation consists of life insurance contracts.

(3) Section 1035 exchanges. This paragraph (c)(3) applies if an interest in a life insurance contract (old interest) is exchanged in a section 1035 exchange for an interest in a newly issued life insurance contract (new interest), and the old interest previously was transferred for valuable consideration in a reportable policy sale under paragraph (c)(1) of this section or is treated as an interest in a life insurance contract that previously was transferred for valuable consideration in a reportable policy sale under this paragraph (c)(3). For purposes of this section, the new interest is treated as an interest in a life insurance contract that previously was transferred for valuable consideration in a reportable policy sale. For purposes of §§ 1.6050Y-3(h) and 1.6050Y-4, the section 1035 exchange is treated as the transfer of an interest in the life insurance contract in a reportable policy sale.

(d) Substantial relationship—(1) Substantial family relationship. For purposes of this section, a substantial family relationship means the relationship between an individual and any family member of that individual as defined in paragraph (f)(3) of this section. In addition, a substantial family relationship exists between an individual and his or her former spouse with regard to the transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract to (or in trust for the benefit of) that former spouse incident to divorce.

(2) Substantial business relationship. For purposes of this section, a substantial business relationship between the insured and the acquirer exists in each of the following situations:

(i) The insured is a key person (as defined in section 264) of, or materially participates (within the meaning of section 469) in, an active trade or business as an owner, employee, or contractor, and at least 80 percent of that trade or business is owned (directly or indirectly, through one or more partnerships, trusts, or other entities) by the acquirer or the beneficial owners of the acquirer.

(ii) The acquirer acquires an active trade or business and acquires the interest in the life insurance contract either as part of that acquisition or from a person owning significant property leased to the acquired trade or business or life insurance policies held to facilitate the succession of the ownership of the business if—

(A) The insured—

(1) Is an employee within the meaning of section 101(j)(5)(A) of the acquired trade or business immediately preceding the acquisition (for purposes of this paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(A)(1), however, the reference in section 101(j)(5)(A) to highly compensated employee within the meaning of section 414(q) does not include a former employee); or

(2) Was a director, highly compensated employee, or highly compensated individual within the meaning of section 101(j)(2)(A)(ii) of the acquired trade or business, and the acquirer, immediately after the acquisition, has ongoing financial obligations to the insured with respect to the insured's employment by the trade or business (for example, the life insurance contract is maintained by the acquirer to fund current or future retirement, pension, or survivorship obligations based on the insured's relationship with the entity or to fund a buy-out of the insured's interest in the acquired trade or business); and

(B) The acquirer either carries on the acquired trade or business or uses a significant portion of the acquired business assets in an active trade or business that does not include investing in interests in life insurance contracts.

(3) Substantial financial relationship. For purposes of this section, a substantial financial relationship between the insured and the acquirer exists in each of the following situations:

(i) The acquirer (directly or indirectly, through one or more partnerships, trusts, or other entities of which it is a beneficial owner) has, or the beneficial owners of the acquirer have, a common investment (other than the interest in the life insurance contract) with the insured and a buy-out of the insured's interest in the common investment by the co-investor(s) after the insured's death is reasonably foreseeable.

(ii) The acquirer maintains the life insurance contract on the life of the insured to provide funds to purchase assets of or to satisfy liabilities of the insured or the insured's estate, heirs, legatees, or other successors in interest, or to satisfy other liabilities arising upon or by reason of the death of the insured.

(iii) The acquirer is an organization described in sections 170(c), 2055(a), and 2522(a) that previously received from the insured either financial support in a substantial amount or significant volunteer support or that meets other requirements prescribed in guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see § 601.601(d)(2) of this chapter) for establishing that a substantial financial relationship exists between the insured and the organization.

(4) Special rules. Paragraphs (d)(4)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section apply for purposes of determining whether a substantial relationship (whether family, business, or financial) exists under paragraph (d)(1), (2), or (3) of this section, respectively.

(i) Indirect acquisitions. The acquirer of an interest in a life insurance contract in an indirect acquisition is deemed to have a substantial business or financial relationship with the insured if the direct holder of the interest in the life insurance contract has a substantial business or financial relationship with the insured immediately before and after the date the acquirer acquires its interest.

(ii) Acquisitions by certain persons. The sole fact that an acquirer is a partner of the insured, a partnership in which the insured is a partner, or a corporation in which the insured is a shareholder or officer, is not sufficient to establish a substantial business or financial relationship with the insured. In addition, an acquirer need not be a partner of the insured, a partnership in which the insured is a partner, or a corporation in which the insured is a shareholder or officer to have a substantial business or financial relationship with the insured.

(iii) Acquisitions by those with differing types of substantial relationships. A substantial family, business, or financial relationship exists between the insured and a partnership, trust, or other entity if each beneficial owner of that partnership, trust, or other entity has a substantial family, business, or financial relationship with the insured. For example, a substantial family, business, or financial relationship exists between the insured and a trust if each trust beneficiary is a family member of the insured or an organization described in paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section.

(e) Interest in a life insurance contract—(1) Definition. For purposes of this section and section 6050Y, the term interest in a life insurance contract means the interest held by any person that has taken title to or possession of the life insurance contract (also referred to as a life insurance policy), in whole or part, for state law purposes, including any person that has taken title or possession as nominee for another person, and the interest held by any person that has an enforceable right to receive all or a part of the proceeds of a life insurance contract or to any other economic benefits of the policy as described in § 20.2042-1(c)(2) of this chapter, such as the enforceable right to designate a contract beneficiary. Any person named as the owner in the life insurance contract generally is the owner (or an owner) of the contract and holds an interest in the contract.

(2) Transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract. For purposes of this section and section 6050Y, the term transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract means the transfer of any interest in the life insurance contract, including any transfer of title to, possession of, or legal or beneficial ownership of the life insurance contract itself. The creation of an enforceable right to receive all or a part of the proceeds of a life insurance contract constitutes the transfer of an interest in the life insurance contract. The following events are not a transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract: The revocable designation of a beneficiary of the policy proceeds (until the designation becomes irrevocable other than by reason of the death of the insured); the pledging or assignment of a policy as collateral security; and the issuance of a life insurance contract to a policyholder.

(3) Acquisition of an interest in a life insurance contract. For purposes of this section and section 6050Y, the acquisition of an interest in a life insurance contract may be direct or indirect.

(i) Direct acquisition of an interest in a life insurance contract. For purposes of this section and section 6050Y, the transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract results in the direct acquisition of the interest by the transferee (acquirer).

(ii) Indirect acquisition of an interest in a life insurance contract. For purposes of this section and section 6050Y, an indirect acquisition of an interest in a life insurance contract occurs when a person (acquirer) becomes a beneficial owner of a partnership, trust, or other entity that holds (whether directly or indirectly) the interest (whether legal or beneficial) in the life insurance contract. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(3)(ii), the term other entity does not include a C corporation, unless more than 50 percent of the gross value of the assets of the C corporation consists of life insurance contracts (as determined under paragraph (f)(4) of this section) immediately before the indirect acquisition.

(f) Definitions. The following definitions apply for purposes of this section:

(1) Beneficial owner. A beneficial owner of a partnership, trust, or other entity is an individual or C corporation with an ownership interest in that entity. The interest may be held directly or indirectly, through one or more other partnerships, trusts, or other entities. For instance, an individual that directly owns an interest in a partnership (P1), which directly owns an interest in another partnership (P2), is an indirect beneficial owner of P2 and any assets or other entities owned by P2 directly or indirectly. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(1), the beneficial owners of a trust include those who may receive current distributions of trust income or corpus and those who could receive distributions if the trust were to terminate currently.

(2) C corporation. The term C corporation has the meaning given to it in section 1361(a)(2).

(3) Family member. With respect to any individual, the term family member refers to any person described in paragraphs (f)(3)(i) through (vi) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(3), full effect is given to a legal adoption, and a step-child is deemed to be a descendant. The family members of an individual include:

(i) The individual;

(ii) The individual's spouse or a person with whom the individual is in a registered domestic partnership, civil union, or other similar relationship established under state law;

(iii) Any parent, grandparent, or great-grandparent of the individual or of the person described in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section and any spouse of such parent, grandparent, or great-grandparent, or person with whom the parent, grandparent, or great-grandparent is in a registered domestic partnership, civil union, or other similar relationship established under state law;

(iv) Any lineal descendant of the individual or of any person described in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) or (iii) of this section;

(v) Any spouse of a lineal descendant described in paragraph (f)(3)(iv) of this section and any person with whom such a lineal descendant is in a registered domestic partnership, civil union, or other similar relationship established under state law; and

(vi) Any lineal descendant of a person described in paragraph (f)(3)(v) of this section.

(4) Gross value of assets—(i) Determination of gross value of assets. Except as provided in paragraph (f)(4)(ii) or (iii) of this section, for purposes of paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(B) and (e)(3)(ii) of this section, the term gross value of assets means, with respect to any entity, the fair market value of the entity's assets, including assets beneficially owned by the entity under paragraph (f)(1) of this section as a beneficial owner of a partnership, trust, or other entity.

(ii) Determination of gross value of assets of publicly traded entity. For purposes of determining the gross value of assets of an entity that is publicly traded, if the entity's annual Form 10-K filed with the United States Securities and Exchange Commission (or equivalent annual filing if the entity is publicly traded in a non-U.S. jurisdiction) for the period immediately preceding a person's acquisition of an ownership interest in the entity does not contain information demonstrating that more than 50 percent of the gross value of the entity's assets consists of life insurance contracts, that person may assume that no more than 50 percent of the gross value of the entity's assets consists of life insurance contracts, unless that person has actual knowledge or reason to know that more than 50 percent of the gross value of the entity's assets consists of life insurance contracts.

(iii) Safe harbor definition of gross value of assets. An entity may choose to determine the gross value of all the entity's assets for purposes of this section using the following alternative definition of gross value of assets:

(A) In the case of assets that are life insurance policies or annuity or endowment contracts that have cash values, the cash surrender value as defined in section 7702(f)(2)(A); and

(B) In the case of assets not described in paragraph (f)(4)(iii)(A) of this section, the adjusted bases (within the meaning of section 1016) of such assets.

(5) Transfer for valuable consideration. A transfer for valuable consideration means any transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract for cash or other consideration reducible to a money value.

(g) Examples. The application of this section is illustrated by the following examples. Each example assumes that the transferee did not receive any amounts under the life insurance contract other than the amounts described in the examples. With the exception of paragraph (g)(7) (Example 7) of this section, the bargain sale rules set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section do not apply in the examples because the consideration paid for the policy transferred is fair market value:

(1) Example 1. A is the initial policyholder of a $100,000 insurance policy on A's life. A sells the policy to B, A's child, for $6,000, its fair market value. B is not a partner in a partnership in which A is a partner. B receives the proceeds of $100,000 upon the death of A. Because the transfer to B was for valuable consideration, and none of the exceptions in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section applies, the amount of the proceeds B may exclude from B's gross income under this section is limited under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section to $6,000 plus any premiums and other amounts paid by B with respect to the policy subsequent to the transfer.

(2) Example 2. The facts are the same as in Example 1 in paragraph (g)(1) of this section except that, before A's death, B gratuitously transfers the policy back to A. A's estate receives the proceeds of $100,000 on A's death. Because the transfer from B to A is a gratuitous transfer to the insured, and the preceding transfer from A to B was not a reportable policy sale, the amount of the proceeds A's estate may exclude from gross income under this section is not limited by paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.

(3) Example 3. The facts are the same as in Example 1 in paragraph (g)(1) of this section except that, before A's death, B sells the policy back to A for its fair market value. A's estate receives the proceeds of $100,000 on A's death. The transfer from A to B is not a reportable policy sale because the acquirer B has a substantial family relationship with the insured, A. The transfer from B to A also is not a reportable policy sale because the acquirer A has a substantial family relationship with the insured, A. Accordingly, paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(1) of this section applies to the transfer to A, and the amount of the proceeds A's estate may exclude from gross income is not limited by paragraph (b) of this section.

(4) Example 4. A is the initial policyholder of a $100,000 insurance policy on A's life. A transfers the policy for $6,000, its fair market value, to an individual, C, who does not have a substantial family, business, or financial relationship with A. The transfer from A to C is a reportable policy sale. C receives the proceeds of $100,000 on A's death. The amount of the proceeds C may exclude from C's gross income under this section is limited under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section to $6,000 plus any premiums and other amounts paid by C with respect to the policy subsequent to the transfer.

(5) Example 5. The facts are the same as in Example 4 in paragraph (g)(4) of this section, except that before A's death, C transfers the policy to D, a partner of A who co-owns real property with A, for $8,000, the policy's fair market value. D receives the proceeds of $100,000 on A's death. The transfer from C to D is not a reportable policy sale because the acquirer D has a substantial financial relationship with the insured, A. However, because that transfer follows a reportable policy sale (the transfer from A to C), the amount of the proceeds that D may exclude from gross income under this section is limited by paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(2) of this section to the sum of—

(i) The higher of the amount C could have excluded had the transfer to D not occurred ($6,000 plus any premiums and other amounts paid by C with respect to the policy subsequent to the transfer to C, as described in Example 4 in paragraph (g)(4) of this section) or the actual value of the consideration for that transfer paid by D ($8,000); and

(ii) Any premiums and other amounts paid by D with respect to the policy subsequent to the transfer to D.

(6) Example 6. The facts are the same as in Example 4 in paragraph (g)(4) of this section, except that before A's death, C transfers the policy back to A for $8,000, its fair market value. A's estate receives the proceeds of $100,000 on A's death. The transfer from C to A is not a reportable policy sale because the acquirer A has a substantial family relationship with the insured, A. Although the transfer follows a reportable policy sale (the initial transfer from A to C), A's estate may exclude all of the policy proceeds from gross income because paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(i) of this section applies and, therefore, the amount of the proceeds that A may exclude from gross income is not limited by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section or (b)(1)(ii)(B)(2) of this section.

(7) Example 7. The facts are the same as in Example 6 in paragraph (g)(6) of this section, except that C transfers the policy back to A for $4,000, rather than its fair market value of $8,000. A's estate receives the proceeds of $100,000 on A's death. Because A did not pay fair market value for the policy, the transfer is bifurcated and treated as a bargain sale under paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section. A therefore is treated as having purchased 50% of the policy interest for valuable consideration equal to fair market value and as having received 50% of the policy interest in a gratuitous transfer. The transfer from C to A is not a reportable policy sale because the acquirer, A, has a substantial family relationship with the insured, A, but the transfer from C to A follows a reportable policy sale (the transfer from A to C).

(i) Treatment of policy interest purchased by A. A's estate may exclude from income all of the policy proceeds related to the 50% policy interest transferred for valuable consideration ($50,000) because, under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(i) of this section, the amount of the proceeds that may be excluded from gross income is not limited by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section or (b)(1)(ii)(B)(2) of this section.

(ii) Treatment of policy interest gratuitously transferred to A. The amount of the policy proceeds related to the 50% policy interest transferred gratuitously that A's estate may exclude from income is limited under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section to the sum of the amount C could have excluded with respect to 50% of the policy had the transfer back to A not occurred (that is, 50% of the $6,000 that C paid A for the policy, plus 50% of any premiums and other amounts paid by C with respect to the policy subsequent to the transfer to C), plus 50% of any premiums and other amounts paid by A with respect to the policy subsequent to the transfer to A.

(8) Example 8. The facts are the same as in Example 6 in paragraph (g)(6) of this section, except that, before A's death, A gratuitously transfers 50% of the policy interest to B, A's child, and sells 50% of the policy interest for its fair market value to an individual, E, who does not have a substantial family, business, or financial relationship with A. B and E each receive $50,000 of the proceeds on A's death. Paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(ii) of this section applies to determine the amount of the proceeds that B and E may exclude from gross income because the policy interests transferred to B and E were first transferred for valuable consideration in a reportable policy sale (the transfer by A to C) and then transferred to the insured, A, for fair market value.

(i) Treatment of policy interest transferred to B. With respect to the portion of the policy interest transferred to B, because the transfer to B was the only transfer subsequent to the transfer to A and the transfer to B was gratuitous and not a reportable policy sale, under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(ii) of this section, the amount of the policy proceeds excludable from gross income by B is determined under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, taking into account the application of paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(i) of this section to A's acquisition of the interest. Under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the amount of the proceeds B may exclude is limited to the sum of the amount A could have excluded had the transfer to B not occurred, and any premiums and other amounts paid by B with respect to the policy subsequent to the transfer to B. As described in Example 6 in paragraph (g)(6) of this section, under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(i) of this section, the amount of the proceeds that A may exclude from gross income is not limited by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section or (b)(1)(ii)(B)(2) of this section. Accordingly, the amount of the proceeds that B may exclude from gross income is not limited by paragraph (b) of this section.

(ii) Treatment of policy interest transferred to E. With respect to the portion of the policy interest transferred to E, because the transfer to E was not gratuitous and was a reportable policy sale, under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(ii) of this section, the amount of the policy proceeds excludable from gross income by E is determined in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. Accordingly, because the transfer to E was for valuable consideration, the amount excludable from gross income by E is limited by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section unless an exception in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section applies. Because the transfer from A to E is a reportable policy sale, none of the exceptions in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section apply. Therefore, the amount of the proceeds E may exclude from gross income under this section is limited by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section to the sum of the consideration paid by E and the premiums and other amounts paid by E with respect to the policy subsequent to the transfer to E.

(9) Example 9. The facts are the same as in Example 8 in paragraph (g)(8) of this section, except that, before A's death, B transfers B's policy interest to Partnership F, whose partners are A and other family members of A, in exchange for a partnership interest in Partnership F. Partnership F receives $50,000 of the proceeds on A's death. With respect to the policy interest transferred to Partnership F, paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(ii) of this section applies to determine the amount of the proceeds that Partnership F may exclude from gross income for the reasons described in Example 8 in paragraph (g)(8) of this section.

(i) Treatment of policy interest transferred to Partnership F. The transfer to Partnership F was not a reportable policy sale. However, because the transfer to Partnership F was not gratuitous, the amount of the policy proceeds excludable from gross income by Partnership F is determined in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section as if the amount that would have been excludable from gross income by A following the transfer to A, if no subsequent transfer had occurred, was determined under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(2) of this section. Because B's transfer to Partnership F was a transfer for valuable consideration to a partnership in which the insured is a partner that was preceded by a reportable policy sale (the transfer to C), the amount of the proceeds Partnership F may exclude from gross income under this section is limited under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(2) of this section to the higher of the amount that would have been excludable by B if the transfer to Partnership F had not occurred or the actual value of the consideration for the policy paid by Partnership F, plus any premiums and other amounts paid by Partnership F with respect to the policy subsequent to the transfer to Partnership F.

(ii) Amount that B could have excluded. Because the transfer from A to B was a gratuitous transfer, the amount of the proceeds B could have excluded from gross income under this section if the transfer to Partnership F had not occurred is limited under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section to the sum of the amount A could have excluded had the transfer to B not occurred, and any premiums and other amounts paid by B with respect to the policy subsequent to the transfer to B.

(iii) Amount that A could have excluded. As described in paragraph (g)(9)(i) of this section, the amount of the proceeds A could have excluded under this section if the transfer to B had not occurred must be determined under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(2) of this section in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(ii) of this section. Under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(2) of this section, the amount that would have been excludable by A is limited to the higher of the amount that would have been excludable by C if the transfer to A had not occurred ($6,000 plus premiums and other amounts subsequently paid by C) or the actual value of the consideration for the policy paid by A ($8,000), plus any premiums and other amounts paid by A with respect to the policy subsequent to the transfer to A.

(10) Example 10. A is the initial policyholder of a $100,000 insurance policy on A's life. A contributes the policy to Corporation X in exchange for stock. Corporation X's basis in the policy is determinable in whole or in part by reference to A's basis in the policy. Corporation X conducts an active trade or business that it wholly owns, and A materially participates in that active trade or business as an employee of Corporation X. Corporation X receives the proceeds of $100,000 on A's death. A's contribution of the policy to Corporation X is not a reportable policy sale because Corporation X has a substantial business relationship with A under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section. Although Corporation X's basis in the policy is determinable in whole or in part by reference to A's basis in the policy, paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section does not apply because the insured, A, is a shareholder of Corporation X and the other requirements under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B) of this section are satisfied. Accordingly, paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B) of this section applies, and paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section is inapplicable. Under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(1) of this section, Corporation X's exclusion is not limited by paragraph (b) of this section.

(11) Example 11. The facts are the same as in Example 10 in paragraph (g)(10) of this section, except that Corporation X transfers its active trade or business and the policy on A's life to Corporation Y in a tax-free reorganization at a time when A is still employed by Corporation X, but is no longer a shareholder of Corporation X. Corporation Y's basis in the policy is determinable in whole or in part by reference to Corporation X's basis in the policy, and Corporation Y carries on the trade or business acquired from Corporation X. Corporation Y receives the proceeds of $100,000 on A's death. The transfer from Corporation X to Corporation Y is not a reportable policy sale because Corporation Y has a substantial business relationship with A under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section. Also, the exception in paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section applies, provided Corporation X satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2)(v)(A) through (C) of this section immediately before the acquisition by Corporation Y, and Corporation Y satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2)(v)(E) and (F) of this section immediately after the acquisition. This would be the case even if A were no longer employed by Corporation X at the time of the transfer. The amount of the proceeds that Corporation Y may exclude from gross income is limited under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section to the sum of the amount that would have been excludable by Corporation X had the transfer to Corporation Y not occurred, plus any premiums and other amounts paid by Corporation Y with respect to the policy subsequent to the transfer. Accordingly, because Corporation X's exclusion is not limited by paragraph (b) of this section, as described in Example 10 in paragraph (g)(10) of this section, Corporation Y's exclusion is not limited by paragraph (b) of this section.

(12) Example 12. A is the initial policyholder of a $100,000 insurance policy on A's life. A contributes the policy to a C corporation, Corporation W, in exchange for stock. After the acquisition, A owns less than 20% of the outstanding stock of Corporation W and owns stock possessing less than 20% of the total combined voting power of all stock of Corporation W and is therefore not a key person with respect to Corporation W under section 264(e)(3). Corporation W's basis in the policy is determinable in whole or in part by reference to A's basis in the policy. However, no substantial family, business, or financial relationship exists between A and Corporation W, so A's contribution of the policy to Corporation W is a reportable policy sale. Corporation W receives the proceeds of $100,000 on A's death. Under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, the amount of the proceeds Corporation W may exclude from gross income is limited to the actual value of the stock exchanged for the policy, plus any premiums and other amounts paid by Corporation W with respect to the policy subsequent to the transfer. The exceptions in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section do not apply because the transfer to Corporation W is a reportable policy sale.

(13) Example 13. Partnership X and Partnership Y are owned by individuals A, B, and C. A holds 40% of the capital and profits interest of Partnership X and 20% of the capital and profits interest of Partnership Y. B holds 35% of the capital and profits interest of Partnership X and 40% of the capital and profits interest of Partnership Y. C holds 25% of the capital and profits interest of Partnership X and 40% of the capital and profits interest of Partnership Y. Partnership X is the initial policyholder of a $100,000 insurance policy on the life of A. Partnership Y purchases the policy from Partnership X. Under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, this transfer is not a reportable policy sale because the ownership interest of each beneficial owner in Partnership X does not vary from that owner's interest in Partnership Y by more than a 20% ownership interest. A's ownership varies by a 20% interest, B's ownership varies by a 5% interest, and C's ownership varies by a 15% interest.

(14) Example 14. Partnership X conducts an active trade or business and is the initial policyholder of a $100,000 insurance policy on the life of its full-time employee, A. A materially participates in Partnership X's active trade or business in A's capacity as an employee. Individual B acquires a 10% profits interest in Partnership X in exchange for a cash payment of $1,000,000. Under paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) of this section, B does not have a substantial family, business, or financial relationship with A. Under paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section, however, B is deemed to have a substantial business relationship with A because, under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, Partnership X (the direct policyholder) has a substantial business relationship with A. Accordingly, although the acquisition of the 10% partnership interest by B is an indirect acquisition of a 10% interest in the insurance policy covering A's life, the acquisition is not a reportable policy sale.

(15) Example 15. The facts are the same as in Example 14 in paragraph (g)(14) of this section, except that A is no longer an employee of Partnership X, and Partnership X has no substantial family, business, or financial relationship with A, when B acquires the profits interest in Partnership X. Also, B acquires only a 5% profits interest in exchange for a cash payment of $500,000. Partnership X does not own an interest in any other life insurance policies, and the gross value of its assets is $10 million. Although neither Partnership X nor B has a substantial family, business, or financial relationship with A at the time of B's indirect acquisition of an interest in the policy covering A's life, because B's profits interest in Partnership X does not exceed 5%, and because no more than 50% of Partnership X's asset value consists of life insurance contracts, the exception in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B) of this section applies, and B's indirect acquisition of an interest in the policy covering A's life is not a reportable policy sale.

(16) Example 16. A is the initial policyholder of a $100,000 insurance policy on A's life. A sells the policy for its fair market value. As a result of the sale, Bank X holds legal title to the life insurance contract as the nominee of Partnership B, and Partnership B has the enforceable right to designate the contract beneficiary. Under paragraphs (d)(1) through (4) of this section, neither Bank X nor Partnership B has a substantial family, business, or financial relationship with the insured, A, at the time of the sale. Accordingly, the transfer of legal title to the policy to Bank X is a reportable policy sale under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, unless an exception set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section applies. The same is true of the transfer of the economic benefits of the policy to Partnership B. At a later date, Partnership B sells its economic interest in the policy to Partnership C for fair market value. Bank X continues to hold legal title to the life insurance contract, but now holds it as Partnership C's nominee. Partnership C has no substantial family, business, or financial relationship with the insured, A, under paragraphs (d)(1) through (4) of this section at the time of the transfer. Accordingly, Partnership C's acquisition of the economic interest in the policy from Partnership B is a reportable policy sale under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, unless an exception set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section applies.

(17) Example 17. The facts are the same as in paragraph (g)(4) of this section (Example 4), except that, before A's death, C exchanges the policy on A's life for a new policy on A's life in a section 1035 exchange. The amount of the proceeds C may exclude from C's gross income under this section is limited under paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(B) of this section to $6,000 plus any premiums and other amounts paid by C with respect to the original policy subsequent to the transfer and any premiums and other amounts paid by C with respect to the new policy.

(18) Example 18. The facts are the same as in paragraph (g)(17) of this section (Example 17), except that, before A's death, C sells the new policy to A for fair market value. A's estate receives the proceeds of $100,000 on A's death. Under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(3)(i) of this section, the amount of the proceeds A's estate may exclude from gross income is not limited by paragraph (b) of this section.

(19) Example 19. A is the initial policyholder of a $100,000 insurance policy on A's life. A transfers the policy for $6,000, its fair market value, to an individual, C, who does not have a substantial family, business, or financial relationship with A at the time of the transfer. The transfer from A to C is a reportable policy sale. C also is the initial policyholder of a $200,000 insurance policy on A's life. Before A's death, C exchanges the two policies on A's life for a single new policy on A's life in a section 1035 exchange. C receives the proceeds from the new policy on A's death. The entire amount of the proceeds attributable to the interest in the new policy that was issued in exchange for the policy originally issued to C is excludable from gross income under paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(A) of this section. The amount of the proceeds attributable to the interest in the new policy that was issued in exchange for the policy originally issued to A that is excludable from gross income is limited under paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(B) of this section to $6,000 plus any premiums and other amounts paid by C with respect to the policy originally issued to A subsequent to the transfer and any premiums and other amounts paid by C with respect to the interest in the new policy that was issued in exchange for the policy originally issued to A.

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960, as amended by T.D. 6783, 29 FR 18356, Dec. 24, 1964; T.D. 7836, 47 FR 42337, Sept. 27, 1982; T.D. 9340, 72 FR 41159, July 26, 2007; T.D. 9879, 84 FR 58478, Oct. 31, 2019; T.D. 9879, 84 FR 68043, Dec. 13, 2019; T.D. 10052, 91 FR 42351, July 9, 2026]

§ 1.101-2 Employees' death benefits.

(a) In general. (1) Section 101(b) states the general rule that amounts up to $5,000 which are paid to the beneficiaries or the estate of an employee, or former employee, by or on behalf of an employer and by reason of the death of the employee shall be excluded from the gross income of the recipient. This exclusion from gross income applies whether payment is made to the estate of the employee or to any beneficiary (individual, corporation, or partnership), whether it is made directly or in trust, and whether or not it is made pursuant to a contractual obligation of the employer. The exclusion applies whether payment is made in a single sum or otherwise, subject to the provisions of section 101 (c), relating to amounts held under an agreement to pay interest thereon (see § 1.101-3). The exclusion from gross income also applies to any amount not actually paid which is otherwise taxable to a beneficiary of an employee because it was made available as a distribution from an employee's trust.

(2) The exclusion does not apply to amounts constituting income payable to the employee during his life as compensation for his services, such as bonuses or payments for unused leave or uncollected salary, nor to certain other amounts with respect to which the deceased employee possessed, immediately before his death, a nonforfeitable right to receive the amounts while living (see section 101(b)(2)(B) and paragraph (d) of this section). Further, the exclusion does not apply to amounts received as an annuity under a joint and survivor annuity obligation where the employee was the primary annuitant and the annuity starting date occurred before the death of the employee (see section 101 (b)(2)(C) and paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section). In the case of amounts received by a beneficiary as an annuity (but not as a survivor under a joint and survivor annuity with respect to which the employee was the primary annuitant), the exclusion is applied indirectly by means of the provisions of section 72 and the regulations thereunder (see section 101(b)(2)(D) and paragraph (e)(1) (iii) and (iv) of this section). Thus, for example, the exclusion applies to amounts which are received by a survivor of an employee retired on disability under the provisions of the Civil Service retirement law (5 U.S.C. 8301 or any former corresponding provisions of law) or the Retired Serviceman's Family Protection Plan or Survivor Benefit Plan (10 U.S.C. 1431 et seq.), provided such employee dies before attaining mandatory retirement age (as defined in § 1.105-4 (a)(3)(i)(B)).

(3) The total amount excludable with respect to any employee may not exceed $5,000, regardless of the number of employers or the number of beneficiaries. For allocation of the exclusion among beneficiaries, see paragraph (c) of this section. For rules governing the taxability of benefits payable on the death of an employee under pension, profitsharing, or stock bonus plans described in section 401(a) and exempt under section 501(a), under annuity plans described in section 403(a), or under annuity contracts to which paragraph (a) or (b) of § 1.403(b)-1 applies, see sections 72(m)(3), 402(a), and 403 and the regulations thereunder.

(b) Payments under certain employee benefit plans—(1) In general. Where a payment is made by reason of the death of an employee by an employer-provided welfare fund or a trust, including a stock bonus, pension, or profitsharing trust described in section 401 (a), or by an insurance company (if such payment does not constitute “life insurance” within the purview of section 101(a), the payment shall be considered to have been made by or on behalf of the employer to the extent that it exceeds amounts contributed by, or deemed contributed by, the deceased employee.

(2) Cross references. For provisions governing the taxability of distributions payable on the death of an employee participant—

(i) Under a trust described in section 401(a) and exempt from tax under section 501(a), see paragraph (c) of § 1.72-16 and paragraph (a)(5) of § 1.402 (a)-1;

(ii) Under an annuity plan described in section 403(a), see paragraph (c) of § 1.72-16 and paragraph (c) of § 1.403 (a)-1;

(iii) Under annuity contracts to which paragraph (a) or (b) of § 1.403 (b)-1 applies, see paragraph (c) (2) and (3) of § 1.403(b)-1;

(iv) Under eligible State deferred compensation plans described in section 457 (b), see paragraph (c) of § 1.457-1.

(c) Allocation of the exclusion. (1) Where the aggregate payments by or on behalf of an employer or employers as death benefits to the beneficiaries or the estate of a deceased employee exceed $5,000, the $5,000 exclusion shall be apportioned among them in the same proportion as the amount received by or the present value of the amount payable to each bears to the total death benefits paid or payable by or on behalf of the employer or employers.

(2) The application of the rule in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.

The M Corporation, the employer of A, a deceased employee who died November 30, 1954, makes payments in 1955 to the beneficiaries of A as follows: $5,000 to W, A's widow, $2,000 to B, the son of A, and $3,000 to C, the daughter of A. No other amounts are paid by any other employer of A to his estate or beneficiaries. By application of the apportionment rule stated above, W, the widow, will exclude $2,500 ($5,000/$10,000, or one-half, of $5,000); B, the son, will exclude $1,000 ($2,000/$10,000, or one-fifth, of $5,000); and C, the daughter, will exclude $1,500 ($3,000/$10,000, or three-tenths, of $5,000).

(d) Nonforfeitable rights. (1) Except as provided in subparagraphs (3) and (4) of this paragraph, the exclusion provided by section 101(b) does not apply to amounts with respect to which the deceased employee possessed, immediately before his death, a nonforfeitable right to receive the amounts while living. Section 101(b)(2)(B). For the purpose of section 101(b) and this paragraph, an employee shall be considered to have had a nonforfeitable right with respect to—

(i) Any amount to which he would have been entitled—

(a) If he had made an appropriate election or demand, or

(b) Upon termination of his employment (see examples (5) and (6) of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph); or

(ii) The present value (immediately before his death) of—

(a) Amounts payable as an annuity (as defined in paragraph (b) of § 1.72-2, whether immediate or deferred) by or on behalf of the employer (see example (1) of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph), or

(b) Amounts which would have been so payable if the employee had terminated his employment and continued to live;

or

(iii) Any amount to the extent it is paid in lieu of amounts described in either subdivision (i) or (ii) of this subparagraph. See examples (2), (3), and (4) of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph.

For purposes of subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph, any amount paid in discharge of an obligation which arose solely because of the existence of a particular fact or circumstance subsequent to the employee's death shall not be considered an amount paid in lieu of amounts described in subdivision (i) or (ii) of this subparagraph. Subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph shall apply, however, to the extent indicated therein, to amounts payable without regard to any such contingency (to the extent that such amounts are equal to or less than those described in subdivision (i) and (ii) of this subparagraph which are not paid). See paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(b) of this section for rules with respect to finding the present value of an annuity immediately before the employee's death.

(2) The application of paragraph (d)(1) of this section may be illustrated by the following examples, in which it is assumed that the plans are not “qualified plans” and that no employer is an organization referred to in section 170(b)(1)(A) (ii) or (vi) or a religious organization (other than a trust) which is exempt from tax under section 501(a):

Example 1.

A, who was a participant under the X Company pension plan, retired on December 31, 1953. He had made no contributions to the plan. Upon his retirement, he became entitled to monthly payments of $100 payable for life, or 120 months certain. A died on October 31, 1954, having received 10 monthly payments of $100 each. After his death, the monthly payments became payable to his estate for the remaining 110 months certain. No exclusion from gross income is allowed to A's estate (or any beneficiary who receives the right to such payments from the estate), since the employee's right to the monthly payments was nonforfeitable at the date of his death. It will be noted that in this example it is unnecessary to consider the present value of the annuity to A just before his death since the payments to be made include only those certain to be made in any event under the plan whether or not A continued to live.

Example 2.

C, a participant under the Y Company pension plan, died on December 15, 1954, while actively in the employment of the company, survived by a widow and minor children. Because of his years of service, he would have been entitled to an annuity for life, his own contributions to the plan and interest thereon being guaranteed, if he had retired or terminated his employment at a time immediately before his death. The plan further provides that—(a) if, but only if, an employee is survived by a widow and minor children, his widow is to receive an annuity for her life without regard to whether or not the employee had begun his annuity; (b) any payments made with respect to his widow's annuity are to reduce the guaranteed amount to an equal extent; and (c) if the employee is not so survived, the guaranteed amount is payable to his beneficiary or estate, but no amount is payable to anyone with respect to what would have been the widow's annuity. In view of these provisions, that portion of the present value of the annuity payable to C's widow which exceeds the guaranteed amount shall be considered paid neither as an amount, nor in lieu of an amount, which C had a nonforfeitable right to receive while living. The reason for this result is that the payment of such excess is contingent upon C's being survived by a widow and minor children, a circumstance existing subsequent to his death. Conversely, to the extent that the present value of the annuity payable to C's widow does not exceed the guaranteed amount, annuity payments attributable to such present value shall be considered paid in lieu of an amount which C had a nonforfeitable right to receive while living.

Example 3.

D, a participant under the Y Company pension plan, died on January 1, 1955, while actively in the employment of the company. The Y Company plan provides that where an employee dies in service, the present value of the accumulated credits which he could have obtained at that time if he had instead separated from the service shall be paid in a single sum to his surviving spouse or to his estate if no widow survives him. The present value of D's accumulated credits, at the time of his death, was $10,000. However, the plan also provides that a surviving spouse may elect to take, in lieu of a single sum, an annuity the present value of which exceeds such sum by $2,500. D's widow elects to receive an annuity (the present value of which is $12,500). Therefore, $2,500 is an amount to which the exclusion of section 101(b) and this section shall apply.

Example 4.

A, an employee of the X Company, continues to work after reaching the normal retirement age of 60 years, although he could have retired at that age and obtained an annuity of $3,000 per year for his life. A is not entitled to any part of the annuity while he is employed and receiving compensation. A dies at the age of 67 while still in active employment. Since he had passed normal retirement age, his additional years of service did not entitle him to a larger annuity at age 67 than that which he could have obtained at age 60. However, the plan of the X Company provides that in the event of an employee's death prior to separation from the service, his widow is to be paid an annuity for her life in the same amount per year as that which the employee could have obtained if he had instead retired; but if no widow survives him, the present value of the annuity which the employee could have obtained at a time just before his death is to be paid to a named beneficiary or the estate of the employee. Assuming that the present value of the annuity to A's widow, whose age is 61, is $36,000 and the present value of the annuity which would have been payable to A at age 67 if he had then retired is $23,500, the present value of the widow's annuity, to the extent of $23,500, is an amount which is payable in lieu of amounts which the employee had a nonforfeitable right to receive while living because it does not exceed the value of his nonforfeitable rights and is not otherwise paid. On the other hand, the $12,500 excess of the value of the widow's annuity ($36,000) over the value of the employee's annuity ($23,500) is an amount to which section 101(b) applies since the employee had no right to any part of it. If no other death benefits are payable, a $5,000 exclusion is available (see section 101(b)(2)(D) and paragraph (e) of this section).

Example 5.

The trustee of the X Corporation noncontributory profit-sharing plan is required under the provisions of the plan to pay to the beneficiary of B, an employee of the X Corporation who died on July 1, 1955, the benefit due on account of the death of B. The provisions of the profit-sharing plan give each participating employee in case of termination of employment a 10-percent vested interest in the amount accumulated in his account for each year of participation in the plan. In case of death, the entire credit in the participant's account is to be paid to his beneficiary. At the time of B's death, he had been a participant for three years and the accumulation in his account was $8,000. After his death this amount is paid to his beneficiary. At the time of B's death, the amount distributable to him on account of termination of employment would have been $2,400 (30 percent of $8,000). The difference of $5,600 ($8,000 minus $2,400), payable to the beneficiary of B, is an amount payable solely by reason of B's death. Accordingly, $5,000 of the $5,600 may be excluded from the gross income of the beneficiary receiving such payment (assuming no other death benefits are involved). However, if it is assumed that the facts are the same as above, except that at the time of his death B has been a participant for 6 years, the amount distributable to him on account of termination of employment would have been $4,800 (60 percent of $8,000). The difference of $3,200 ($8,000 minus $4,800), payable to B's beneficiary, is an amount payable solely by reason of B's death. Accordingly, only $3,200 may be excluded from the gross income of the beneficiary receiving such payment (assuming no other death benefits are involved).

Example 6.

The X Corporation instituted a trust, forming part of a pension plan, for its employees, the cost thereof being borne entirely by the corporation. The plan provides, in part, that after 10 or more years of service and attaining the age of 55, an employee can elect to retire and receive benefits before the normal retirement date contingent upon the employer's approval. If he retires without the employer's consent, or voluntarily leaves the company, no benefits are or will be payable. The plan further provides that if the employee is involuntarily separated or dies before retirement, he or his beneficiary, respectively, will receive a percentage of the reserve provided for the employee in the trust fund on the following basis: 10 to 15 years of service, 25 percent; 15 to 20 years of service, 50 percent; 20 to 25 years of service, 75 percent; 25 or more years of service, 100 percent. A, an employee of the X Corporation for 17 years, died at the age of 56 while in the employ of the corporation. At the time of his death, $15,000 was the reserve provided for him in the trust. His beneficiary receives $7,500, an amount equal to 50 percent of the reserve provided for A's retirement; accordingly, $5,000 of the $7,500 may be excluded from the gross income of the beneficiary receiving such payment (assuming no other death benefits are involved) since A, prior to his death, had only a forfeitable right to receive $7,500.

(3)(i) Notwithstanding the rule stated in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph and illustrated in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, the exclusion from gross income provided by section 101(b) applies to the receipt of certain amounts, paid under “qualified” plans, with respect to which the deceased employee possessed, immediately before his death, a nonforfeitable right to receive the amounts while living (see section 101(b)(2)(B) (i) and (ii)). The payments to which this exclusion applies are—

(a) “Total distributions payable” by a stock bonus, pension, or profit-sharing trust described in section 401(a) which is exempt from tax under section 501(a), and

(b) “Total amounts” paid under an annuity contract under a plan described in section 403(a), provided such distributions or amounts are paid in full within one taxable year of the distributee (see example (3) of subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph). For the purposes of applying section 101(b), “Total distributions payable” means the balance to the credit of an employee which becomes payable to a distributee on account of the employee's death, either before or after separation from the service (see section 402(a)(3)(C), the regulations thereunder, and examples (2) and (4) of subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph); and “total amounts” means the balance to the credit of an employee which becomes payable to the payee by reason of the employee's death, either before or after separation from the service (see section 403(a)(2)(B), the regulations thereunder, and example (1) of subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph). See subparagraph (4) of this paragraph relating to the exclusion of amounts which are received under annuity contracts purchased by certain exempt organizations and with respect to which the deceased employee possessed, immediately before his death, a nonforfeitable right to receive the amounts while living.

(ii) The application of the provisions of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

The widow of an employee elects, under a noncontributory “qualified” plan, to receive in a lump sum the present value of the annuity which C, the deceased employee, could have obtained at a time just before his death if he had retired at that time. Such present value is $6,000. Of this amount, $5,000 is excludable from the widow's gross income despite the fact that C had a nonforfeitable right to the amount in lieu of which the payment is made, since such payment is an amount to which subdivision (i) of this subparagraph applies (assuming no other death benefits are involved).

Example 2.

The trustee of the X Corporation noncontributory, “qualified”, profit- sharing plan is required under the provisions of the plan to pay to the beneficiary of B, an employee of the X Corporation who died on July 1, 1955, the benefit due on account of the death of B. The provisions of the profit-sharing plan give each participating employee, in case of termination of employment, a 10 percent vested interest in the amount accumulated in his account for each year of participation in the plan, but, in case of death, the entire credit to the participant's account is to be paid to his beneficiary. At the time of B's death, he had been a participant for five years. The accumulation in his account was $8,000, and the amount which would have been distributable to him in the event of termination of employment was $4,000 (50 percent of $8,000). After his death, $8,000 is paid to his beneficiary in a lump sum. (It may be noted that these are the same facts as in example (5) of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph except that the employee has been a participant for five years instead of three and the plan is a “qualified” plan.) It is immaterial that the employee had a nonforfeitable right to $4,000, because the payment of the $8,000 to the beneficiary is the payment of the “total distributions payable” within one taxable year of the distributee to which subdivision (i) of this subparagraph applies. Assuming no other death benefits are involved, the beneficiary may exclude $5,000 of the $8,000 payment from gross income.

Example 3.

The facts are the same as in example (2) except that the beneficiary is entitled to receive only the $4,000 to which the employee had a nonforfeitable right and elects, 30 days after B's death, to receive it over a period of ten years. Since the “total distributions payable” are not paid within one taxable year of the distributee, no exclusion from gross income is allowable with respect to the $4,000.

Example 4.

The X Corporation instituted a trust, forming part of a “qualified” profit-sharing plan for its employees, the cost thereof being borne entirely by the corporation. The plan provides, in part, that if, after 10 or more years of service, an employee leaves the employ of the corporation, either voluntarily or involuntarily, before retirement, a percentage of the reserve provided for the employee in the trust fund will be paid to the employee as follows: 10 to 15 years of service, 25 percent; 15 to 20 years of service, 50 percent; 20 to 25 years of service, 75 percent; 25 or more years of service, 100 percent. The plan further provides that if an employee dies before reaching retirement age, his beneficiary will receive a percentage of the reserve provided for the employee in the trust fund, on the same basis as shown in the preceding sentence. A, an employee of the X Corporation for 17 years, died before attaining retirement age while in the employ of the corporation. At the time of his death, $15,000 was the reserve provided for him in the trust fund. His beneficiary receives $7,500 in a lump sum, an amount equal to 50 percent of the reserve provided for A's retirement. The beneficiary may exclude from gross income (assuming no other death benefits are involved) $5,000 of the $7,500, since the latter amount constitutes “total distributions payable” paid within one taxable year of the distributee, to which subdivision (i) of this subparagraph applies.

(4)(i) Notwithstanding the rule stated in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph and illustrated in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, the exclusion from gross income under section 101(b) also applies (but only to the extent provided in the next sentence) to amounts with respect to which the deceased employee possessed, immediately before his death, a nonforfeitable right to receive the amounts while living—

(a) If such amounts are paid under an annuity contract purchased by an employer which is an organization referred to in section 170(b)(1)(A) (ii) or (vi) or which is a religious organization (other than a trust) and which is exempt from tax under section 501(a).

(b) If such amounts are paid as part of a “total payment” with respect to the deceased employee; and

(c) If such “total payment” is paid in full within one taxable year of the payee beginning after December 31, 1957.

However, the amount that is excludable under section 101(b) by reason of this subparagraph shall not exceed an amount which bears the same ratio to the amount which would be includible in the payee's gross income if it were not for the second sentence of section 101(b)(2)(B) and this subparagraph, as the amount contributed by the employer for the annuity contract that was excludable from the deceased employee's gross income under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1 bears to the total amount contributed by the employer for the annuity contract. See section 101(b)(2)(B)(iii). For purposes of this subparagraph, a “total payment” means a payment of the balance to the credit of an employee with respect to all “section 403(b) annuities” purchased by the employer which becomes payable to the payee by reason of the employee's death, either before or after separation from the service. An annuity contract will be regarded as a “section 403(b) annuity” if any amount contributed (or considered as contributed under paragraph (b)(2) of § 1.403(b)-1) by the employer for such contract was excludable from the employee's gross income under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1. Under this definition, therefore, an annuity contract may be regarded as a “section 403(b) annuity” even though some of the employer's contributions for the contract were not excludable from the employee's gross income under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1 because, for example, the employer was not an exempt organization when such contributions were paid. For purposes of computing the ratio described in this subdivision in such a case, the total amount contributed by the employer for the contract includes the amounts contributed by the employer when it was not an exempt organization.

(ii) This subparagraph does not relate to any amounts with respect to which the deceased employee did not possess, immediately before his death, a nonforfeitable right to receive the amounts while living. Such amounts are excludable under the provisions of section 101(b) without regard to section 101(b)(2)(B) and this subparagraph. Thus, if a “total payment” received by a beneficiary of a deceased employee under an annuity contract purchased by an organization described in subdivision (i)(a) of this subparagraph consists both of amounts with respect to which the deceased employee possessed, immediately before his death, a nonforfeitable right to receive the amounts while living and of amounts with respect to which the deceased employee did not possess such a nonforfeitable right, only those amounts with respect to which the deceased employee possessed such a nonforfeitable right are amounts to which this subparagraph applies. Therefore, for purposes of computing the ratio described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph in such a case, there shall be taken into account only the employer contributions attributable to those amounts with respect to which the deceased employee possessed, immediately before his death, a nonforfeitable right to receive the amounts while living. See example (3) of subdivision (v) of this subparagraph. In no event, however, may the total amount excludable under section 101(b) with respect to any employee exceed $5,000 (See paragraph (a)(3) of this section).

(iii)(a) In any case when the deceased employee's interest in the employer's contributions for an annuity contract was forfeitable at the time the contributions were made but, at a subsequent date prior to his death, such interest changed to a nonforfeitable interest, then, for purposes of computing the ratio described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, the cash surrender value of the contract on the date of the change (except to the extent attributable to employee contributions) shall be considered as the amount contributed by the employer for the contract. In such a case, if only part of the deceased employee's interest in the annuity changed from a forfeitable to a nonforfeitable interest, then only the corresponding part of the cash surrender value of the contract on the date of the change shall be considered as the amount contributed by the employer for the contract. Similarly, if part of the deceased employee's interest in the annuity contract changed from a forfeitable to a nonforfeitable interest on a particular date and another part of his interest so changed on a subsequent date, it is necessary, in order to compute the amount contributed by the employer for the contract, to first determine (under the rules in the preceding sentence) the amount that is considered as the amount contributed by the employer with respect to each change, and then to add these amounts together. For purposes of computing the ratio described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph in all of the above cases, the amount contributed by the employer that was excludable from the employee's gross income under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1 is that amount which, under paragraph (b)(2) of such section, was considered as employer contributions and which, under such paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1, was excludable from the deceased employee's gross income for the taxable year in which the change occurred.

(b) This subdivision (iii) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

X Organization contributed $4,000 toward the purchase of an annuity contract for A, an employee who died in 1970. At the time they were made, A's interest in such contributions was forfeitable. A made no contributions toward the purchase of the annuity contract. On January 1, 1960, A's entire interest in the annuity contract changed to a nonforfeitable interest. At the time of such change, the cash surrender value of the contract was $5,000. For purposes of the ratio described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, the total amount contributed by X Organization for the annuity contract is $5,000. If any part of such $5,000 was excludable under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1 from A's gross income for his taxable year in which the change occurred, the amount so excludable shall be considered as the amount contributed for the contract by the employer that was excludable from the employee's gross income under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1.

Example 2.

Assume the same facts as in example (1) except that only one-half of A's interest in the annuity contract changed to a nonforfeitable interest on January 1, 1960, and that no other part of his interest so changed during his lifetime. For purposes of the ratio described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, the total amount contributed by X Organization for the annuity contract is $2,500 ( 1/2 of the cash surrender value of the annuity contract on the date of the change). To the extent such $2,500 was, under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1, excludable from A's gross income for the taxable year of the change, it is considered as the amount contributed by the employer that was excludable under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1.

Example 3.

Assume the same facts as in example (1) except that one-half of A's interest in the annuity contract changed to a nonforfeitable interest on January 1, 1960, and the other half of his interest changed to a nonforfeitable interest on January 1, 1965. On January 1, 1965, the cash surrender value of the annuity contract was $6,000. For purposes of the ratio described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, the total amount contributed by X organization for the annuity contract is $5,500 (i.e., 1/2 × $5,000 plus 1/2 × $6,000). The amount contributed by the employer that was excludable from A's gross income under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1 is an amount equal to the sum of the amount that was, under such paragraph, excludable from A's gross income for the taxable year during which the first change occurred and the amount that was, under such paragraph, excludable from A's gross income for the taxable year in which the second change occurred.

(iv) For purposes of this subparagraph, an annuity contract will be considered to have been purchased by an employer which is an organization referred to in section 170(b)(1)(A) (ii) or (vi) or which is a religious organization (other than a trust) and which is exempt from tax under section 501(a), if any of the contributions paid toward the purchase price of such contract by the employer were paid at a time when the employer was such an organization. Thus an annuity contract may be regarded as purchased by such an organization even though part of the organization's contributions for such annuity contract were paid at a time when the organization was not such an exempt organization.

(v) The application of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

The widow of A, a deceased employee, elects, under an annuity contract purchased for A by X Organization, to receive in a lump sum the present value of such annuity contract as of the date of A's death. Such present value is $6,000 and is received by the widow in a taxable year beginning after December 31, 1957. X Organization contributed $3,000 toward the purchase of the annuity contract and A contributed $2,000 toward such purchase. A's interest in X Organization's contributions was nonforfeitable at the time such contributions were made. Thus, just before his death, A's entire interest in the annuity contract was a nonforfeitable interest and, if he had retired at that time, he could have received the present value of $6,000. The whole amount of the $3,000 contributed by X Organization for the annuity contract was excludable from A's gross income under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1. This annuity contract was the only annuity contract purchased by X Organization for A and was not purchased as part of a qualified plan. However, all the contributions paid by X Organization were paid at a time when X Organization was an organization referred to in section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii) and exempt from tax under section 501(a). The amount that A's widow may exclude from gross income (assuming no other death benefits) is computed in the following manner:

(a) Amount includible in gross income without regard to second sentence of section 101(b)(2)(B) ($6,000 minus $2,000 contributed for contract by A) $4,000
(b) Total employer contributions for the contract $3,000
(c) Amount of employer contributions for the contract that was excludable under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1 $3,000
(d) Percent of total employer contributions for the contract that were excludable under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1 ((c) ÷ (b)) 100%
(e) Amount to which section 101(b) exclusion applies ((d) × (a)) $4,000
Example 2.

The facts are the same as in example (1) except that only $2,000 of X Organization's contributions for the annuity contract was excludable from A's gross income under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1 and that the remaining $1,000 was includible in A's gross income for the taxable years during which such amounts were contributed by X Organization. The amount that A's widow may exclude from gross income (assuming no other death benefits) is computed in the following manner:

(a) Amount includible in gross income without regard to second sentence of section 101(b)(2)(B) ($6,000 minus $2,000 contributed for contract by A and $1,000 of X Organization's contributions includible in A's gross income) $3,000
(b) Total employer contributions for the contract $3,000
(c) Amount of employer contributions for the contract that was excludable under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1 $2,000
(d) Percent of total employer contributions for the contract that were excludable under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1 ((c) ÷ (b)) 67%
(e) Amount to which section 101(b) exclusion applies ((d) × (a)) $2,000
Example 3.

The widow of B, a deceased employee, elects, under an annuity contract purchased for B by Y Organization, to receive in a lump sum the present value of such annuity contract as of the date of B's death. Such present value is $6,000 and is received by the widow in a taxable year beginning after December 31, 1957. Y Organization contributed $4,000 toward the purchase of the contract; whereas B made no contributions toward the purchase of the contract. This annuity contract was the only annuity contract purchased by Y Organization for B and was not purchased as part of a “qualified” plan. However, all the contributions paid by Y Organization were paid at a time when it was an organization referred to in section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii) and exempt from tax under section 501(a). B's interest in Y Organization's contributions was, at the time they were paid, forfeitable. However, prior to his death, one-half of B's interest in the annuity contract changed from a forfeitable to a nonforfeitable interest. Therefore, just before his death, B could have obtained $3,000 under the annuity contract if he had retired at that time. On the date of the change, the cash surrender value of the annuity contract was $5,000. As a result of the change, $1,500 was, under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1, excludable from B's gross income, and $600 was includible in his gross income for the taxable year in which the change occurred. Part of the value of the annuity contract on the date of the change was attributable to contributions made by Y Organization prior to January 1, 1958, and, consequently, was neither excludable from B's gross income under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1 nor includible in B's gross income (see paragraph (b) of § 1.403(d)-1). The amount that B's widow may exclude from gross income (assuming no other death benefits) is computed in the following manner:

(a) Amount of “total payment” with respect to which A had a forfeitable right at time of death. (1⁄2 × $6,000) $3,000
(b) Amount includible in gross income without regard to second sentence of section 101(b)(2)(B) (1⁄2 × $6,000 less $600 includible in B's gross income for year when his rights changed to nonforfeitable rights) $2,400
(c) Total employer contributions for the contract (1⁄2 of cash surrender value of contract on date B's rights changed to nonforfeitable rights) $2,500
(d) Amount of employer contributions for the contract that was excludable under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1 $1,500
(e) Percent of total employer contributions for the contract that were excludable under paragraph (b) of § 1.403(b)-1 ((d) ÷ (c)) 60%
(f) Amount to which section 101(b) exclusion applies by reason of the second sentence of section 101(b)(2)(B) ((e) × (b)) $1,440
(g) Total amount to which section 101(b) exclusion applies ((a) + (f)) $4,440

(e) Annuity payments. (1) Where death benefits are paid in the form of annuity payments, the following rules shall govern for purposes of the exclusion provided in section 101(b):

(i) The exclusion from gross income provided by section 101(b) does not apply to amounts, paid as an annuity, with respect to which the employee possessed, immediately before his death, a nonforfeitable right to receive the amounts while living, or to amounts paid as an annuity in lieu thereof. See paragraph (d) of this section.

(ii) Under section 101(b)(2)(C), no exclusion is allowable for amounts received by a surviving annuitant under a joint and survivor's annuity contract if the annuity starting date (as defined in section 72(c)(4) and paragraph (b) of § 1.72-4) occurs before the death of the employee. If the annuity starting date occurs after the death of the employee, the joint and survivor's annuity contract shall be treated as an annuity to which section 101(b)(2)(D) applies. See subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph.

(iii)(a) Subject to the other limitations stated in section 101(b) and in this section (see section 101(b)(2)(D)), the amount to which the exclusion of section 101(b) shall apply, with respect to “amounts received as an annuity” (as defined in paragraph (b) of § 1.72-2) shall be the amount by which the present value of the annuity to be paid to the beneficiary, computed as of the date of the employee's death, exceeds the value (if any) of whichever of the following is the larger:

(1) Amounts contributed by the employee (determined in accordance with the provisions of section 72 and the regulations thereunder), or

(2) Amounts with respect to which the employee possessed, immediately before his death, a nonforfeitable right to receive the amounts while living, or amounts paid in lieu thereof (see paragraph (d) of this section).

(b) The present value of an annuity (immediately before the death of the employee), to the employee, or (immediately after the death of the employee), to his estate or beneficiary, shall be determined as follows:

(1) In the case of an annuity paid by an insurance company or by an organization (other than an insurance company) regularly engaged in issuing annuity contracts with an insurance company as the coinsurer or reinsurer of the obligations under the contract, by use of the discount interest rates and mortality tables used by the insurance company involved to determine the installment benefits; and

(2) In the case of an annuity issued after November 23, 1984, to which paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(b)(1) of this section is not applicable, by use of the appropriate tables in § 20.2031-7 of this chapter (Estate Tax Regulations).

(iv) Any amount subject to section 101(b)(2)(D) which is excludable under section 101(b) (see subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph) shall, for purposes of section 72, be treated as additional consideration paid by the employee. See paragraph (b) of § 1.72-8.

(v) Where more than one beneficiary, or more than one death benefit, is involved, the exclusion provided by section 101(b) shall be apportioned to the various beneficiaries and benefits in accordance with the proportion that the present value of each benefit bears to the total present value of all the benefits.

(2) The application of the principles of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

(i) A died on January 1, 1969. Under the plan of the X Corporation, W, who is the widow of employee A, and who is 55 years old at the time of A's death, is entitled to an immediate annuity of $2,000 per year during her life and C, the minor child of A, is entitled to receive $1,000 per year for 15 years. A made no contributions under the plan and died while still employed by the X Corporation. At the time of A's death, the amount in his account is $18,000. Under the terms of the plan, this amount would have been distributable to him on account of voluntary termination of employment, but would not have been payable after his death except in the form of the annuities just described. This amount, accordingly, constitutes a nonforfeitable interest in lieu of which the annuities are paid. The exclusion does not apply, except to the extent that the present value of the annuities exceeds $18,000, whether or not the plan is “qualified”, since the total of the amount in A's account will not be paid within one taxable year of the distributees. See subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph.

(ii) The computation of the exclusion applicable to the interests of W and C (assuming that the payments will not be made by an insurance company or some other organization regularly engaged in issuing annuity contracts) is, by application of the tables in § 20.2031-7 of this chapter (Estate Tax Regulations), as follows: The present value of W's interest is $26,243.60, determined by multiplying the annual payment of $2,000 by 13.1218 (the factor in Table I for a person aged 55); the present value of C's interest is $11,517.40, determined by multiplying the yearly payment of $1,000 by 11.5174 (the factor in Table II for payments for a term certain of 15 years). The present value of both annuities is $37,761 and (assuming no other death benefits are involved), the total amount excludable is $5,000, because the total present value of the annuities exceeds the employee's nonforfeitable interest by more than $5,000 ($37,761 minus $18,000 equal $19,761). The exclusion allocable to W's interest is $26,243.60/$37,761 times $5,000, or $3,474.96; the exclusion allocable to C's interest is $11,517.40/$37,761 times $5,000, or $1,525.04. That portion of the death benefit exclusion as so determined for each beneficiary is to be treated as consideration paid by the employee for purposes of section 72.

Example 2.

The facts are the same as in example (1), except that the nonforfeitable interest of A, at the time of his death, amounted to $33,761. Since the present value of both annuities ($37,761) exceeds the value of such nonforfeitable interest by only $4,000, the latter amount is the total amount excludable from the gross income of the beneficiaries. This $4,000 exclusion is to be divided in the same proportions as those indicated in example (1). Thus, the exclusion allocable to W's interest is $26,243.60/$37,761 times $4,000, or $2,779.97; and the exclusion allocable to the interest of C is $11,517.40/$37,761 times $4,000, or $1,220.03. That portion of the death benefit exclusion as so determined for each beneficiary is to be treated as consideration paid by the employee for purposes of section 72.

(f) Distributions on behalf of a self- employed individual. (1) Under sections 401(c)(1) and 403(a)(3), certain self-employed individuals may be covered by a pension or profit-sharing plan described in section 401(a) and exempt under section 501(a) or under an annuity plan described in section 403(a). However, a payment pursuant to the provisions of any such plan by reason of the death of an individual who participated in such a plan as a self-employed individual immediately before his retirement or death to the beneficiary or estate of such individual does not qualify for the exclusion provided by section 101(b).

(2) The application of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

From 1950 to 1965, A was an employee of B, a sole proprietor. In 1963, B established a qualified pension plan covering A and all other persons who had been employed by B for more than 3 years. In 1965, A acquired from B a 40-percent interest in the capital and profits of the business. A continued to participate in the pension plan as a self-employed individual. In 1970, A died and his widow, in compliance with one of the provisions of the pension plan, elected to receive all of the benefits accrued to A prior to his death in a lump-sum distribution. As A participated in the plan as a self-employed individual immediately prior to his death, A's widow may not exclude any portion of such distribution from her gross income under section 101(b).

Example 2.

A, an attorney, is employed by the X Company in their legal department. He is covered by the pension plan that X has established for its employees. Under the terms of A's contract of employment with X, A is permitted to carry on the private practice of law in his off-duty hours. A establishes his own pension plan with respect to his earnings from his private practice. On A's death, his widow elected to receive a lump-sum distribution with respect to any benefits accrued to A under both X's pension plan and A's own pension plan. To the extent that such payment otherwise complies with the requirements of section 101(b), up to $5,000 of the amount paid by X may be excluded from her gross income. No part of the distribution from A's own pension plan may be excluded from her gross income under section 101(b) because A participated in the plan as a self-employed individual immediately before his death.

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960, as amended by T.D. 6722, 29 FR 5070, Apr. 14, 1964; T.D. 6783, 29 FR 18357, Dec. 24, 1964; T.D. 7352, 40 FR 16666, Apr. 14, 1975; T.D. 7428, 41 FR 34619, Aug. 16, 1976; T.D. 7836, 47 FR 42337, Sept. 27, 1982; T.D. 7955, 49 FR 19975, May 11, 1984; T.D. 8540, 59 FR 30102, 30103, June 10, 1994]

§ 1.101-3 Interest payments.

(a) Applicability of section 101(c). Section 101(c) provides that if any amount excluded from gross income by section 101(a) (relating to life insurance proceeds) or section 101(b) (relating to employees' death benefits) is held under an agreement to pay interest thereon, the interest payments shall be included in gross income. This provision applies to payments made (either by an insurer or by or on behalf of an employer) of interest earned on any amount so excluded from gross income which is held without substantial diminution of the principal amount during the period when such interest payments are being made or credited to the beneficiaries or estate of the insured or the employee. For example, if a monthly payment is $100, of which $99 represents interests and $1 represents diminution of the principal amount, the principal amount shall be considered held under an agreement to pay interest thereon and the interest payment shall be included in the gross income of the recipient. Section 101(c) applies whether the election to have an amount held under an agreement to pay interest thereon is made by the insured or employee or by his beneficiaries or estate, and whether or not an interest rate is explicitly stated in the agreement. Section 101(d), relating to the payment of life insurance proceeds at a date later than death, shall not apply to any amount to which section 101(c) applies. See section 101(d)(4). However, both section 101(c) and section 101(d) may apply to payments received under a single life insurance contract. For provisions relating to the application of this rule to payments received under a permanent life insurance policy with a family income rider attached, see paragraph (h) of § 1.101-4.

(b) Determination of “present value”. For the purpose of determining whether section 101(c) or section 101(d) applies, the present value (at the time of the insured's death) of any amount which is to be paid at a date later than death shall be determined by the use of the interest rate and mortality tables used by the insurer in determining the size of the payments to be made.

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960, as amended by T.D. 6577, 26 FR 10127, Oct. 28, 1961]

§ 1.101-4 Payment of life insurance proceeds at a date later than death.

(a) In general. (1)(i) Section 101(d) states the provisions governing the exclusion from gross income of amounts (other than those to which section 101(c) applies) received under a life insurance contract and paid by reason of the death of the insured which are paid to a beneficiary on a date or dates later than the death of the insured. However, if the amounts payable as proceeds of life insurance to which section 101(a)(1) applies cannot in any event exceed the amount payable at the time of the insured's death, such amounts are fully excludable from the gross income of the recipient (or recipients) without regard to the actual time of payment and no further determination need be made under this section. Section 101(d)(1)(A) provides an exclusion from gross income of any amount determined by a proration, under applicable regulations, of “an amount held by an insurer with respect to any beneficiary”. The quoted phrase is defined in section 101(d)(2). For the regulations governing the method of computation of this proration, see paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section. The prorated amounts are to be excluded from the gross income of the beneficiary regardless of the taxable year in which they are actually received (see example (2) of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph).

(ii) Section 101(d)(1)(B) provides an additional exclusion where life insurance proceeds are paid to the surviving spouse of an insured. For purposes of this exclusion, the term “surviving spouse” means the spouse of the insured as of the date of death, including a spouse legally separated, but not under a decree of absolute divorce (section 101(d)(3)). To the extent that the total payments, under one or more agreements, made in excess of the amounts determined by proration under section 101(d)(1)(A) do not exceed $1,000 in the taxable year of receipt, they shall be excluded from the gross income of the surviving spouse (whether or not payment of any part of such amounts is guaranteed by the insurer). Amounts excludable under section 101(d)(1)(B) are not “prorated” amounts.

(2) The principles of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

A surviving spouse elects to receive all of the life insurance proceeds with respect to one insured, amounting to $150,000, in ten annual installments of $16,500 each, based on a certain guaranteed interest rate. The prorated amount is $15,000 ($150,000 ÷ 10). As the second payment, the insurer pays $17,850, which exceeds the guaranteed payment by $1,350 as the result of earnings of the insurer in excess of those required to pay the guaranteed installments. The surviving spouse shall include $1,850 in gross income and exclude $16,000—determined in the following manner:

Fixed payment (including guaranteed interest) $16,500
Excess interest 1,350
Total payment 17,850
Prorated amount 15,000
Excess over prorated amount 2,850
Annual excess over prorated amount excludable under section 101(d)(1)(B) 1,000
Amount includible in gross income 1,850
Example 2.

Assume the same facts as in example (1), except that the third and fourth annual installments, totalling $33,000 (2 × $16,500), are received in a single subsequent taxable year of the surviving spouse. The prorated amount of $15,000 of each annual installment, totalling $30,000, shall be excluded even though the spouse receives more than one annual installment in the single subsequent taxable year. However, the surviving spouse is entitled to only one exclusion of $1,000 under section 101(d)(1)(B) for each taxable year of receipt. The surviving spouse shall include $2,000 in her gross income for the taxable year with respect to the above installment payments ($33,000 less the sum of $30,000 plus $1,000).

Example 3.

Assume the same facts as in example (1), except that the surviving spouse dies before receiving all ten annual installments and the remaining installments are paid to her estate or beneficiary. In such a case, $15,000 of each installment would continue to be excludable from the gross income of the recipient, but any amounts received in excess thereof would be fully includible.

(b) Amount held by an insurer. (1) For the purpose of the proration referred to in section 101(d)(1), an “amount held by an insurer with respect to any beneficiary” means an amount equal to the present value to such beneficiary (as of the date of death of the insured) of an agreement by the insurer under a life insurance policy (whether as an option or otherwise) to pay such beneficiary an amount or amounts at a date or dates later than the death of the insured (section 101(d)(2)). The present value of such agreement is to be computed as if the agreement under the life insurance policy had been entered into on the date of death of the insured, except that such value shall be determined by the use of the mortality table and interest rate used by the insurer in calculating payments to be made to the beneficiary under such agreement. Where an insurance policy provides an option for the payment of a specific amount upon the death of the insured in full discharge of the contract, such lump sum is the amount held by the insurer with respect to all beneficiaries (or their beneficiaries) under the contract. See, however, paragraph (e) of this section.

(2) In the case of two or more beneficiaries, the “amount held by the insurer” with respect to each beneficiary depends on the relationship of the different benefits payable to such beneficiaries. Where the amounts payable to two or more beneficiaries are independent of each other, the “amount held by the insurer with respect to each beneficiary” shall be determined and prorated over the periods involved independently. Thus, if a certain amount per month is to be paid to A for his life, and, concurrently, another amount per month is to be paid to B for his life, the “amount held by the insurer” shall be determined and prorated for both A and B independently, but the aggregate shall not exceed the total present value of such payments to both. On the other hand, if the obligation to pay B was contingent on his surviving A, the “amount held by the insurer” shall be considered an amount held with respect to both beneficiaries simultaneously. Furthermore, it is immaterial whether B is a named beneficiary or merely the ultimate recipient of payments for a term of years. For the special rules governing the computation of the proration of the “amount held by an insurer” in determining amounts excludable under the provisions of section 101(d), see paragraphs (c) to (f), inclusive, of this section.

(3) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, if the policy was transferred for a valuable consideration, the total “amount held by an insurer” cannot exceed the sum of the consideration paid plus any premiums or other consideration paid subsequent to the transfer if the provisions of section 101(a)(2) and paragraph (b) of § 1.101-1 limit the excludability of the proceeds to such total.

(c) Treatment of payments for life to a sole beneficiary. If the contract provides for the payment of a specified lump sum, but, pursuant to an agreement between the beneficiary and the insurer, payments are to be made during the life of the beneficiary in lieu of such lump sum, the lump sum shall be divided by the life expectancy of the beneficiary determined in accordance with the mortality table used by the insurer in determining the benefits to be paid. However, if payments are to be made to the estate or beneficiary of the primary beneficiary in the event that the primary beneficiary dies before receiving a certain number of payments or a specified total amount, such lump sum shall be reduced by the present value (at the time of the insured's death) of amounts which may be paid by reason of the guarantee, in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (e) of this section, before making this calculation. To the extent that payments received in each taxable year do not exceed the amount found from the above calculation, they are “prorated amounts” of the “amount held by an insurer” and are excludable from the gross income of the beneficiary without regard to whether he lives beyond the life expectancy used in making the calculation. If the contract in question does not provide for the payment of a specific lump sum upon the death of the insured as one of the alternative methods of payment, the present value (at the time of the death of the insured) of the payments to be made the beneficiary, determined in accordance with the interest rate and mortality table used by the insurer in determining the benefits to be paid, shall be used in the above calculation in lieu of a lump sum.

(d) Treatment of payments to two or more beneficiaries—(1) Unrelated payments. If payments are to be made to two or more beneficiaries, but the payments to be made to each are to be made without regard to whether or not payments are made or continue to be made to the other beneficiaries, the present value (at the time of the insured's death) of such payments to each beneficiary shall be determined independently for each such beneficiary. The present value so determined shall then be divided by the term for which the payments are to be made. If the payments are to be made for the life of the beneficiary, the divisor shall be the life expectancy of the beneficiary. To the extent that payments received by a beneficiary do not exceed the amount found from the above calculation, they are “prorated amounts” of the “amount held by an insurer” with respect to such beneficiary and are excludable from the gross income of the beneficiary without regard to whether he lives beyond any life expectancy used in making the calculation. For the purpose of the calculation described above, both the “present value” of the payments to be made periodically and the “life expectancy” of the beneficiary shall be determined in accordance with the interest rate and mortality table used by the insurer in determining the benefits to be paid. If payments are to be made to the estate or beneficiary of a primary beneficiary in the event that such beneficiary dies before receiving a certain number of payments or a specified total amount, the “present value” of payments to such beneficiary shall not include the present value (at the time of the insured's death) of amounts which may be paid by reason of such a guarantee. See paragraph (e) of this section.

(2) Related payments. If payments to be made to two or more beneficiaries are in the nature of a joint and survivor annuity (as described in paragraph (b) of § 1.72-5), the present value (at the time of the insured's death) of the payments to be made to all such beneficiaries shall be divided by the life expectancy of such beneficiaries as a group. To the extent that the payments received by a beneficiary do not exceed the amount found from the above calculation, they are “prorated amounts” of the “amount held by an insurer” with respect to such beneficiary and are excludable from the gross income of the beneficiary without regard to whether all the beneficiaries involved live beyond the life expectancy used in making the calculation. For the purpose of the calculation described above, both the “present value” of the payments to be made periodically and the “life expectancy” of all the beneficiaries as a group shall be determined in accordance with the interest rate and mortality table used by the insurer in determining the benefits to be paid. If the contract provides that certain payments are to be made in the event that all the beneficiaries of the group die before a specified number of payments or a specified total amount is received by them, the present value of payments to be made to the group shall not include the present value (at the time of the insured's death) of amounts which may be paid by reason of such a guarantee. See paragraph (e) of this section.

(3) Payments to secondary beneficiaries. Payments made by reason of the death of a beneficiary (or beneficiaries) under a contract providing that such payments shall be made in the event that the beneficiary (or beneficiaries) die before receiving a specified number of payments or a specified total amount shall be excluded from the gross income of the recipient to the extent that such payments are made solely by reason of such guarantee.

(e) Treatment of present value of guaranteed payments. In the case of payments which are to be made for a life or lives under a contract providing that further amounts shall be paid upon the death of the primary beneficiary (or beneficiaries) in the event that such beneficiary (or beneficiaries) die before receiving a specified number of payments or a specified total amount, the present value (at the time of the insured's death) of all payments to be made under the contract shall not include, for purposes of prorating the amount held by the insurer, the present value of the payments which may be made to the estate or beneficiary of the primary beneficiary. In such a case, any lump sum amount used to measure the value of the amount held by an insurer with respect to the primary beneficiary must be reduced by the value at the time of the insured's death of any amounts which may be paid by reason of the guarantee provided for a secondary beneficiary or the estate of the primary beneficiary before prorating such lump sum over the life or lives of the primary beneficiaries. Such present value (of the guaranteed payment) shall be determined by the use of the interest rate and mortality tables used by the insurer in determining the benefits to be paid.

(f) Treatment of payments not paid periodically. Payments made to beneficiaries other than periodically shall be included in the gross income of the recipients, but only to the extent that they exceed amounts payable at the time of the death of the insured to each such beneficiary or, where no such amounts are specified, the present value of such payments at that time.

(g) Examples. The principles of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

A life insurance policy provides for the payment of $20,000 in a lump sum to the beneficiary at the death of the insured. Upon the death of the insured, the beneficiary elects an option to leave the proceeds with the company for five years and then receive payment of $24,000, having no claim of right to any part of such sum before the entire five years have passed. Upon the payment of the larger sum, $24,000, the beneficiary shall include $4,000 in gross income and exclude $20,000 therefrom. If it is assumed that the same insurer has determined the benefits to be paid, the same result would obtain if no lump sum amount were provided for at the death of the insured and the beneficiary were to be paid $24,000 five years later. In neither of these cases would the surviving spouse be able to exclude any additional amount from gross income since both cases involve an amount held by an insurer under an agreement to pay interest thereon to which section 101(c) applies, rather than an amount to be paid periodically after the death of the insured to which section 101(d) applies.

Example 2.

A life insurance policy provides that $1,200 per year shall be paid the sole beneficiary (other than a surviving spouse) until a fund of $20,000 and interest which accrues on the remaining balance is exhausted. A guaranteed rate of interest is specified, but excess interest may be credited according to the earnings of the insurer. Assuming that the fund will be exhausted in 20 years if only the guaranteed interest is actually credited, the beneficiary shall exclude $1,000 of each installment received ($20,000 divided by 20) and any installments received, whether by the beneficiary or his estate or beneficiary, in excess of 20 shall be fully included in the gross income of the recipient. If, instead, the excess interest were to be paid each year, any portion of each installment representing an excess over $1,000 would be fully includible in the recipient's gross income. Thus, if an installment of $1,350 were received, $350 of it would be included in gross income.

Example 3.

Assume that the sole life insurance policy of a decedent provides only for the payment of $5,000 per year for the life of his surviving spouse, beginning with the insured's death. If the present value of the proceeds, determined by reference to the interest rate and the mortality table used by the insurance company, is $60,000, and such beneficiary's life expectancy is 20 years, $3,000 of each $5,000 payment ($60,000 divided by 20) is excludable as the prorated portion of the “amount held by an insurer”. For each taxable year in which a payment is made, an additional $1,000 is excludable from the gross income of the surviving spouse. Hence, if she receives only one $5,000 payment in her taxable year, only $1,000 is includible in her gross income in that year with respect to such payment ($5,000 less the total amount excludable, $4,000). Assuming that the policy also provides for payments of $2,000 per year for 10 years to the daughter of the insured, the present value of the payments to the daughter is to be computed separately for the purpose of determining the excludable portion of each payment to her. Assuming that such present value is $15,000, $1,500 of each payment of $2,000 received by the daughter is excludable from her gross income ($15,000 divided by 10). The remaining $500 shall be included in the gross income of the daughter.

Example 4.

Beneficiaries A and B, neither of whom is the surviving spouse of the insured, are each to receive annual payments of $1,800 for each of their respective lives upon the death of the insured. The contract does not provide for payments to be made in any other manner. Assuming that the present value of the payments to be made to A, whose life expectancy according to the insurer's mortality table is 30 years, is $36,000, A shall exclude $1,200 of each payment received ($36,000 divided by 30). Assuming that the present value of the payments to be made to B, whose life expectancy according to the insurer's mortality table is 20 years, is $27,000, B shall exclude $1,350 of each payment received ($27,000 divided by 20).

Example 5.

A life insurance policy provides for the payment of $76,500 in a lump sum to the beneficiary, A, at the death of the insured. Upon the insured's death, however, A selects an option for the payment of $2,000 per year for her life and for the same amount to be paid after her death to B, her daughter, for her life. Assuming that since A is 51 years of age and her daughter is 28 years of age, the insurer determined the amount of the payments by reference to a mortality table under which the life expectancy for the lives of both A and B, joint and survivor, is 51 years, $1,500 of each $2,000 payment to either A or B ($76,500 divided by 51, or $1,500) shall be excluded from the gross income of the recipient. However, if A is the surviving spouse of the insured and no other contracts of insurance whose proceeds are to be paid to her at a date later than death are involved, A shall exclude the entire payment of $2,000 in any taxable year in which she receives but one such payment because of the additional exclusion under section 101(d)(1)(B).

Example 6.

Beneficiaries A and B, neither of whom is the surviving spouse of the insured, are each to receive annual payments of $1,800 for each of their respective lives upon the death of the insured, but after the death of either, the survivor is to receive the payments formerly made to the deceased beneficiary until the survivor dies. Assuming that the life expectancy, joint and survivor, of A and B in accordance with the mortality table used by the insurer is 32 years and assuming that the total present value of the benefits to both (determined in accordance with the interest rate used by the insurer) is $80,000, A and B shall each exclude $1,250 of each installment of $1,800 ($80,000 divided by the life expectancy, 32, multiplied by the fraction of the annual payment payable to each, one-half) until the death of either. Thereafter, the survivor shall exclude $2,500 of each installment of $3,600 ($80,000 divided by 32).

Example 7.

A life insurance policy provides for the payment of $75,000 in a lump sum to the beneficiary, A, at the death of the insured. A, upon the insured's death, however, selects an option for the payment of $4,000 per year for life, with a guarantee that any part of the $75,000 lump sum not paid to A before his death shall be paid to B (or his estate). A's beneficiary. Assuming that, under the criteria used by the insurer in determining the benefits to be paid, the present value of the guaranteed amount to B is $13,500 and that A's life expectancy is 25 years, the lump sum shall be reduced by the present value of the guarantee to B ($75,000 less $13,500, or $61,500) and divided by A's life expectancy ($61,500 divided by 25, or $2,460). Hence, $2,460 of each $4,000 payment is excludable from A's gross income. If A is the surviving spouse of the insured and no other contracts of insurance whose proceeds are to be paid to her at a date later than death are involved, A shall exclude $3,460 of each $4,000 payment from gross income in any taxable year in which but one such payment is received. Under these facts, if any amount is paid to B by reason of the fact that A dies before receiving a total of $75,000, the residue of the lump sum paid to B shall be excluded from B's gross income since it is wholly in lieu of the present value of such guarantee plus the present value of the payments to be made to the first beneficiary, and is therefore entirely an “amount held by an insurer” paid at a date later than death (see paragraph (d)(3) of this section).

Example 8.

Assume that an insurance policy does not provide for the payment of a lump sum, but provides for the payment of $1,200 per year for a beneficiary's life upon the death of the insured, and also provides that if ten payments are not made to the beneficiary before death a secondary beneficiary (whether named by the insured or by the first beneficiary) shall receive the remainder of the ten payments in similar installments. If, according to the criteria used by the insurance company in determining the benefits, the present value of the payments to the first beneficiary is $12,000 and the life expectancy of such beneficiary is 15 years, $800 of each payment received by the first beneficiary is excludable from gross income. Assuming that the same figures obtain even though the payments are to be made at the rate of $100 per month, the yearly exclusion remains the same unless more or less than twelve months' installments are received by the beneficiary in a particular taxable year. In such a case two-thirds of the total received in the particular taxable year with respect to such beneficiary shall be excluded from gross income. Under either of the above alternatives, any amount received by the second beneficiary by reason of the guarantee of ten payments is fully excludable from the beneficiary's gross income since it is wholly in lieu of the present value of such guarantee plus the present value of the payments to be made to the first beneficiary and is therefore entirely an “amount held by an insurer” paid at a date later than death (see paragraph (d)(3) of this section).

(h) Applicability of both section 101(c) and 101(d) to payments under a single life insurance contract—(1) In general. Section 101(d) shall not apply to interest payments on any amount held by an insurer under an agreement to pay interest thereon (see sections 101(c) and 101(d)(4) and § 1.101-3). On the other hand, both section 101(c) and section 101(d) may be applicable to payments received under a single life insurance contract, if such payments consist both of interest on an amount held by an insurer under an agreement to pay interest thereon and of amounts held by the insurer and paid on a date or dates later than the death of the insured. One instance when both section 101(c) and section 101(d) may be applicable to payments received under a single life insurance contract is in the case of a permanent life insurance policy with a family income rider attached. A typical family income rider is one which provides additional term insurance coverage for a specified number of years from the register date of the basic policy. Under the policy with such a rider, if the insured dies at any time during the term period, the beneficiary is entitled to receive (i) monthly payments of a specified amount commencing as of the date of death and continuing for the balance of the term period, and (ii) a lump sum payment of the proceeds under the basic policy to be paid at the end of the term period. If the insured dies after the expiration of the term period, the beneficiary receives only the proceeds under the basic policy. If the insured dies before the expiration of the term period, part of each monthly payment received by the beneficiary during the term period consists of interest on the proceeds of the basic policy (such proceeds being retained by the insurer until the end of the term period). The remaining part consists of an installment (principal plus interest) of the proceeds of the terms insurance purchased under the family income rider. The amount of term insurance which is provided under the family income rider is, therefore, that amount which, at the date of the insured's death, will provide proceeds sufficient to fund such remaining part of each monthly payment. Since the proceeds under the basic policy are held by the insurer until the end of the term period, that portion of each monthly payment which consists of interest on such proceeds is interest on an amount held by an insurer under an agreement to pay interest thereon and is includible in gross income under section 101(c). On the other hand, since the remaining portion of each monthly payment consists of an installment payment (principal plus interest) of the proceeds of the term insurance, it is a payment of an amount held by the insurer and paid on a date later than the death of the insured to which section 101(d) and this section applies (including the $1,000 exclusion allowed the surviving spouse under section 101(d)(1)(B)). The proceeds of the basic policy, when received in a lump sum at the end of the term period, are excludable from gross income under section 101(a).

(2) Example of tax treatment of amounts received under a family income rider. The following example illustrates the application of the principles contained in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph to payments received under a permanent life insurance policy with a family income rider attached:

Example.

The sole life insurance policy of the insured provides for the payment of $100,000 to the beneficiary (the insured's spouse) on his death. In addition, there is attached to the policy a family income rider which provides that, if the insured dies before the 20th anniversary of the basic policy, the beneficiary shall receive (i) monthly payments of $1,000 commencing on the date of the insured's death and ending with the payment prior to the 20th anniversary of the basic policy, and (ii) a single payment of $100,000 payable on the 20th anniversary of the basic policy. On the date of the insured's death, the beneficiary (surviving spouse of the insured) is entitled to 36 monthly payments of $1,000 and to the single payment of $100,000 on the 20th anniversary of the basic policy. The value of the proceeds of the term insurance at the date of the insured's death is $28,409.00 (the present value of the portion of the monthly payments to which section 101(d) applies computed on the basis that the interest rate used by the insurer in determining the benefits to be paid under the contract is 2 1/4 percent). The amount of each monthly payment of $1,000 which is includible in the beneficiary's gross income is determined in the following manner:

(a) Total amount of monthly payment $1,000.00
(b) Amount includible in gross income under section 101(c) as interest on the $100,000 proceeds under the basic policy held by the insurer until 20th anniversary of the basic policy (computed on the basis that the interest rate used by the insurer in determining the benefits to be paid under the contract is 21⁄4 percent) 185.00
(c) Amount to which section 101(d) applies ((a) minus (b)) 815.00
(d) Amount excludable from gross income under section 101(d) ($28,409 ÷ 36) 789.14
(e) Amount includible in gross income under section 101(d) without taking into account the $1,000 exclusion allowed the beneficiary as the surviving spouse ((c) minus (d)) 25.86

The beneficiary, as the surviving spouse of the insured, is entitled to exclude the amounts otherwise includible in gross income under section 101(d) (item (e)) to the extent such amounts do not exceed $1,000 in the taxable year of receipt. This exclusion is not applicable, however, with respect to the amount of each payment which is includible in gross income under section 101(c) (item (b)). In this example, therefore, the beneficiary must include $185 of each monthly payment in gross income (amount includible under section 101(c)), but may exclude the $25.86 which is otherwise includible under section 101(d). The payment of $100,000 which is payable to the beneficiary on the 20th anniversary of the basic policy will be entirely excludable from gross income under section 101(a).

(3) Limitation on amount considered to be an “amount held by an insurer”. See paragraph (b)(3) of this section for a limitation on the amount which shall be considered an “amount held by an insurer” in the case of proceeds of life insurance which are paid subsequent to the transfer of the policy for a valuable consideration.

(4) Effective date. The provisions of this paragraph are applicable only with respect to amounts received during taxable years beginning after October 28, 1961, irrespective of the date of the death of the insured.

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960, as amended by T.D. 6577, 26 FR 10127, Oct. 28, 1961; 26 FR 10275, Nov. 2, 1961]

§ 1.101-5 [Reserved]

§ 1.101-6 Applicability date.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (h)(4) of § 1.101-4, the provisions of section 101 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 and §§ 1.101-1, 1.101-2, 1.101-3, and 1.101-4 are applicable only with respect to amounts received by reason of the death of an insured or an employee occurring after August 16, 1954. In the case of such amounts, these sections are applicable even though the receipt of such amounts occurred in a taxable year beginning before January 1, 1954, to which the Internal Revenue Code of 1939 applies.

(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, for purposes of determining whether a transfer of an interest in a life insurance contract is a reportable policy sale or a payment of death benefits is a payment of reportable death benefits subject to the reporting requirements of section 6050Y and §§ 1.6050Y-1 through 1.6050Y-4, § 1.101-1(b) through (g) apply to reportable policy sales made after December 31, 2018, and to reportable death benefits paid after December 31, 2018. For any other purpose, including for purposes of determining the amount of the proceeds of life insurance contracts payable by reason of death excluded from gross income under section 101, § 1.101-1(b) through (g) apply to amounts paid by reason of the death of the insured under a life insurance contract, or interest therein, transferred after October 31, 2019. However, under section 7805(b)(7), a taxpayer may apply the rules set forth in § 1.101-1(b) through (g) of the final regulations, in their entirety, with respect to all amounts paid by reason of the death of the insured under a life insurance contract, or interest therein, transferred after December 31, 2017, and on or before October 31, 2019.

(c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, § 1.101-1(b)(2)(iv) and (c)(3) apply to any interest in a life insurance contract issued in a section 1035 exchange occurring on or after July 9, 2026, and § 1.101-1(c)(2)(v) applies to any acquisition of an interest in a life insurance contract occurring on or after July 9, 2026. Taxpayers may also choose to apply the rules in § 1.101-1(b)(2)(iv), (c)(2)(v), and (c)(3) to all exchanges and acquisitions occurring after December 31, 2017.

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960, as amended by T.D. 6577, 26 FR 10128, Oct. 28, 1961; T.D. 9849, 84 FR 9233, Mar. 14, 2019; T.D. 9879, 84 FR 58484, Oct. 31, 2019; T.D. 10052, 91 FR 42352, July 9, 2026]

§ 1.101-7 Mortality table used to determine exclusion for deferred payments of life insurance proceeds.

(a) Mortality table. Notwithstanding any provision of § 1.101-4 that otherwise would permit the use of a mortality table not described in this section, the mortality table set forth in § 1.72-7(c)(1) must be used to determine—

(1) The amount held by an insurer with respect to a beneficiary for purposes of section 101(d)(2) and § 1.101-4; and

(2) The period or periods with respect to which payments are to be made for purposes of section 101(d)(1) and § 1.101-4.

(b) Examples. The principles of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

A life insurance policy provides only for the payment of $5,000 per year for the life of the beneficiary, A, beginning with the insured's death. If A is 59 years of age at the time of the insured's death, the period with respect to which the payments are to be made is 25 years. This period is determined by using the mortality table set forth in § 1.72-7(c)(1), and is shown in Table V of § 1.72-9 (which contains life expectancy tables determined using this mortality table). If the present value of the proceeds, determined by reference to the interest rate used by the insurance company and the mortality table set forth in § 1.72-7(c)(1), is $75,000, $3,000 of each $5,000 payment ($75,000 divided by 25) is excluded from the gross income of A.

Example 2.

A life insurance policy provides for the payment of $82,500 in a lump sum to the beneficiary, A, at the death of the insured. Upon the insured's death, however, A selects an option for the payment of $2,000 per year for life and for the same amount to be paid after A's death to B for B's life. If A is 51 years of age and B is 28 years of age at the death of the insured, the period with respect to which the payments are to be made is 55 years. This period is determined by using the mortality table set forth in § 1.72-7(c)(1), and is shown in Table VI of § 1.72-9 (which contains life expectancy tables determined using this mortality table). Accordingly $1,500 of each $2,000 payment ($82,500 divided by 55) is excluded from the gross income of the recipient.

(c) Effective date. This section applies to amounts received with respect to deaths occurring after October 22, 1986, in taxable years ending after October 22, 1986.

[T.D. 8161, 52 FR 35415, Sept. 21, 1987. Redesignated and amended by T.D. 8272, 54 FR 47980, Nov. 20, 1989]

§ 1.102-1 Gifts and inheritances.

(a) General rule. Property received as a gift, or received under a will or under statutes of descent and distribution, is not includible in gross income, although the income from such property is includible in gross income. An amount of principal paid under a marriage settlement is a gift. However, see section 71 and the regulations thereunder for rules relating to alimony or allowances paid upon divorce or separation. Section 102 does not apply to prizes and awards (see section 74 and § 1.74-1) nor to scholarships and fellowship grants (see section 117 and the regulations thereunder).

(b) Income from gifts and inheritances. The income from any property received as a gift, or under a will or statute of descent and distribution shall not be excluded from gross income under paragraph (a) of this section.

(c) Gifts and inheritances of income. If the gift, bequest, devise, or inheritance is of income from property, it shall not be excluded from gross income under paragraph (a) of this section. Section 102 provides a special rule for the treatment of certain gifts, bequests, devises, or inheritances which by their terms are to be paid, credited, or distributed at intervals. Except as provided in section 663(a)(1) and paragraph (d) of this section, to the extent any such gift, bequest, devise, or inheritance is paid, credited, or to be distributed out of income from property, it shall be considered a gift, bequest, devise, or inheritance of income from property. Section 102 provides the same treatment for amounts of income from property which is paid, credited, or to be distributed under a gift or bequest whether the gift or bequest is in terms of a right to payments at intervals (regardless of income) or is in terms of a right to income. To the extent the amounts in either case are paid, credited, or to be distributed at intervals out of income, they are not to be excluded under section 102 from the taxpayer's gross income.

(d) Effect of Subchapter J. Any amount required to be included in the gross income of a beneficiary under sections 652, 662, or 668 shall be treated for purposes of this section as a gift, bequest, devise, or inheritance of income from property. On the other hand, any amount excluded from the gross income of a beneficiary under section 663(a)(1) shall be treated for purposes of this section as property acquired by gift, bequest, devise, or inheritance.

(e) Income taxed to grantor or assignor. Section 102 is not intended to tax a donee upon the same income which is taxed to the grantor of a trust or assignor of income under section 61 or sections 671 through 677, inclusive.

§ 1.103-1 Interest upon obligations of a State, territory, etc.

(a) Interest upon obligations of a State, territory, a possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any political subdivision thereof (hereinafter collectively or individually referred to as “State or local governmental unit”) is not includable in gross income, except as provided under section 103 (c) and (d) and the regulations thereunder.

(b) Obligations issued by or on behalf of any State or local governmental unit by constituted authorities empowered to issue such obligations are the obligations of such a unit. However, section 103(a)(1) and this section do not apply to industrial development bonds except as otherwise provided in section 103(c). See section 103(c) and §§ 1.103-7 through 1.103-12 for the rules concerning interest paid on industrial development bonds. See section 103(d) for rules concerning interest paid on arbitrage bonds. Certificates issued by a political subdivision for public improvements (such as sewers, sidewalks, streets, etc.) which are evidence of special assessments against specific property, which assessments become a lien against such property and which the political subdivision is required to enforce, are, for purposes of this section, obligations of the political subdivision even though the obligations are to be satisfied out of special funds and not out of general funds or taxes. The term “political subdivision”, for purposes of this section denotes any division of any State or local governmental unit which is a municipal corporation or which has been delegated the right to exercise part of the sovereign power of the unit. As thus defined, a political subdivision of any State or local governmental unit may or may not, for purposes of this section, include special assessment districts so created, such as road, water, sewer, gas, light, reclamation, drainage, irrigation, levee, school, harbor, port improvement, and similar districts and divisions of any such unit.

[T.D. 7199, 37 FR 15486, Aug. 3, 1972]

§§ 1.103-2-1.103-6 [Reserved]

§ 1.103-7 Industrial development bonds.

(a) In general. Under section 103(c)(1) and this section, an industrial development bond issued after April 30, 1968, shall be treated as an obligation not described in section 103(a)(1) and § 1.103-1. Accordingly, interest paid on such a bond is includable in gross income unless the bond was issued by a State, or local governmental unit to finance certain exempt facilities (see section 103(c)(4) and § 1.103-8), to finance an industrial park (see section 103(c)(5) and § 1.103-9), or as part of an exempt small issue (see section 103(c)(6) and § 1.103-10). For applicable rules when an industrial development bond is held by a substantial user (or a person related to a substantial user) of such an exempt facility, or an industrial park, or a facility financed with the proceeds of such an exempt small issue, see section 103(c)(7) and § 1.103-11. See also § 1.103-12 for the transitional provisions concerning the interest paid on certain industrial development bonds issued before January 1, 1969, and certain other industrial development bonds. Even if section 103(c) does not prevent a bond from being treated as an obligation described in section 103(a)(1) and § 1.103-1, such bond shall nevertheless be treated as an obligation which is not described in section 103(a)(1) and § 1.103-1 if under section 103(d) it is an arbitrage bond. For purposes of section 103(c), the term “issue” includes a single obligation such as a single note issued in connection with a bank loan as well as a series of notes or bonds.

(b) Industrial development bonds—(1) Definition. For purposes of this section, the term “industrial development bond” means any obligation—

(i) Which is issued as part of an issue all or a major portion of the proceeds of which are to be used directly or indirectly in any trade or business carried on by any person who is not an exempt person (as defined in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph), and

(ii) The payment of the principal or interest on which, under the terms of such obligation or any underlying arrangement (as described in subparagraph (4) of this paragraph), is in whole or in major part (i.e., major portion)—

(a) Secured by any interest in property used or to be used in a trade or business,

(b) Secured by any interest in payments in respect of property used or to be used in a trade or business, or

(c) To be derived from payments in respect of property, or borrowed money, used or to be used in a trade or business.

See subparagraphs (3) and (4) of this paragraph for the trade or business test and the security interest test respectively. See § 1.103-8(a)(6) to determine the amount of proceeds of an issue for which the amount payable during each annual period over the term of the issue is less than the amount of interest accruing thereon in such period, e.g., in the case of an issue sold by the issuer for less than its face amount.

(2) Exempt person. The term “exempt person” means a governmental unit as defined in this subparagraph, or an organization which is described in section 501(c)(3) and this subparagraph and is exempt from taxation under section 501(a). For purposes of this subparagraph, the term “governmental unit” means a State or local governmental unit (as defined in § 1.103-1). For purposes of this subparagraph, the term “governmental unit” also includes the United States of America (or an agency or instrumentality of the United States of America), but only in the case of obligations (i) issued on or before August 3, 1972, or (ii) issued after August 3, 1972, with respect to which a bond resolution or any other official action was taken and in reliance on such action either (a) construction of such facility to be financed with such obligations commenced or (b) a binding contract was entered into, or an irrevocable bid was submitted, prior to August 3, 1972, or (iii) issued after August 3, 1972, with respect to a program approved by Congress prior to such date but only if (a) a portion of such program has been financed by obligations issued prior to such date, to which section 103(a) applied pursuant to a ruling issued by the Commissioner or his delegate prior to such date and (b) construction of one or more facilities comprising a part of such program commenced prior to such date. For purposes of this subparagraph, a tax-exempt organization is an exempt person only with respect to a trade or business it carries on which is not an unrelated trade or business. Whether a particular trade or business carried on by a tax-exempt organization is an unrelated trade or business is determined by applying the rules of section 513(a) (relating to general rule for unrelated trade or business) and the regulations thereunder to the tax-exempt organization without regard to whether the organization is an organization subject to the tax imposed by section 511 (relating to imposition of tax on unrelated business income of charitable, etc., organizations).

(3) Trade or business test. (i) The trade or business test relates to the use of the proceeds of a bond issue. The test is met if all or a major portion of the proceeds of a bond issue is used in a trade or business carried on by a nonexempt person. For example, if all or a major portion of the proceeds of a bond issue is to be loaned to one or more private business users, or is to be used to acquire, construct, or reconstruct facilities to be leased or sold to such private business users, and such proceeds or facilities are to be used in trades or businesses carried on by them, such proceeds are to be used in a trade or business carried on by persons who are not exempt persons, and the debt obligations comprising the bond issue satisfy the trade or business test. If, however, less than a major portion of the proceeds of an issue is to be loaned to nonexempt persons or is to be used to acquire or construct facilities which will be used in a trade or business carried on by a nonexempt person, the debt obligations will not be industrial development bonds. Also, when publicly-owned facilities which are intended for general public use, such as toll roads or bridges, are constructed with the proceeds of a bond issue and used by nonexempt persons in their trades or businesses on the same basis as other members of the public, such use does not constitute a use in the trade or business of a nonexempt person for purposes of the trade or business test.

(ii) In determining whether a debt obligation meets the trade or business test, the indirect, as well as the direct, use of the proceeds is to be taken into account. For example, the debt obligations comprising a bond issue do not fail to satisfy the trade or business test merely because the State or local governmental unit uses the proceeds to engage in a series of financing transactions for property to be used by private business users in trades or businesses carried on by them. Similarly, if such proceeds are to be used to construct facilities to be leased or sold to any nonexempt person for use in a trade or business it carries on, such proceeds are to be used in a trade or business carried on by a nonexempt person and the debt obligations comprising such issue satisfy the trade or business test. If such proceeds are to be used to construct facilities to be leased or sold to an exempt person who will, in turn, lease or sell the facilities to a nonexempt person for use in a trade or business, such proceeds are to be used in a trade or business carried on by a nonexempt person and the debt obligations comprising such issue satisfy the trade or business test. In addition, proceeds will be treated as being used in the trade or business of a nonexempt person in situations involving other arrangements, whether in a single transaction or in a series of transactions, whereby a nonexempt person uses property acquired with the proceeds of a bond issue in its trade or business.

(iii) The use of more than 25 percent of the proceeds of an issue of obligations in the trades or businesses of nonexempt persons will constitute the use of a major portion of such proceeds in such manner. In the case of the direct or indirect use of the proceeds of an issue of obligations or the direct or indirect use of a facility constructed, reconstructed, or acquired with such proceeds, the use by all nonexempt persons in their trades or businesses must be aggregated to determine whether the trade or business test is satisfied. If more than 25 percent of the proceeds of a bond issue is used in the trades or businesses of nonexempt persons, the trade or business test is satisfied. For special rules with respect to the acquisition of the output of facilities, see subparagraph (5) of this paragraph.

(4) Security interest test. The security interest test relates to the nature of the security for, and the source of, the payment of either the principal or interest on a bond issue. The nature of the security for, and the source of, the payment may be determined from the terms of the bond indenture or on the basis of an underlying arrangement. An underlying arrangement to provide security for, or the source of, the payment of the principal or interest on an obligation may result from separate agreements between the parties or may be determined on the basis of all the facts and circumstances surrounding the issuance of the bonds. The property which is the security for, or the source of, the payment of either the principal or interest on a debt obligation need not be property acquired with bond proceeds. The security interest test is satisfied if, for example, a debt obligation is secured by unimproved land or investment securities used, directly or indirectly, in any trade or business carried on by any private business user. A pledge of the full faith and credit of a State or local governmental unit will not prevent a debt obligation from otherwise satisfying the security interest test. For example, if the payment of either the principal or interest on a bond issue is secured by both a pledge of the full faith and credit of a State or local governmental unit and any interest in property used or to be used in a trade or business, the bond issue satisfies the security interest test. For rules with respect to the acquisition of the output of facilities see subparagraph (5) of this paragraph.

(5) Trade or business test and security interest test with respect to certain output contracts. (i) The use by one or more nonexempt persons of a major portion of the subparagraph (5) output of facilities such as electric energy, gas, or water facilities constructed, reconstructed, or acquired with the proceeds of an issue satisfies the trade or business test and the security interest test if such use has the effect of transferring to nonexempt persons the benefits of ownership of such facilities, and the burdens of paying the debt service on governmental obligations used directly or indirectly to finance such facilities, so as to constitute the indirect use by them of a major portion of such proceeds. Such benefits and burdens are transferred and a major portion of the proceeds of an issue is used indirectly by the users of the subparagraph (5) output of such a facility which is owned and operated by an exempt person where—

(a)(1) One nonexempt person agrees pursuant to a contract to take, or to take or pay for, a major portion (more than 25 percent) of the subparagraph (5) output (within the meaning of subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph) of such a facility (whether or not conditional upon the production of such output) or (2) two or more nonexempt persons, each of which pays annually a guaranteed minimum payment exceeding 3 percent of the average annual debt service with respect to the obligations in question, agree, pursuant to contracts, to take, or to take or pay for, a major portion (more than 25 percent) of the subparagraph (5) output of such a facility (whether or not conditioned upon the production of such output), and

(b) Payment made or to be made with respect to such contract or contracts by such nonexempt person or persons exceeds a major part (more than 25 percent) of the total debt service with respect to such issue of obligations.

(ii) For purposes of this subparagraph—

(a) Where a contract described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph may be extended by the issuer of obligations described therein, the term of the contract shall be considered to include the period for which such contract may be so extended.

(b) The subparagraph (5) output of a facility shall be determined by multiplying the number of units produced or to be produced by the facility in 1 year by the number of years in the contract term of the issue of obligations issued to provide such facility. The number of units produced or to be produced by a facility in 1 year shall be determined by reference to its nameplate capacity (or where there is no nameplate capacity, its maximum capacity) without any reduction for reserves or other unutilized capacity. The contract term of an issue begins on the date the output of a facility is first taken, pursuant to a take or a take or pay contract, by a nonexempt person and ends on the latest maturity date of any obligation of the issue (determined without regard to any optional redemption dates). If, however, on or before the date of issue of a prior issue of governmental obligations issued to provide a facility, the issuer makes a commitment in the bond indenture or related document to refinance such prior issue with one or more subsequent issues of governmental obligations, then the contract term of the issue shall be determined with regard to the latest redemption date of any obligation of the last such refinancing issue with respect to such facility (determined without regard to any optional redemption dates). Where it appears that the term of an issue (or the terms of two or more issues) is extended for purposes of extending the contract term of an issue and thereby increasing the subparagraph (5) output of the facility provided by such issue, the subparagraph (5) output of such facility shall be determined by the Commissioner without regard to the provisions of this subdivision (b).

(c) The total debt service with respect to an issue of obligations shall be the total dollar amount (excluding any penalties) payable with respect to such issue over its entire term. The entire term of an issue begins on its date of issue and ends on the latest maturity date of any obligation of the issue (determined without regard to any optional redemption dates). If, however, on or before the date of issue of a prior issue of governmental obligations the issuer makes a commitment in the bond indenture or related document to refinance such prior issue with one or more subsequent issues of governmental obligations, the entire term of the issue shall be determined with regard to the latest redemption date of any obligation of the last such refinancing issue (determined without regard to any optional redemption dates).

(d) Two or more nonexempt persons who are related persons (within the meaning of section 103(c)(6)(C)) shall be treated as one nonexempt person.

(c) Examples. The application of the rules contained in section 103(c) (2) and (3) and paragraph (b) of this section are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

State A and corporation X enter into an arrangement under which A is to provide a factory which X will lease for 20 years. The arrangement provides (1) that A will issue $10 million of bonds, (2) that the proceeds of the bond issue will be used to purchase land and to construct and equip a factory in accordance with X's specifications, (3) that X will rent the facility (land, factory, and equipment) for 20 years at an annual rental equal to the amount necessary to amortize the principal and pay the interest on the outstanding bonds, and (4) that such payments by X and the facility itself will be the security for the bonds. The bonds are industrial development bonds since they are part of an issue of obligations (1) all of the proceeds of which are to be used (by purchasing land and constructing and equipping the factory) in a trade or business by a nonexempt person, and (2) the payment of the principal and interest on which is secured by the facility and payments to be made with respect thereto.

Example 2.

The facts are the same as in example (1) except that (1) X will purchase the facility, and (2) annual payments equal to the amount necessary to amortize the principal and pay the interest on the outstanding bonds will be made by X. The bonds are industrial development bonds for the reasons set forth in example (1).

Example 3.

State B and corporation X enter into an arrangement under which B is to loan $10 million to X. The arrangement provides (1) that B will issue $10 million of bonds, (2) that the proceeds of the bond issue will be loaned to X to provide additional working capital and to finance the acquisition of certain new machinery, (3) that X will repay the loan in annual installments equal to the amount necessary to amortize the principal and pay the interest on the outstanding bonds, and (4) that the payments on the loan and the machinery will be the security for only the payment of the principal on the bonds. The bonds are industrial development bonds since they are part of an issue of obligations (1) all of the proceeds of which are to be used in a trade or business by a nonexempt person, and (2) the payment of the principal on which is secured by payments to be made in respect of property to be used in a trade or business. The result would be the same if only the payment of the interest on the bonds were secured by payments on the loan and machinery.

Example 4.

The facts are the same as in example (1), (2), or (3) except that the annual payments required to be made by corporation X exceed the amount necessary to amortize the principal and pay the interest on the outstanding bonds. The bonds are industrial development bonds for the reasons set forth in such examples. The fact that corporation X is required to pay an amount in excess of the amount necessary to pay the principal and interest on the bonds does not affect their status as industrial development bonds. Similarly, if the annual payments required to be made by corporation X were sufficient to pay only a major portion of either the principal or the interest on the outstanding bonds, the bonds would be industrial development bonds for the reasons set forth in such examples.

Example 5.

The facts are the same as in example (1), (2), (3), or (4) except that the issuer is a political subdivision which has taxing power and the bonds are general obligation bonds. Since both the trade or business and the security interest tests are met, the bonds are industrial development bonds notwithstanding the fact that they constitute an unconditional obligation of the issuer payable from its general revenues.

Example 6.

(a) State C issues its general obligation bonds to purchase land and construct a hotel for use by the general public (i.e., tourists, visitors, travelers on business, etc.). The bond indenture provides (1) that C will own and operate the project for the period required to redeem the bonds, and (2) that the project itself and the revenues derived therefrom are the security for the bonds. The bonds are not industrial development bonds since (1) the proceeds are to be used by an exempt person in a trade or business carried on by such person, and (2) a major portion of such proceeds is not to be used, directly or indirectly, in a trade or business carried on by a nonexempt person. Use of the hotel by hotel guests who are travelling in connection with trades or businesses of nonexempt persons is not an indirect use of the hotel by such nonexempt persons for purposes of section 103(c).

(b) The facts are the same as in paragraph (a) of this example except that corporation Y enters into a long-term agreement with C that Y will rent more than one-fourth of the rooms on an annual basis for a period approximately equal to one half of the term of the bonds. The bonds are industrial development bonds because (1) a major portion of the proceeds used to construct the hotel is to be used in the trade or business of corporation Y (a nonexempt person) and (2) a major portion of the principal and interest on such issue will be derived from payments in respect of the property used in the trade or business of Y.

Example 7.

(a) State D and corporation Y enter into an agreement under which Y will lease for 20 years three floors of a 12- story office building to be constructed by D on land which it will acquire. D will occupy the grade floor and the remaining eight floors of the building. The portion of the costs of acquiring the land and constructing the building which are allocated to the space to be leased by Y is not in excess of 25 percent of the total costs of acquiring the land and constructing the building. Such costs, whether attributable to the acquisition of land or the construction of the building, were allocated to leased space in the same proportion that the reasonable rental value of such leased space bears to the reasonable rental value of the entire building. From the facts and circumstances presented, it is determined that such allocation was reasonable. The arrangement between D and Y provides that D will issue $10 million of bonds, that the proceeds of the bond issue will be used to purchase land and construct an office building, that Y will lease the designated floor space for 20 years at its reasonable rental value, and that such rental payments and the building itself shall be security for the bonds. The bonds are not industrial development bonds since a major portion of the proceeds is not to be used, directly or indirectly, in the trade or business of a nonexempt person.

(b) The facts are the same as in paragraph (a) of this example except that corporation Y will lease four floors, and the costs allocated to these floors are in excess of 25 percent of D's investment in the land and building. The bonds are industrial development bonds because (1) a major portion of the building is to be used in the trade or business of a nonexempt person, and (2) a major portion of the principal and interest on such issue is secured by the rental payments on the building.

Example 8.

The facts are the same as in paragraph (b) of example (7) except that, instead of leasing any space to corporation Y, State D will lease the four floors to numerous unrelated private business users to be used in their trades or businesses. No lease will have a term exceeding 2 years. A major portion of the principal and interest will be paid from the revenues that D will derive from such leases. The fact that the activities of D, an exempt person, may amount to a trade or business of leasing property is not material, and the bonds are industrial development bonds for the reasons set forth in paragraph (b) of example (7). The result would be the same in the case of long-term leases.

Example 9.

State E issues its obligations to finance the construction of dormitories for educational institution Z which is an organization described in section 501(c)(3) and exempt from tax under section 501(a). The dormitories are to be owned and operated by Z and their operation does not constitute an unrelated trade or business. The bonds are not industrial development bonds since the proceeds are to be used by an exempt person in a trade or business carried on by such person which is not an unrelated trade or business, as determined by applying section 513(a) to Z.

Example 10.

State F issues its obligations to finance the construction of a toll road and the cost of erecting related facilities such as gasoline service stations and restaurants. Such related facilities represent less than 25 percent of the total cost of the project and are to be leased or sold to nonexempt persons. The toll road is to be owned and operated by F. The revenues from the toll road and from the rental of related facilities are the security for the bonds. The bonds are not industrial development bonds since a major portion of the proceeds is not to be used, directly or indirectly, in the trades or businesses of nonexempt persons. The fact that vehicles owned by nonexempt persons engaged in their trades or businesses may use the road in common with, or as a part of, the general public is not material.

Example 11.

City G issues its obligations to finance the construction of a municipal auditorium which it will own and operate. The use of the auditorium will be open to anyone who wishes to use it for a short period of time on a rate-scale basis. The rights of such a user are only those of a transient occupant rather than the full legal possessory interests of a lessee. It is anticipated that the auditorium will be used by schools, church groups, and fraternities, and numerous commercial organizations. The revenues from the rentals of the auditorium and the auditorium building itself will be the security for the bonds. The bonds are not industrial development bonds because such use is not a use in the trade or business of a nonexempt person.

Example 12.

The facts are the same as in example (11) except that one nonexempt person will have a 20-year rental agreement providing for exclusive use of the entire auditorium for more than 3 months of each year at a rental comparable to that charged short-term users. The bonds are industrial development bonds since such use is a use in the trade or business of a nonexempt person and, therefore, a major portion of the proceeds of the issue will be used in the trade or business of a nonexempt person and a major portion of the principal or interest on such issue will be secured by a facility used in such trade or business and by payments with respect to such facility.

Example 13.

In order to construct an electric generating facility of a size sufficient to take advantage of the economies of scale: (1) City H will issue $50 million of its 25-year bonds and Z (a privately owned electric utility) will use $100 million of its funds for construction of a facility they will jointly own as tenants in common. (2) Each of the participants will share in the ownership, output, and operating expenses of the facility in proportion to its contribution to the cost of the facility, that is, one-third by H and two-thirds by Z. (3) H's bonds will be secured by H's ownership in the facility and by revenues to be derived from the sale of H's share of the annual output of the facility. (4) Because H will need only 50 percent of its share of the annual output of the facility, it agrees to sell to Z 25 percent of its share of such annual output for a period of 20 years pursuant to a contract under which Z agrees to take or pay for such power in all events. The facility will begin operation, and Z will begin to receive power, 4 years after the City H obligations are issued. The contract term of the issue will, therefore, be 21 years. (5) H also agrees to sell the remaining 25 percent of its share of the annual output to numerous other private utilities under a prevailing rate schedule including demand charges. (6) No contracts will be executed obligating any person other than Z to purchase any specified amount of the power for any specified period of time and no one such person (other than Z) will pay a demand charge or other minimum payment under conditions which, under paragraph (b)(5) of this section, result in a transfer of the benefits of ownership and the burdens of paying the debt service on obligations used directly or indirectly to provide such facilities. The bonds are not industrial development bonds because H's one-third interest in the facility (financed with bond proceeds) shall be treated as a separate property interest and, although 25 percent of H's interest in the annual output of the facility will be used directly or indirectly in the trade or business of Z, a nonexempt person, under the rule of paragraph (b)(5) of this section, such portion constitutes less than a major portion of the subparagraph (5) output of the facility. If more than 25 percent of the subparagraph (5) output of the facility were to be sold to Z pursuant to the take or pay contract, the bonds would be industrial development bonds since they would be secured by H's ownership in the facility and revenues therefrom, and under the rules of paragraph (b)(5) of this section a major portion of the proceeds of the bond issue would be used in the trade or business of Z, a nonexempt person.

Example 14.

J, a political subdivision of a State, will issue several series of bonds from time to time and will use the proceeds to rehabilitate urban areas. More than 25 percent of the proceeds of each issue will be used for the rehabilitation and construction of buildings which will be leased or sold to nonexempt persons for use in their trades or businesses. There is no limitation either on the number of issues or the aggregate amount of bonds which may be outstanding. No group of bondholders has any legal claim prior to any other bondholders or creditors with respect to specific revenues of J, and there is no arrangement whereby revenues from a particular project are paid into a trust or constructive trust, or sinking fund, or are otherwise segregated or restricted for the benefit of any group of bondholders. There is, however, an unconditional obligation by J to pay the principal and interest on each issue of bonds. Further, it is apparent that J requires the revenues from the lease or sale of buildings to nonexempt persons in order to pay in full the principal and interest on the bonds in question. The bonds are industrial development bonds because a major portion of the proceeds will be used in the trades or businesses of nonexempt persons and, pursuant to an underlying arrangement, payment of the principal and interest is, in major part, to be derived from payments in respect of property or borrowed money used in the trades or businesses of nonexempt persons.

Example 15.

Power Authority K, a political subdivision created by the legislature in State X to own and operate certain power generating facilities, sells all of the power from its existing facilities to four private utility systems under contracts executed in 1970, whereby such four systems are required to take or pay for specified portions of the total power output until the year 2000. Currently, existing facilities supply all of the present needs of the four utility systems but their future power requirements are expected to increase substantially. K issues 20-year general obligation bonds to construct a large nuclear generating facility. A fifth private utility system contracts with K to take or pay for 30 percent of the subparagraph (5) output of the new facility. The balance of the power output of the new facility will be available for sale as required, but initially it is not anticipated there will be any need for such power. The revenues from the contract with the fifth private utility system will be sufficient to pay less than 25 percent of the principal or interest on the bonds. The balance, which will exceed 25 percent of the principal or interest on such bonds, will be paid from revenues from the contracts with the four systems from sale of power produced by the old facilities. The bonds will be industrial development bonds because a major portion of the proceeds will be used in the trade or business of a nonexempt person, and payment of the principal and interest, pursuant to an underlying arrangement, will be derived in major part from payments in respect of property used in the trades or businesses of nonexempt persons.

(d) Certain refunding issues—(1) General rule. In the case of an issue of obligations issued to refund the outstanding face amount of an issue of obligations, the proceeds of the refunding issue will be considered to be used for the purpose for which the proceeds of the issue to be refunded were used. The rules of this subparagraph shall apply regardless of the date of issuance of the issue to be refunded and shall apply to refunding issues to be issued to refund prior refunding issues.

(2) Obligations issued prior to effective date. In the case of an issue of obligations issued to refund the outstanding face amount of an issue of obligations issued on or before April 30, 1968 (or before January 1, 1969, if the transitional rules of § 1.103-12 are applicable) which would have been industrial development bonds within the meaning of section 103(c)(2) had they been issued after such date, the refunding issue shall not be considered to be an issue of industrial development bonds if it does not make funds available for any purpose other than the debt service on the obligations. For rules as to arbitrage bonds, see section 103(d).

(3) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

In 1969, State A issued $20 million of 20-year revenue bonds the proceeds of which were used to contruct a sports facility which qualifies as an exempt facility described in section 103(c)(4)(B) and paragraph (c) of § 1.103-8. The sports facility will be owned and operated by X, a nonexempt person, for the use of the general public. In 1975, A issues $15 million of revenue bonds in order to refund the outstanding face amount of the 1969 issue. Since the proceeds of the 1969 issue were used for an exempt facility, the proceeds of the 1975 refunding issue will be considered to be used for the same purposes and section 103(c)(1) shall not apply to the 1975 refunding issue. The result would have been the same if the original issue had been issued in 1965. For rules as to a refunding obligation held by substantial users of facilities constructed with the proceeds of the issue refunded, see section 103(c)(7) and § 1.103-11.

Example 2.

In 1967, prior to the effective date of section 103(c), city B issued $10 million of revenue bonds the proceeds of which were used to construct a manufacturing facility for corporation Y, a nonexempt person. Lease payments by Y were security for the bonds. In 1975, B issue $7 million of revenue bonds in order to retire the outstanding face amount of the 1967 issue. The interest rate of the 1975 issue is one and one-half percentage points lower than the interest rate on the 1967 issue. Both issues sold at par. All of the terms of the 1975 issue are the same as the terms of the 1967 issue with the exception of the interest rate. The 1975 refunding issue will not be considered to be an issue of industrial development bonds since the refunding issue will not make funds available for any purpose other than the debt service on the outstanding obligations.

Example 3.

The facts are the same as in example (2) except that the interest rate on the refunding issue is the same as the interest rate on the issue to be refunded. Assume further that city B issued the 1975 refunding issue in order to extend the term of the obligations issued in 1967 as the result of its inability to pay such obligations due to insufficient revenues. The results will be the same as in example (2) for the reasons stated therein.

[T.D. 7199, 37 FR 15486, Aug. 3, 1972; 37 FR 16177, Aug. 11, 1972, as amended by T.D. 7869, 48 FR 1708, Jan. 14, 1983]

§ 1.103-8 Interest on bonds to finance certain exempt facilities.

(a) In general—(1) General rule. (i) Under section 103(b)(4), interest paid on an issue of obligations issued by a State or local governmental unit (as defined in § 1.103-1) is not includable in gross income if substantially all of the proceeds of such issue is to be used to provide one or more of the exempt facilities listed in subparagraphs (A) through (J) of section 103(b)(4) and in this section. However, interest on an obligation of such issue is includable in gross income if the obligation is held by a substantial user or a related person (as described in section 103(b)(13) and § 1.103-11). If substantially all of the proceeds of a bond issue is to be used to provide such exempt facilities, the debt obligations are treated as obligations described in section 103(a)(1) and § 1.103-1 even though such obligations are industrial development bonds as defined in section 103(b)(2) and § 1.103-7. Substantially all of the proceeds of an issue of governmental obligations are used to provide an exempt facility if 90 percent or more of such proceeds are so used. For purposes of this “substantially all” test, two rules apply. First, proceeds are reduced by amounts properly allocable on a pro rata basis between providing the exempt facility and other uses of the proceeds. Second, amounts used to provide an exempt facility include amounts paid or incurred which are chargeable to the facility's capital account or would be so chargeable either with a proper election by a taxpayer (for example, under section 266) or but for a proper election by a taxpayer to deduct such amounts. In the event the amount payable with respect to an issue during each annual period over its term is less than the amount of interest accruing thereon in such period, e.g., in the case of an issue sold by the issuer for less than its face amount, see paragraph (a)(6) of this section to determine the amount of proceeds of the issue.

(ii) The provisions of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph shall also apply to an issue of obligations substantially all of the proceeds of which is to be used to provide exempt facilities described in this section and for either or both of the following purposes: (a) To acquire or develop land as the site for an industrial park described in section 103(b)(5) and § 1.103-9, (b) to provide facilities to be used by an exempt person.

(iii) Section 103(b)(4) only becomes applicable where the bond issue meets both the trade or business and the security interest tests so that obligations are industrial development bonds within the meaning of section 103(b)(2). For rules as to exempt facilities including property functionally related and subordinate to such facilities, see subparagraph (3) of this paragraph. For rules with respect to the ultimate use of proceeds of obligations, see subparagraph (4) of this paragraph. For rules which limit the application of the provisions of this section see subparagraph (5) of this paragraph. For the interrelationship of the rules provided in this section and the exemption for certain small issues provided in section 103(b)(6), see § 1.103-10.

(2) Public use requirement. To qualify under section 103(b)(4) and this section as an exempt facility, a facility must serve or be available on a regular basis for general public use, or be a part of a facility so used, as contrasted with similar types of facilities which are constructed for the exclusive use of a limited number of nonexempt persons in their trades or businesses. For example, a private dock or wharf owned by or leased to, and serving only a single manufacturing plant would not qualify as a facility for general public use, but a hangar or repair facility at a municipal airport, or a dock or a wharf, would qualify even if it is owned by, or leased or permanently assigned to, a nonexempt person provided that such nonexempt person directly serves the general public, such as a common passenger carrier or freight carrier. Similarly, an airport owned or operated by a nonexempt person for general public use is a facility for public use, as is a dock or wharf which is a part of a public port. However, a landing strip which, by reason of a formal or informal agreement or by reason of geographic location, will not be available for general public use does not satisfy the public use requirement. Sewage or solid waste disposal facilities and air or water pollution control facilities, described in sections 103(b)(4) (E) and (F) and paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section, will be treated in all events as serving a general public use although they may be part of a nonpublic facility such as a manufacturing facility used in the trade or business of a nonexempt user.

(3) Functionally related and subordinate. An exempt facility includes any land, building, or other property functionally related and subordinate to such facility. Property is not functionally related and subordinate to a facility if it is not of a character and size commensurate with the character and size of such facility. Since substantially all of the proceeds of a bond issue must be used for the exempt facility (or for any combination of exempt facilities, industrial parks, and facilities to be used by exempt persons), including property functionally related and subordinate thereto, an insubstantial amount of the proceeds of a bond issue may be used for facilities which are neither exempt facilities (or a combination of exempt facilities, industrial parks and facilities to be used by exempt persons) nor functionally related and subordinate to exempt facilities. Thus, for example, where substantially all of the proceeds of an urban redevelopment bond issue are to be used by a State urban redevelopment agency for residential real property for family units within the meaning of section 103(b)(4)(A) and paragraph (b) of this section, an insubstantial amount may be used for an industrial or commercial project or for any other purpose that is not functionally related and subordinate to the residential real property for family units.

(4) Ultimate use of proceeds. The question whether substantially all of the proceeds of an issue of obligations are to be used to provide one or more of the exempt facilities listed in subparagraphs (A) through (J) of section 103(b)(4) and in this section is to be resolved by reference to the ultimate use of such proceeds. For example, such proceeds will be treated as used to provide residential rental property whether the State or local governmental unit (i) constructs such property and leases or sells it to any person who is not an exempt person for use in such person's trade or business of leasing such property; (ii) lends the proceeds to any such person for such purpose; or (iii) lends the proceeds to banks or other financial institutions in order to increase the supply of funds for mortgage lending under conditions requiring such banks or other financial institutions to use such proceeds only for further lending for residential rental property.

(5) Limitation. (i) A facility qualifies under this section only to the extent that there is a valid reimbursement allocation under § 1.150-2 with respect to expenditures that are incurred before the issue date of the bonds to provide the facility and that are to be paid with the proceeds of the issue. In addition, if the original use of the facility begins before the issue date of the bonds, the facility does not qualify under this section if any person that was a substantial user of the facility at any time during the 5-year period before the issue date or any related person to that user receives (directly or indirectly) 5 percent or more of the proceeds of the issue for the user's interest in the facility and is a substantial user of the facility at any time during the 5-year period after the issue date, unless—

(A) An official intent for the facility is adopted under § 1.150-2 within 60 days after the date on which acquisition, construction, or reconstruction of that facility commenced; and

(B) For an acquisition, no person that is a substantial user or related person after the acquisition date was also a substantial user more than 60 days before the date on which the official intent was adopted.

(ii) A facility, the original use of which commences (or the acquisition of which occurs) on or after the issue date of bonds to provide that facility, qualifies under this section only to the extent that an official intent for the facility is adopted under § 1.150-2 by the issuer of the bonds within 60 days after the commencement of the construction, reconstruction, or acquisition of that facility. Temporary construction or other financing of a facility prior to the issuance of the bonds to provide that facility will not cause that facility to be one that does not qualify under this paragraph (a)(5)(ii).

(iii) For purposes of paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this section, substantial user has the meaning used in section 147(a)(1), related person has the meaning used in section 144(a)(3), and a user that is a governmental unit within the meaning of § 1.103-1 is disregarded.

(iv) Except to the extent provided in §§ 1.142-4(d), 1.148-11A(i), and 1.150-2(j), this paragraph (a)(5) applies to bonds issued after June 30, 1993, and sold before July 8, 1997. See § 1.142-4(d) for rules relating to bonds sold on or after July 8, 1997.

(6) Deep discount obligations. (i) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a)(7) of this section, the proceeds of any issue of obligations sold by the issuer after June 4, 1982, shall include any imputed proceeds of the issue. The imputed proceeds of an issue equal the sum of the amounts of imputed proceeds for each annual period (hereinafter, bond year) over the term of the issue.

(ii) The amount of imputed proceeds for a bond year equals—

(a) The sum of the amounts of interest that will accrue with respect to each obligation that is part of the issue in such year, reduced (but not below zero) by

(b) The sum of the amounts of principal and interest that become payable with respect to the issue in that bond year.

(iii) Interest will be deemed to accrue with respect to an obligation on an amount that, as of the commencement of that year, is equal to the sum of—

(a) The purchase price (as defined in § 1.103-13(d)(2)) allocable to the obligation and

(b) The aggregate of the amounts of interest accruing in each prior bond year with respect to the obligation, reduced by all amounts that became payable with respect to the obligation in prior bond years. Any amount that becomes payable during the 30 day period following any bond year will be deemed to have become payable in such bond year. Thus, to the extent interest on an obligation accruing during a bond year does not become payable within 30 days from the end of such year, it is treated as reinvested under the same terms as the obligation. For purposes of this subparagraph (6), the rate at which such interest accrues is equal to the yield of the obligation. Yield is computed in the same manner as set forth in § 1.103-13(c)(1)(ii) for computing yield on governmental obligations (assuming annual compounding of interest). Such computations shall be made without regard to optional call dates.

(7) Deep discount obligations; special rules. (i) There are no imputed proceeds with respect to an obligation if—

(a) The obligation does not have a stated interest rate (determinable at the date of issue) that increases over the term of the obligation, and

(b) The purchase price of the obligation is at least 95 percent of its face amount.

At the option of the issuer, any obligation described in the preceding sentence may be disregarded in computing the imputed proceeds of the issue. Payments with respect to such obligations are also disregarded in determining the amount payable with respect to the issue in that bond year. If each obligation which is part of an issue is described in this subdivision (i), there are no imputed proceeds with respect to the issue.

(ii) If the actual rate at which interest is to accrue over the term of an obligation is indeterminable at the date of issue then, in computing the yield of the obligation for purposes of this paragraph, such rate shall be determined as if the conditions as of the date of issue will not change over the term of the obligation. Thus, for example, if interest on an obligation is to be paid semiannually at a rate equal to 80 percent of the yield on six month Treasury bills at the most recent public sale immediately prior to the corresponding interest payment date and the yield on six month Treasury bills sold immediately preceding the issue date is 10 percent, then the six month Treasury bill rate is deemed to be a constant 10 percent for purposes of determining the amount of imputed proceeds of the issue. Therefore, all interest payments on the obligation would be deemed to be made at a rate of 8 percent.

(8) Examples. The principles of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

State A issues its bonds and plans to use substantially all of the proceeds from such bond issue to purchase land and build a facility which will be used for one of the purposes described in section 103(b)(4) and this section. The arrangement provides that (1) A will issue bonds with a face amount of $21 million and with all accrued interest payable annually, the proceeds of which (after deducting bond election costs, costs of publishing notices, attorneys' fees, printing costs, trustees' fees for fiscal agents, and similar expenses) will be $20 million; (2) $18 million of the proceeds of the bond issue will be used to purchase land and to construct such facility; (3) $2 million of the proceeds will be used for an unrelated facility which will be used by X, a nonexempt person, in a separate trade or business and for a purpose not described in section 103(b) (4) or (5); (4) X will rent both facilities for 20 years at an annual rental equal to the amount necessary to amortize the principal and pay the interest annually on the outstanding bonds; and (5) such payments by X and the facilities will be the security for the bonds. On these facts, substantially all of the proceeds will be used in connection with an exempt facility described in section 103(b)(4) and this section. Accordingly, section 103(b)(1) does not apply to the bonds unless such bonds are thereafter held by a person who is a substantial user of the facilities or a related person within the meaning of section 103(b)(13) and § 1.103-11.

Example 2.

On July 1, 1982, State B sells an issue of its obligations to an underwriter in anticipation of a public offering. The initial offering price is $18,627,639.69 of which $17,000,000 is to be used to construct a pollution control facility described in section 103(b)(4)(F). X Corporation, a nonexempt person, is to use the facility and, in exchange, is obligated to pay an amount equal to the face amount of the issue when it becomes due. The obligations are issued on August 1, 1982. The face amount of the issue is $30,000,000. The issue is a term issue with all obligations maturing on August 1, 1987. The issue bears no stated rate of interest; there are no interest coupons on the obligations. The bonds are industrial development bonds with a yield (based upon annual compounding) of ten percent. Based on these facts, the amount of imputed proceeds with respect to the issue is determined as follows:

Date Purchase price plus accumulated interest Interest Imputed proceeds
Aug. 1, 1983 $18,627,639.69 $1,862,763.97 $1,862,763.97
Aug. 1, 1984 20,490,403.68 2,049,040.37 2,049,040.37
Aug. 1, 1985 22,539,444.03 2,253,944.40 2,253,944.40
Aug. 1, 1986 24,793,388.43 2,479,338.84 2,479,338.84
Aug. 1, 1987 27,272,727.27 2,727,272.73 0
Total imputed proceeds 8,645,087.58

Therefore, proceeds of the issue equal $27,272,727.27 less issuance costs. Substantially all of the bond proceeds are not used to provide an exempt facility, and section 103(b)(1) applies to the issue.

Example 3.

The facts are the same as example (2) except that the issue has a face amount and purchase price of $18,500,000. The issue also provides for one payment in addition to the redemption payment, in the amount of $10,267,668 payable on or after August 1, 1986, one year before maturity. Section 103(b)(1) applies to the issue.

Example 4.

On July 1, 1982, City E sells an issue of industrial development bonds to provide for a convention facility, as described in section 103(b)(4)(C). Assume that the bonds are issued on that date as well. The issue has a face amount of $15,240,000 and a purchase price of $11,929,382.53. The estimated cost of the facility is $11,000,000. The bonds are “zero coupon” bonds, i.e., there are no interest coupons. Each series is initially offered for less than 95 percent of its face amount. The issue matures serially over a five year period, with each series being allocated a part of the purchase price of the issue. The following chart indicates the purchase price and yield for each series and debt service for the issue:

[Amount allocable to each series]

Date 1983 series at 8 percent 1984 series at 8.5 percent 1985 series at 8.75 percent 1986 series at 9.25 percent 1987 series at 9.75 percent Interest accruing on issue* Amount due Imputed proceeds
July 1, 1983 2,939,814.82 2,697,020.54 2,468,629.60 2,228,732.51 1,595,185.06 0
235,185.18 229,246.75 216,005.09 206,157.76 155,530.54 1,042,125.32 3,175,000
July 1, 1984 2,926,267.29 2,684,634.69 2,434,890.27 1,750,715.60 0
248,732.71 234,905.54 225,227.35 170,694.77 879,560.37 3,175,000
July 1, 1985 2,919,540.23 2,660,117.62 1,921,410.37 0
255,459.77 246,060.88 187,337.51 688,858.16 3,175,000
July 1, 1986 2,906,178.50 2,108,747.88 0
268,821.50 205,602.92 474,424.42 3,175,000
July 1, 1987 2,314,350.80 0
225,649.20 225,649.20 2,540,000
Total 15,240,000
*This column (interest accruing on the issue) contains the sums of the interest that accrues on each series in each bond year. The amount of interest accruing on the issue is computed by adding the amount of interest accruing on each series outstanding for that bond year (the bottom number in the line for each bond year). The amount of interest annually accruing on each series also is added to the purchase price of the series to determine the amount of interest accruing in subsequent years, inasmuch as there are no payments with respect to the outstanding series prior to maturity. Thus, the “principal” amount, of the top of the two numbers given in such line for each bond year, is the purchase price allocable to that series plus the amount of interest that accrued on that series in prior years.

There are no imputed proceeds because the amount payable on the issue in each bond year exceeds the total amount of interest accruing on the issue during such bond year. Section 103(b)(1) does not apply to the bonds unless such bonds are held by a person who is a substantial user of the facility or a related person within the meaning of section 103(b)(13) and § 1.103-11.

Example 5.

On July 1, 1982, City C issues industrial development bonds in the face amount of $30 million to construct a sports facility described in section 103(b)(4)(B) to be leased to D, a nonexempt person, with payments on the bonds secured by the lease. C receives $30 million in exchange for the bonds which will be used to provide the facility. The bonds mature on July 1, 2002. Each bond provides for an annual interest payment equal to ten percent of the face amount of the bond, with the last payment thereon (on July 1, 2002) including a return of the principal amount of the bond. The proceeds of the issue are $30 million. Section 103(b)(1) does not apply to the bonds unless such bonds are held by a person who is a substantial user of the facility or a related person within the meaning of section 103(b)(13) and § 1.103-11.

Example 6.

The facts are the same as example (5) except that each bond provides for an annual interest payment equal to nine percent of its face amount and is sold with the option to tender the bond to D for purchase at par 5 years after the sale date of July 1, 1982 (i.e., the bonds are sold with a “put” option). Such bonds also provide a put option annually thereafter. There are no imputed proceeds (without regard to § 1.103-8(a)(7)), and the result is the same as example (5).

Example 7.

On July 1, 1982, City F sells an issue of industrial development bonds in the face amount of $20 million to acquire a parking facility as described in section 103(b)(4)(D). The estimated cost of the facility is $17,800,000. The issue is issued on the same date and will mature serially over the following ten years. Each bond that is part of the issue bears annual interest coupons, each of which is in an amount equal to ten percent of the face amount of the bond. Each maturity has a face amount of $2,000,000. The issue is initially offered to the public for $19,700,000, allocable to each maturity as follows:

Maturity Purchase price
July 1, 1983 $1,990,000
July 1, 1984 $1,980,000
July 1, 1985 $1,980,000
July 1, 1986 $1,970,000
July 1, 1987 $1,970,000
July 1, 1988 $1,970,000
July 1, 1989 $1,960,000
July 1, 1990 $1,960,000
July 1, 1991 $1,960,000
July 1, 1992 $1,960,000

Based on the foregoing issue proceeds equal $19,700,000 less issuance costs. There are no imputed proceeds with respect to this issue inasmuch as each bond pays interest at a constant rate in each bond year and the purchase price of each bond is at least 95 percent of its face amount. Substantially all of the proceeds are to be used to provide the exempt facility. Accordingly, section 103(b)(1) does not apply to the bonds unless such bonds are thereafter held by a person who is a substantial user of the facility or a related person within the meaning of section 103(b)(13) and § 1.103-11.

(b) Residential rental property—(1) General rule for obligations issued after April 24, 1979. Section 103(b)(1) shall not apply to any obligation which is issued after April 24, 1979, and is part of an issue substantially all of the proceeds of which are to be used to provide a residential rental project in which 20 percent or more of the units are to be occupied by individuals or families of low or moderate income (as defined in paragraph (b)(8)(v) of this section). In the case of a targeted area project, the minimum percentage of units which are to be occupied by individuals of low or moderate income is 15 percent. See generally § 1.103-7 for rules relating to refunding issues.

(2) Registration requirement. Any obligation (including any refunding obligation) issued after December 31, 1981, to provide a residential rental project must be issued as part of an issue, each obligation of which is in registered form (as defined in paragraph (b)(8)(ii) of this section).

(3) Transitional rule. For purposes of this section, obligations issued after April 24, 1979, may be treated as issued before April 25, 1979, if the transitional requirements of section 1104 of the Mortgage Subsidy Bond Tax Act of 1980 (94 Stat. 2670) are satisfied.

(4) Residential rental project. (i) In general. A residential rental project is a building or structure, together with any functionally related and subordinate facilities, containing one or more similarly constructed units—

(a) Which are used on other than a transient basis, and

(b) Which satisfy the requirements of paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section and are available to members of the general public in accordance with the requirement of paragraph (a)(2) of this section.

Substantially all of each project must contain such units and functionally related and subordinate facilities. Hotels, motels, dormitories, fraternity and sorority houses, rooming houses, hospitals, nursing homes, sanitariums, rest homes, and trailer parks and courts for use on a transient basis are not residential rental projects.

(ii) Multiple buildings. (a) Proximate buildings or structures (hereinafter “buildings”) which have similarly constructed units are treated as part of the same project if they are owned for Federal tax purposes by the same person and if the buildings are financed pursuant to a common plan.

(b) Buildings are proximate if they are located on a single tract of land. The term “tract” means any parcel or parcels of land which are contiguous except for the interposition of a road, street, stream or similar property. Otherwise, parcels are contiguous if their boundaries meet at one or more points.

(c) A common plan of financing exists if, for example, all such buildings are provided by the same issue or several issues subject to a common indenture.

(iii) Functionally related and subordinate facilities. Under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, facilities that are functionally related and subordinate to residential rental projects include facilities for use by the tenants, for example, swimming pools, other recreational facilities, parking areas, and other facilities which are reasonably required for the project, for example, heating and cooling equipment, trash disposal equipment or units for resident managers or maintenance personnel.

(iv) Owner-occupied residences. For purposes of section 103 (b)(4)(A) and this paragraph (b), the term “residential rental project” does not include any building or structure which contains fewer than five units, one unit of which is occupied by an owner of the units.

(5) Requirement must be continuously satisfied—(i) Rental requirement. Once available for occupancy, each unit (as defined in paragraph (b)(8)(i) of this section) in a residential rental project must be rented or available for rental on a continuous basis during the longer of—

(a) The remaining term of the obligation, or

(b) The qualified project period (as defined in paragraph (b)(7) of this section).

(ii) Low or moderate income occupancy requirement. Individuals or families of low or moderate income must occupy that percentage of completed units in such project applicable to the project under paragraph (b)(1) of this section continuously during the qualified project period. For this purpose, a unit occupied by an individual or family who at the commencement of the occupancy is of low or moderate income is treated as occupied by such an individual or family during their tenancy in such unit, even though they subsequently cease to be of low or moderate income. Moreover, such unit is treated as occupied by an individual or family of low or moderate income until reoccupied, other than for a temporary period, at which time the character of the unit shall be redetermined. In no event shall such temporary period exceed 31 days.

(6) Effect of post-issuance noncompliance—(i) In general. Unless corrected within a reasonable period, noncompliance with the requirements of this paragraph (b) shall cause the project to be treated as other than a project described in section 103 (b)(4)(A) and this paragraph (b) as of the date of issue. After an issue to provide such project ceases to qualify, subsequent conformity with the requirements will not alter the taxable status of such issue.

(ii) Correction of noncompliance. If the issuer corrects any noncompliance arising from events occurring after the issuance of the obligation within a reasonable period, such noncompliance (e.g., an unauthorized sublease) shall not cause the project to be a project not described in this paragraph (b). A reasonable period is at least 60 days after such error is first discovered or would have been discovered by the exercise of reasonable diligence.

(iii) Involuntary loss. (a) The requirements of paragraph (b) shall cease to apply to a project in the event of involuntary noncompliance caused by fire, seizure, requisition, foreclosure, transfer of title by deed in lieu of foreclosure, change in a Federal law or an action of a Federal agency after the date of issue which prevents an issuer from enforcing the requirements of this paragraph, or condemnation or similar event but only if, within a reasonable period, either the obligation used to provide such project is retired or amounts received as a consequence of such event are used to provide a project which meets the requirement of section 103 (b)(4)(A) and this paragraph (b).

(b) The provisions of paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(a) of this section shall cease to apply to a project subject to foreclosure, transfer of title by deed in lieu of foreclosure or similar event if, at anytime during that part of the qualified project period subsequent to such event, the obligor on the acquired purpose obligation (as defined in § 1.103-13(b)(4)(iv)(a)) or a related person (as defined in § 1.103-10(e)) obtains an ownership interest in such project for tax purposes.

(7) Qualified project period. The term “qualified project period” means—

(i) For obligations issued after April 24, 1979, and prior to September 4, 1982, a period of 20 years commencing on the later of the date that the project becomes available for occupancy or the date of issue of the obligations. The requirement of paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section shall be deemed met if the owner of the project contracts with a Federal or state agency to maintain at least 20 percent (or 15 percent in the case of targeted areas) of the units for low or moderate income individuals or families (as defined in paragraph (b)(8)(v) of this section) for 20 years in consideration for rent subsidies for such individuals or families for such period.

(ii) For obligations issued after September 3, 1982, a period beginning on the later of the first day on which at least 10 percent of the units in the project are first occupied or the date of issue of an obligation described in section 103(b)(4)(A) and this paragraph and ending on the later of the date—

(a) Which is 10 years after the date on which at least 50 percent of the units in the project are first occupied,

(b) Which is a qualified number of days after the date on which any of the units in the project is first occupied, or

(c) On which any assistance provided with respect to the project under section 8 of the United States Housing Act of 1937 terminates.

For purposes of this paragraph (b)(7)(ii), the term “qualified number of days” means 50 percent of the total number of days comprising the term of the obligation with the longest maturity in the issue used to provide the project. In the case of a refunding of such an issue, the longest maturity is equal to the sum of the period the prior issue was outstanding and the longest term of any refunding obligations.

(8) Other definitions. For purposes of this paragraph—

(i) Unit. The term “unit” means any accommodation containing separate and complete facilities for living, sleeping, eating, cooking, and sanitation. Such accommodations may be served by centrally located equipment, such as air conditioning or heating. Thus, for example, an apartment containing a living area, a sleeping area, bathing and sanitation facilities, and cooking facilities equipped with a cooking range, refrigerator, and sink, all of which are separate and distinct from other apartments, would constitute a unit.

(ii) In registered form. The term “in registered form” has the same meaning as in section 6049. With respect to obligations issued after December 31, 1982, such term shall have the same meaning as prescribed in section 103(j) (including the regulations thereunder).

(iii) Targeted area project. The term “targeted area project” means a project located in a qualified census tract (as defined in § 6a.103A-2(b)(4)) or an area of chronic economic distress (as defined in § 6a.103A-2(b)(5)).

(iv) Building or structure. The term “building or structure” generally means a discrete edifice or other man-made construction consisting of an independent foundation, outer walls, and roof. A single unit which is not an entire building but is merely a part of a building is not a building or structure within the meaning of this section. As such, while single townhouses are not buildings if their foundation, outer walls, and roof are not independent, detached houses and rowhouses are buildings.

(v) Low or moderate income. Individuals and families of low or moderate income shall be determined in a manner consistent with determinations of lower income families under section 8 of the United States Housing Act of 1937, as amended, except that the percentage of median gross income which qualifies as low or moderate income shall be 80 percent. Therefore, occupants of a unit are considered individuals or families of low or moderate income only if their adjusted income (computed in the manner prescribed with § 1.167(k)-3(b)(3)) does not exceed 80 percent of the median gross income for the area. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the occupants of a unit shall not be considered to be of low or moderate income if all the occupants are students (as defined in section 151(e)(4)), no one of whom is entitled to file a joint return under section 6013. The method of determining low or moderate income in effect on the date of issue will be determinative for such issue, even if such method is subsequently changed. In the event programs under section 8(f) of the Housing Act of 1937, as amended, are terminated prior to the date of issue, the applicable method shall be that in effect immediately prior to the date of such termination.

(9) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this paragraph (b).

Example 1.

In August 1982, City X issues $10 million of registered bonds with a term of 20 years to be used to finance the construction of an apartment building to be available to members of the general public. X loans the proceeds of the bonds to Corporation M, the tax owner of the project. The loan is secured by a promissory note from M and a mortgage on the project. The mortgage requires annual payments sufficient to amortize the principal and interest on the bonds. Corporation M maintains 20 percent of the units in the project for low or moderate income individuals and meets all of the requirements of this section until 2002, at which time M converts the project to offices. The bonds are industrial development bonds, but because the proceeds are used for construction of residential rental property, which is an exempt facility under section 103(b)(4)(A) and paragraph (b) of this section, section 103(b)(1) does not apply.

Example 2.

The facts are the same as in example (1), except that the building is constructed adjacent to a factory, and the factory employees are to be given preference in selecting tenants. The bonds are industrial development bonds and the facility is not an exempt facility under section 103(b)(4)(A) and paragraph (b) of this section because it is not a facility constructed for use by the general public.

Example 3.

The facts are the same as in example (1), except that the proceeds of the obligation are provided to N, a cooperative housing corporation, to finance the construction of a cooperative housing project. N sells stock in such cooperative to shareholders, some of whom occupy the units in the cooperative and some of whom rent the units to other persons. Such project is not a residential rental project within the meaning of section 103(b)(4)(A) and § 1.103-8(b) because less than all of the units in the building are used for rental. Further, the bonds are mortgage subsidy bonds under section 103A because more than a significant portion of the proceeds are used to provide financing for residences, some of which are owner-occupied and some of which are used in the trade or business of rental.

Example 4.

On February 1, 1984, County Z issues registered obligations with a term of 3 years and loans the proceeds to Corporation V to construct a garden apartment project for tenants who are 65 years or older. The mortgage on the project secures the loan. At the end of 3 years, V obtains permanent financing for the project from a commercial lender. The project is not a targeted area project. V has not contracted with any Federal or State agency to provide rental assistance under section 8 of the United States Housing Act of 1937. As a condition for providing financing for construction, Z requires that the deed to the project contain a covenant that requires the project be used for elderly tenants and restricts occupancy of 20 percent of the units in the project to individuals or families of low or moderate income. Further, the deed provides that “Such covenant shall run with and bind the land, from the date that ten percent of the units in the project are first occupied until ten years after the date that at least half the units are first occupied. The right to enforce these restrictions is vested in County Z.” In 1990, however, less than 20 percent of the units are occupied by families or individuals of low or moderate incomes, and three months after learning of this condition County Z had not commenced enforcement of the covenant. Although on the date of issue the proceeds of the obligation were used to provide a residential rental project, the obligation will not be treated as providing a residential rental project within the meaning of section 103(b)(4)(A) as of February 1, 1984, because the project did not meet the requirements of this paragraph for at least 10 years after at least 50 percent of the units are first occupied.

Example 5.

On January 15, 1983, State X issues registered obligations with a term of 15 years, the proceeds of which are loaned to Corporation P to construct an apartment building. The project will be a “targeted area project”, within the meaning of § 1.103-8(b)(8)(iii). Corporation P intends to rent all the units to individuals for their residences, maintaining 15 percent of the units in the project for individuals having low or moderate incomes, for 15 years. In 1988, however, Corporation P converts 80 percent of the units to condominiums. Corporation P repays the loan to State X which, in turn, redeems the obligations. The obligations are not used to provide a residential rental project within the meaning of section 103(b)(4)(A), and all the interest paid or to be paid on such obligations will be includable in gross income.

Example 6.

On January 15, 1984, State Z issues registered obligations with a term of 15 years the proceeds of which will be used to acquire and renovate a residential apartment building. Z sells the project to Corporation U and receives a 30-year mortgage. On June 1, 1985, the first occupants of the project commence their tenancies. At least 50 percent of the units in the project are occupied on July 1, 1985. On January 15, 1988, Z issues 35-year refunding bonds the proceeds of which are used to retire the obligations issued in 1984. The prior issue will be discharged by March 15, 1988. In order to meet the requirement of § 1.103-8(b)(5)(ii), at least 20 percent of such units must be occupied by individuals of low or moderate income until January 1, 2005.

Example 7.

The facts are the same as in example (6) except that in 1987, the apartment building is substantially destroyed by fire. The building was insured at its fair market value. U does not intend to reconstruct the building but uses a portion of the insurance proceeds to repay the unpaid balance of the mortgage. Z uses this amount to redeem the outstanding bonds at the first available call date. Since the project was substantially destroyed by fire and the outstanding bonds are retired at the first available call date, the requirements of section 103(b)(4)(A) and this paragraph (b) are satisfied with respect to the obligations.

Example 8.

The facts are the same as in example (6) except that in 1987 U defaults on the mortgage, and Z obtains title to the project without instituting foreclosure proceedings. Z sells the project to S and uses the proceeds to retire the outstanding bonds. Since S did not obtain the project with obligations described in section 103(b)(4), S is not required to meet the requirements of section 103(b)(4)(A) and this paragraph. Further, the 1984 obligations are obligations described in section 103(b)(4)(A).

Example 9.

In September 1983, State W issues $10 million of registered bonds with a term of 3 years, the proceeds of which are to be loaned to Corporation V to finance the construction of an apartment building in a rural community. At the end of 3 years, V obtains permanent financing from Federal Agency T. Agency T will not allow the deed to contain any restrictive covenant relating to the use of the project. Under Federal law, however, T requires that V maintain all of the units in the project for rental to low-income farmworkers for the term of the mortgage, which is 20 years. Further, the mortgage between T and V provides that if T determines that low-income housing is no longer required in the community in which the project is constructed then the repayment of the mortgage may be accelerated. T determines as of the date of issue that low-income housing will be needed in the community for at least 20 years. In 1987, the project fails to meet the requirements of section 1.103-8(b)(5)(ii), relating to occupancy by individuals or families of low or moderate income. Further, T does not require V to correct the failure. Based on the foregoing, the bonds issued by W will be treated as described in section 103(b)(4)(A).

Example 10.

The facts are the same as in example (9) except that in 1987, the Federal law is amended to provide that Agency T may not enforce its low-income occupancy requirement. The result is the same.

Example 11.

The facts are the same as in example (9) except that in 1987 Agency T determines that due to a change in circumstances in the community in which the project is located low-income rental housing is no longer required. As such, T requires V to repay the mortgage. Since the obligations have been repaid, W has no legal right to enforce the requirements of paragraph (b) with respect to the project. Subsequent nonconformity of the project with the requirements of § 1.103-8(b) under these circumstances will not cause the obligations issued by W to be industrial development bonds within the meaning of section 103(b)(1).

(10) Obligations issued before April 25, 1979—(i) General rules. Section 103(b)(1) shall not apply to obligations issued before April 25, 1979, which are part of an issue substantially all of the proceeds of which are to be used to provide residential real property for family units. In order to qualify under this paragraph (b) as an exempt facility, the facility must satisfy the public use requirement of paragraph (a)(2) of this section by being available for use by members of the general public.

(ii) Family units defined. For purposes of this paragraph (b) the term “family unit” means a building or any portion thereof which contains complete living facilities which are to be used on other than a transient basis by one or more persons, and facilities functionally related and subordinate thereto. Thus, an apartment which is to be used on other than a transient basis as a residence by a single person or by a family and which contains complete facilities for living, sleeping, eating, cooking, and sanitation, constitutes a family unit. Such a unit may be served by centrally located machinery and equipment as in a typical apartment building. To qualify as a family unit, the living facilities must be a separate, self-contained building or constitute one unit in a building substantially all of which consists of similar units, together with functionally related and subordinate facilities and areas. Hotels, motels, dormitories, fraternity and sorority houses, rooming houses, hospitals, sanitariums, rest homes, and trailer parks and courts for use on a transient basis do not constitute residential real property for family units.

(iii) Functionally related and subordinate facilities. Under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, facilities which are functionally related and subordinate to residential real property actually used for family units include, for example, facilities for use by the occupants such as a swimming pool, a parking area, and recreational facilities.

(c) Sports facilities—(1) General rule. Section 103(b)(4)(B) provides that section 103(b)(1) shall not apply to obligations issued by a State or local governmental unit which are part of an issue substantially all of the proceeds of which are to be used to provide sports facilities. In order to qualify as an exempt facility under section 103(b)(4)(B) and this paragraph, the facility must satisfy the public use requirement of paragraph (a)(2) of this section by being available for use by members of the general public either as participants or as spectators.

(2) Sports facility defined. (i) For purposes of section 103(b)(4)(B) and this paragraph, the term “sports facilities” includes both outdoor and indoor facilities. The facility may be designed either as a spectator or as a participation facility. For example, the term includes both indoor and outdoor stadiums for baseball, football, ice hockey, or other sports events, as well as facilities for the participation of the general public in sports activities, such as golf courses, ski slopes, swimming pools, tennis courts, and gymnasiums. The term does not include, however, facilities such as a golf course, swimming pool, or tennis court, which are constructed for use by members of a private club or as integral or subordinate parts of a hotel or motel, or the use of which will be restricted to a special class or group or to guests of a particular hotel or motel, since they are not facilities for the use of the general public as required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section.

(ii) Under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, facilities which are functionally related and subordinate to a sports facility, such as a parking lot, clubhouse, ski slope warming house, bath house, or ski tow, are considered to be part of a sports facility. A ski lodge which consists primarily of overnight accommodations is not functionally related and subordinate to a sports facility.

(d) Convention or trade show facilities—(1) General rule. Section 103(b)(4)(C) provides that section 103(b)(1) shall not apply to obligations issued by a State or local governmental unit which are a part of an issue substantially all of the proceeds of which are to be used to provide convention or trade show facilities. In order to qualify under section 103(b)(4)(C) and this paragraph as an exempt facility, the facility must satisfy the public use requirement of paragraph (a)(2) of this section by being available for an appropriate charge or rental, on a rate scale basis, for use by members of the general public. The public use requirement is not satisfied if the use of a convention or trade show facility is limited by long-term leases to a single user or group of users.

(2) Convention or trade show facilities defined. For purposes of section 103(b)(4)(C) and this paragraph, the term “convention or trade show facilities” means special-purpose buildings or structures, such as meeting halls and display areas, which are generally used to house a convention or trade show, including, under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, facilities functionally related and subordinate to such facilities such as parking lots or railroad sidings. A hotel or motel which is available to the general public, whether or not it is intended primarily to house persons attending or participating in a convention or trade show, is neither a convention or trade show facility nor functionally related and subordinate thereto.

(e) Certain transportation facilities—(1) General rule. Section 103(b)(4)(D) provides that section 103(b)(1) shall not apply to obligations issued by a State or local governmental unit which are part of an issue substantially all of the proceeds of which are to be used to provide (i) airports, docks, wharves, mass commuting facilities, or public parking facilities, or (ii) storage or training facilities directly related to any such facility. In order to qualify under section 103(b)(4)(D) and this paragraph as an exempt facility, the facility must satisfy the public use requirement of paragraph (a)(2) of this section by being available for use by members of the general public or for use by common carriers or charter carriers which serve members of the general public. A dock or wharf which is part of a public port (or a public port to be constructed in accordance with a plan which has been finally adopted on the date the obligations in question are issued) satisfies the public use test. A parking lot will be available for use by the general public unless more than an insubstantial portion thereof will be used exclusively by or for the benefit of a nonexempt person by reason of a formal or informal agreement or by reason of the remote geographic location of the facility.

(2) Definitions. For purposes of section 103(b)(4)(D) and this paragraph—

(i) With respect to bonds sold at or before 5:00 p.m. EST on December 29, 1978, an airport includes service accommodations for the public such as terminals, retail stores in such terminals, runways, hangars, loading facilities, repair shops, parking areas, and facilities which, under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, are functionally related and subordinate to the airport, such as facilities for the preparation of in-flight meals, restaurants, and accommodations for temporary or overnight use by passengers, and other facilities functionally related to the needs or convenience of passengers, shipping companies, and airlines. The term “airport” does not include a landing strip which, by reason of a formal or informal agreement, or by reason of geographic location, will not be available for general public use.

(ii) With respect to bonds sold after 5:00 p.m. EST on December 29, 1978—

(a) An airport includes facilities which are directly related and essential to—

(1) Servicing aircraft or enabling aircraft to take off and land, or

(2) Transferring passengers or cargo to or from aircraft.

A facility does not satisfy either of the foregoing requirements if the facility need not be located at, or in close proximity to, the take-off and landing area in order to perform its function. Examples of facilities which satisfy those requirements are terminals, runways, hangars, loading facilities, repair shops, and land-based navigation aids such as radar installation.

(b) Under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, an airport includes facilities other than those described in paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(a) only if they are functionally related and subordinate to an airport (as defined in paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(a)). A facility (or part thereof) is not functionally related and subordinate to an airport if the facility (or part thereof)—

(1) Is not of a character and size commensurate with the character and size of the airport at or adjacent to which the facility is located, or

(2) Is not located at or adjacent to that airport.

A facility may satisfy the character and size requirement although it provides minimal benefits to other airports. For example, a facility for the preparation of in-flight meals which has capacity sufficient to prepare all in-flight meals for aircraft departing the airport where the facility is located qualifies although some meals may be consumed in transit between other airports. Other examples of facilities functionally related and subordinate to an airport are restaurants and retail stores located in terminals, ground transportation parking areas, and accommodations for temporary or overnight use by passengers. Unimproved land (including agricultural land) that is adjacent to an airport and that is impaired by a significant level of airport noise is functionally related and subordinate to the airport if after its acquisition that land will not be converted to a use that is incompatible with the level of airport noise. Adjacent land with existing improvements also may be functionally related and subordinate to an airport by reason of impairment by a significant level of airport noise but only if the use of such land before its acquisition is incompatible with the airport noise level, its use after acquisition is to be compatible, and the post-acquisition use will be essentially different from the pre-acquisition use. Notwithstanding the foregoing, an interest in such improved land acquired solely to mitigate damages attributable to airport noise is treated as functionally related and subordinate to the airport. Thus, for example, amounts allocated to imposing a servitude on improved land adjacent to an airport restricting its future use to uses compatible with airport noise are treated as amounts allocated to property functionally related and subordinate to an airport. For the purpose of determining whether land is impaired by a significant level of airport noise, any generally accepted noise estimating methodology may be used. For example, a Noise Exposure Forecast (NEF), a method for composite noise rating recommended by the Federal Aviation Administration to measure the impact of airport noise, may be used for this purpose. Compatibility may be determined by reference to regulations or general guidelines published by the Federal Aviation Administration under section 102 of the Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 2102), or sections 11(3)(C) and 18(a)(4) of the Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970, as amended (49 U.S.C. 1711(3)(C) and 1718(a)(4)), concerning uses of land impaired by a significant level of airport noise, or, where available, by reference to the airport compatibility plan specifically addressing what constitutes a compatible use of that land.

(c) As an illustration of the rules of this paragraph (e)(2)(ii), an office building (or office space within a building) or a computer facility, either of which serves a system-wide or regional function of an airline, is not considered part of an airport since that facility is not described in either paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(a) or (b). However, a maintenance or overhaul facility which services aircraft is considered part of an airport under paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(a) since that facility is directly related and essential to servicing aircraft and must be located where aircraft take off and land in order to perform its function.

(d) A hotel located at or adjacent to an airport satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(b), that is, it is of a character and size commensurate with the character and size of the airport at or adjacent to which it is located, if the number of guest rooms in the hotel is reasonable for the size of the airport, taking into account the current and projected passenger usage of the terminal facility. If the hotel contains meeting rooms, the number and size of these rooms must be in reasonable proportion to the number of guest rooms in the hotel. Limited recreational facilities will not prevent the hotel from being of a character and size commensurate with the character and size of the airport.

(iii) A dock or wharf includes property which, under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, is functionally related and subordinate to a dock or wharf such as the structure alongside which a vessel docks, the equipment needed to receive and to discharge cargo and passengers from the vessel, such as cranes and conveyors, related storage, handling, office, and passenger areas, and similar facilities.

(iv) A mass commuting facility includes real property together with improvements and personal property used therein, such as machinery, equipment, and furniture, serving the general public commuting on a day-to-day basis by bus, subway, rail, ferry, or other conveyance which moves over prescribed routes. Such property also includes terminals and facilities which, under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, are functionally related and subordinate to the mass commuting facility, such as parking garages, car barns, and repair shops. Use of mass commuting facilities by noncommuters in common with commuters is immaterial. Thus, a terminal leased to a common carrier bus line which serves both commuters and long distance travelers would qualify as an exempt facility.

(3) Related storage or training facility. Section 103 (b)(4)(D) includes only those storage and training facilities which are both (i) directly related to a facility to which subparagraph (1)(i) or (ii) of this paragraph applies and (ii) physically located on or adjacent to such a facility. For example, a storage facility would include a grain elevator, silo, warehouse, or oil and gas storage tank used in connection with a dock or wharf and located on or adjacent to such dock or wharf. Similarly, a training facility would include a building located at or adjacent to an airport for the training of flight personnel or a paved area immediately adjoining a bus garage used to train bus drivers.

(4) Examples. The principles of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

B Airport Authority, a political subdivision of State A, owns and operates B Airport. B Airport Authority adds several runways. In view of the expanded area impaired by significant levels of airport noise, the Authority proposes to issue bonds the proceeds of which are to be used to acquire a hospital located adjacent to the airport. The noise level on the acquired property is 40 NEF. By reference to a noise exposure map setting forth noncompatible land uses and by reference to guidelines published by the Federal Aviation Administration, it is established that continued use of the land for a hospital is not compatible with the noise level. Prior to issuing the bonds, B contracts to lease the property to Corporation C to be used for warehouse space. Within 18 months of the bonds' issuance C will remodel the hospital (previously owned by D, who is unrelated to C) with its own funds and rent the facility as a warehouse. Use as a warehouse is determined to be compatible with the level of airport noise impairing the land. The improved land and prospective revenues from the facility's rental are security for the proposed issuance. Based on the foregoing, the acquired land satisfies the public use test. Furthermore, it is functionally related and subordinate to the airport because the improvements are to be used in an essentially different manner than prior to the land's acquisition. The bonds are industrial development bonds. However, section 103(b)(1) does not apply unless the provisions of section 103(b)(13) and § 1.103-11 apply.

Example 2.

The facts are the same as in Example (1) except that a substantial portion of the proceeds of the bond issue is allocated to the acquisition of a limited interest in an additional tract of land (also impaired by airport noise measured at 40 NEF) on which an office building stands. The limited interest holds B harmless for damages caused by airport noise and restricts uses of the tract after the building is retired to those compatible with noise levels caused by the airport. Based on the foregoing, such interest satisfies the public use test. Furthermore, the interest is functionally related and subordinate to the airport because it is solely to mitigate damage attributable to airport noise, in part by restricting future land uses. The bonds are industrial development bonds. However, section 103(b)(1) does not apply unless the provisions of section 103(b)(13) or § 1.103-11 apply.

Example 3.

On June 1, 1982, M Airport Authority, a political subdivision of State O, issues obligations, the proceeds of which are loaned to X Corporation, a nonexempt person. X uses the proceeds to construct a hotel adjacent to the main terminal building at M Airport. X will be unconditionally liable for repayment of the proposed obligations. The hotel will be used to provide temporary and overnight accommodations for airline passengers using M Airport. The number of rooms in the hotel is reasonable for an airport of M's size, taking into account the current and projected passenger usage of the terminal facility. In addition to guest rooms, the hotel will contain a restaurant, small retail stores (such as a gift shop and newstand), and limited recreation facilities (such as a swimming pool). The hotel will also contain several multipurpose rooms suitable for use as meeting rooms. The number and size of these rooms will be in reasonable proportion to the number and size of the guest rooms in the hotel. Use of the guest rooms, restaurant and stores, recreational facilities, and meeting rooms by air passengers arriving at or departing from M Airport will be incidental to the use of the hotel by air passengers for temporary and overnight accommodations. The hotel is of a character and size commensurate with the character and size of M Airport. Consequently, applying the provisions of § 1.103-8(e)(2), the hotel is functionally related and subordinate to M Airport. The obligations are industrial development bonds. Section 103(b)(1) does not apply to the obligations, however, unless the provisions of section 103(b)(10) and § 1.103-11 apply.

Example 4.

On June 1, 1982, N Airport Authority, a political subdivision of State P, issues obligations the proceeds of which are loaned to Y Corporation, a nonexempt person. Y uses the proceeds to construct a hotel adjacent to the main terminal building at N Airport. Y Corporation will be unconditionally liable for repayment of the proposed obligations. The hotel will contain extensive recreational facilities, including a large roof-top swimming pool, tennis courts, and a health club. In addition, facilities for conferences consisting of a ballroom-sized meeting room capable of being partitioned by movable panels and several smaller meeting rooms will be constructed. The number of rooms in the hotel will substantially exceed the number which is reasonably based on the current and projected passenger usage of the terminal facility. Because of the presence of extensive recreational and conference facilities, as well as the presence of on excessive number of rooms at the hotel, the hotel fails to be of a character and size commensurate with the character and size of N Airport. The result would be the same if the hotel did not have extensive recreational facilities. Consequently, the hotel is not functionally related and subordinate to N Airport under § 1.103-8(e)(2). The obligations are industrial development bonds and interest thereon is not excluded from gross income by reason of subsection (a)(1) or (b)(4) of section 103.

(f) Certain public utility facilities—(1) General rule. (i) Section 103(b)(4)(E) provides that section 103(b)(1) shall not apply to obligations issued by a State or local governmental unit which are part of an issue substantially all of the proceeds of which are to be used to provide sewage disposal facilities, solid waste disposal facilities, or facilities for the local furnishing of electric energy or gas. In order to qualify under section 103(b)(4)(E) as an exempt facility, the facility must satisfy the public use requirement of paragraph (a)(2) of this section. A public utility facility described in this subparagraph (with the exception of sewage and solid waste disposal facilities which will be treated in all events as serving the general public) will satisfy the public use requirement only if such facility, or the output thereof, is available for use by members of the general public.

(ii) A facility for the local furnishing of electric energy or gas is, for purposes of applying the public use test in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, available for use by members of the general public if (a) the owner or operator of the facility is obligated, by a legislative enactment, local ordinance, regulation, or the equivalent thereof, to furnish electric energy or gas to all persons who desire such services and who are within the service area of the owner or operator of such facility, and (b) it is reasonably expected that such facility will serve or be available to a large segment of the general public in such service area. For rules with respect to facilities for the furnishing of water, see paragraph (h) of this section.

(2) Definitions. For purposes of section 103(b)(4)(E) and this paragraph—

(i) The term “sewage disposal facilities” means any property used for the collection, storage, treatment, utilization, processing, or final disposal of sewage.

(ii) The term “facilities for the local furnishing of electric energy or gas” means property which—

(a) Is either property of a character subject to the allowance for depreciation provided in section 167 or land,

(b) Is used to produce, collect, generate, transmit, store, distribute, or convey electric energy or gas.

(c) Is used in the trade or business of furnishing electric energy or gas, and

(d) Is a part of a system providing service to the general populace of one or more communities or municipalities, but in no event more than 2 contiguous counties (or a political equivalent) whether or not such counties are located in one State.

For purposes of this subdivision, a city which is not within, or does not consist of, one or more counties (or a political equivalent) shall be treated as a county (or a political equivalent). A facility for the generation of electric energy otherwise qualifying under this subdivision will not be disqualified because it is connected to a system for interconnection with other public utility systems for the emergency transfer of electric energy. The facilities need not be located in the area served by them. Also, the term “facilities for the local furnishing of electric energy or gas” does not include coal, oil, gas, nuclear cores, or other materials performing a similar function.

(g) Air or water pollution control facilities—(1) General rule. Section 103(b)(4)(F) provides that section 103(b)(1) shall not apply to obligations issued by a State or local governmental unit which are part of an issue substantially all of the proceeds of which are to be used to provide air or water pollution control facilities. Such facilities are in all events treated as serving the general public and, thus, satisfy the public use requirement of paragraph (a)(2) of this section.

(2) Definitions. (i) For purposes of section 103(b)(4)(F) and this paragraph, property is a pollution control facility to the extent that the test of either subdivision (iii) or (iv) of this subparagraph is satisfied, but only if—

(a) It is property which is described in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph and is either of a character subject to the allowance for depreciation provided in section 167 or land, and

(b) Either (1) a Federal, State, or local agency exercising jurisdiction has certified that the facility, as designed, is in furtherance of the purpose of abating or controlling atmospheric pollutants or contaminants, or water pollution, as the case may be, or (2) the facility is designed to meet or exceed applicable Federal, State, and local requirements for the control of atmospheric pollutants or contaminants, or water pollution, as the case may be, in effect at the time the obligations, the proceeds of which are to be used to provide such facilities, are issued.

(ii) Property is described in this subdivision if it is property to be used, in whole or in part, to abate or control water or atmospheric pollution or contamination by removing, altering, disposing, or storing pollutants, contaminants, wastes, or heat. In the case of property to be used to control water pollution, such property includes the necessary intercepting sewers, pumping, power, and other equipment, and their appurtenances. For rules relating to facilities which remove pollutants from fuel or certain other items, see subdivision (vi) of this subparagraph.

(iii) In the case of an expenditure for property which is designed for no significant purpose other than the control of pollution, the total expenditure for such property satisfies the test of this subdivision. Thus, where property which is to serve no function other than the control of pollution is to be added to an existing manufacturing or production facility, the total expenditure for such property satisfies the test of this subdivision. Also, if an expenditure for property would not be made but for the purpose of controlling pollution, and if the expenditure has no significant purpose other than the purpose of pollution control, the total expenditure for such property satisfies the test of this subdivision even though such property serves one or more functions in addition to its function as a pollution control facility.

(iv) In the case of property to be placed in service for the purpose of controlling pollution and for a significant purpose other than controlling pollution, only the incremental cost of such facility satisfies the test of this subdivision. The “incremental cost” of property is the excess of its total cost over that portion of its cost expended for a purpose other than the control of pollution.

(v) An expenditure has a significant purpose other than the control of pollution if it results in an increase in production or capacity, or in a material extension of the useful life of a manufacturing or production facility or a part thereof.

(h) Water facilities—(1) General rule. Section 103(b)(4)(G) provides that section 103(b)(1) shall not apply to obligations issued by a State or local governmental unit which are part of an issue substantially all of the proceeds of which are to be used to provide facilities for the furnishing of water which are available, on reasonable demand, to members of the general public. A water facility will satisfy the public use test of paragraph (a)(2) of this section if it will provide water, on reasonable demand, to any member of the general public within the service area of the water system of which such facility is a part.

(2) Definition. For purposes of section 103(b)(4)(G) and this paragraph, the “water facilities” include artesian wells, reservoirs, dams, related equipment and pipelines, and other facilities used to furnish water for domestic, industrial, irrigation, or other purposes.

(3) Effective date. The provisions of this paragraph apply in the case of facilities provided by obligations issued after January 1, 1969. In the case of facilities provided by obligations issued on or before such date to which section 103(b) is applicable, the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section shall apply. For such purposes, wherever the term “local furnishing of electric energy or gas” appears in paragraph (f) of this section, such term shall be deemed to read “local furnishing of electric energy, gas, or water.”

(i) Examples. The application of section 103(b)(4) and this section are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

City B plans to issue $10 million of bonds to be used to construct a sports stadium. The revenues from the facility and the facility itself will be the security for the bonds. A professional football team rents the facility on a long-term leasee for part of the year and a professional baseball team rents the sports facility for the remainder of the year. Tickets are sold by the teams to the general public. The bonds are industrial development bonds, but since the proceeds are used for a spectator facility for general public use, which is an exempt facility under section 103(b)(4)(B) and paragraph (c) of this section, section 103(b)(1) does not apply unless the provisions of section 103(b)(13) and § 1.103-11 apply.

Example 2.

City C plans to issue $10 million of bonds to be used to construct a convention hall which it will own. City C plans to lease the convention hall for 25 years to corporation Y, a nonexempt person, which will operate and maintain it. The terms of the lease obligate Y to make the convention hall generally available for civic, business, and recreational shows, meetings, performances, and similar activities serving or benefiting the community. Lease payments from Y and the facility will be security for the bonds. The bonds are industrial development bonds, but since the proceeds are to be used for a facility for general public use, which is an exempt facility under section 103(b)(4)(C) and paragraph (d) of this section, section 103(b)(1) does not apply unless the provisions of section 103(b)(13) and § 1.103-11 apply.

Example 3.

City D issues $100 million of its bonds and uses the proceeds to finance construction of an airport for the use of the general public. D will own and operate the airport. A major portion of the rentable space in the terminal building is leased on a long-term basis to common carrier and non-scheduled airlines. The bonds will be secured by the airport landing and runway charges and by payments with respect to such long-term leases from such commercial airlines. Such commercial airline payments are expected to constitute more than 50 percent of the total revenues from the airport. The bonds are industrial development bonds, but since the proceeds are to be used for an airport for use by the general public and by carriers serving the general public, which is an exempt facility under section 103(b)(4)(D) and paragraph (e) of this section, section 103(b)(1) does not apply unless the provisions of section 103(b)(13) and § 1.103-11 apply. The result would be the same if D hired an airport management firm to operate the airport.

Example 4.

City E issues $6 million of its bonds and uses the proceeds to finance construction of a landing strip for airplanes to be located adjacent to the factories of corporations Y and Z. The landing strip will be used in the trades or businesses of Y and Z and by any member of the general public wishing to use it. However, due to its location, general public use will be negligible. The lease payments by Y and Z for the use of the facility are the security for the bonds. The bonds are industrial development bonds and the facility is not an exempt facility under section 103(b)(4)(D) and paragraph (c) of this section because it is not a facility constructed for general public use.

Example 5.

State F and corporation Z enter into an arrangement which provides that F will issue $10 million of its bonds and use the proceeds to construct a facility for Z the only purpose of which is to control air and water pollution at Z's plant. The principal and interest on the bonds will be secured by the charges which F will impose on Z. The bonds are industrial development bonds, but since the proceeds are to be used for air and water pollution facilities designed to abate pollution by private persons, such facilities are for the benefit of the general public and are exempt facilities under section 103(b)(4)(F) and paragraph (g) of this section. Accordingly, section 103(b)(1) does not apply unless the provisions of section 103(b)(13) and § 1.103-11 apply.

Example 6.

City G issues $20 million of its bonds and will use $6 million to finance residential rental property which qualifies as an exempt facility under section 103(b)(4)(A) and paragraph (b) of this section, $9 million to finance construction of a stadium which qualifies as an exempt facility under section 103(b)(4)(B) and paragraph (c) of this section, and $5 million for convention facilities which qualify as exempt facilities under section 103(b)(4)(C) and paragraph (d) of this section. The facilities will be used in the trades or businesses of nonexempt persons and rental payments with respect to such facilities and the facilities themselves will be the security for the bonds. The bonds are industrial development bonds, but since all the proceeds are to be used for facilities which are exempt facilities under section 103(b)(4), section 103(b)(1) does not apply unless the provisions of section 103(b)(10) and § 1.103-11 apply. The result would be the same, if; instead of using $9 million to finance construction of a stadium, the $9 million were used to finance construction of a capitol building. [Reg. § 1.103-8].

[T.D. 7199, 37 FR 15490, Aug. 3, 1972]

§ 1.103-9 Interest on bonds to finance industrial parks.

(a) General rule. (1) Under section 103(c)(5), interest paid on an issue of obligations issued by a State or local governmental unit (as defined in § 1.103-1) is not includable in gross income if substantially all of the proceeds of such issue is to be used to finance the acquisition or development of land as the site for an industrial park (referred to in this section as “industrial park bonds”). However, interest on an obligation of such an issue is includable in gross income if the obligation is held by a substantial user or a related person (as described in section 103(c)(7) and § 1.103-11). If substantially all of the proceeds of a bond issue is to be so used to finance an industrial park, the debt obligations are treated as obligations described in section 103(a)(1) and § 1.103-1 even though such obligations are industrial development bonds within the meaning of section 103(c)(2) and § 1.103-7. Whether substantially all of the proceeds of an issue of governmental obligations are used to finance an industrial park is determined consistently with the rules for exempt facilities in § 1.103-8(a)(1)(i).

(2) The provisions of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph shall also apply to an issue of obligations substantially all of the proceeds of which is to be used to acquire or develop land as the site for an industrial park described in section 103(c)(5) and this section and for either or both of the following purposes: (i) To finance exempt facilities described in section 103(c)(4) and § 1.103-8, (ii) to finance facilities to be used by an exempt person.

(3) Section 103(c)(5) only becomes applicable where the bond issue meets both the trade or business and the security interest tests so that the obligations are industrial development bonds within the meaning of section 103(c)(2). For the interrelationship of the rules provided in this section and the exemption for certain small issues provided in section 103(c)(6), see § 1.103-10.

(b) Definition of an industrial park. For purposes of section 103(c)(5) and this section, the term “industrial park” means a tract of land, other than a tract of land intended for use by a single enterprise, suitable primarily for use as building sites by a group of enterprises engaged in industrial, distribution, or wholesale businesses if either—

(1) The control and administration of the tract is vested in an exempt person (within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2) of § 1.103-7), or

(2) The uses of the tract are normally (i) regulated by protective minimum restrictions, ordinarily including the size of individual sites, parking and loading regulations, and building setback lines, and (ii) designed to be compatible, under a comprehensive plan, with the community in which the industrial park is located and with the uses of the surrounding land.

(c) Development of land defined. For purposes of section 103(c)(5) and this section, the term “development of land” includes the provision of certain improvements to an industrial park site if such improvements are incidental to the use of the land as an industrial park. Such incidental improvements include the building or installation of incidental water, sewer, sewage and waste disposal, drainage, or similar facilities (whether surface, subsurface, or both). Such incidental improvements include the provision of incidental transportation facilities, such as hard-surface roads (including curbs and gutters) and railroad spurs and sidings; power distribution facilities, such as gas and electric lines; and communication facilities. The provision of structures or buildings of any kind is not included within the meaning of the term “development of land,” except for those structures or buildings which are necessary in connection with the incidental improvements encompassed by the term, such as, for example, a water pumphouse and storage tank needed in connection with the incidental provision of water facilities in an industrial park.

(d) Examples. The application of the rules contained in section 103(c)(5) and this section are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

City A and corporations X, Y, and Z (unrelated companies) enter into an arrangement under which A is to acquire a tract of land suitable for use as an industrial park. The arrangement provides that: (1) A will issue $10 million of bonds to be used for the acquisition and development of a suitable tract of land; (2) the tract will be controlled and administered by A, pursuant to a comprehensive zoning plan, for the use of a group of enterprises; (3) A will install necessary water, sewer, and drainage facilities on the tract; (4) A will sell substantial portions of the developed tract to X for use as a factory site and to Y for use as a warehouse site; (5) A will lease a sizeable portion of the tract to Z for 20 years as a distribution center site; and (6) the developed tract and the proceeds from the sale or lease of parts of the tract will be the security for the bonds. The bonds are industrial development bonds. Since, however, the proceeds of the issue are to be used for the acquisition and development of a tract of land as the site for an industrial park under section 103(c)(5), section 103(c)(1) does not apply unless the provisions of section 103(c)(7) and § 1.103-11 apply.

Example 2.

The facts are the same as in example (1) except that $1 million of the proceeds of the $10 million issue are to be used for the construction of a factory by corporation W or X. The bonds are industrial development bonds. Under these circumstances, substantially all of the proceeds are treated as used or to be used for the acquisition and development of a tract of land as the site for an industrial park described in section 103(c)(5). Accordingly, section 103(c)(1) does not apply unless the provisions of section 103(c)(7) and § 1.103-11 apply.

[T.D. 7199, 37 FR 15494, Aug. 3, 1972, as amended by T.D. 7511, 42 FR 54285, Oct. 5, 1977]

§ 1.103-10 Exemption for certain small issues of industrial development bonds.

(a) In general. Section 103(b)(6) applies to certain industrial development bond issues (referred to in this section as “exempt small issues”) and bonds issued to refund certain issues (referred to in this section as “exempt small refunding issues”). If an issue is an exempt small issue or an exempt small refunding issue, then under the requirements of section 103(b)(6) and this section the interest paid on the debt obligations is not includable in gross income, and the obligations are treated as obligations described in section 103(a)(1) and § 1.103-1, even though such obligations are industrial development bonds as defined in section 103(b)(2) and § 1.103-7. However, interest on an obligation of such an issue is includable in gross income if the obligation is held by a substantial user of the financed facilities or a related person (as described in section 103(b)(7) and § 1.103-11). Section 103(b)(6) only becomes applicable where the bond issue meets both the trade or business and the security interest tests so that the obligations are industrial development bonds within the meaning of section 103(b)(2). For bonds issued before January 1, 1979, in taxable years ending before such date, and for capital expenditures made before January 1, 1979, with respect to such bonds, paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section shall be applied by substituting $5 million for $10 million.

(b) Small issue exemption—(1) $1 million or less. Section 103(b)(6)(A) provides that section 103(b)(1) shall not apply to any debt obligation issued by a State or local governmental unit as part of an issue where—

(i) The aggregate authorized face amount of such issue (determined by aggregating the outstanding face amount of any prior exempt small issues described in paragraph (d) of this section and the face amount of the issue of obligations in question) is $1 million or less; and

(ii) Substantially all of the proceeds of such issue is to be used for the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, or improvement of land or property of a character subject to the allowance for depreciation under section 167. Proceeds which are loaned to a borrower for use as working capital or to finance inventory are not used in the manner described in the preceding sentence. Whether substantially all of the proceeds of an issue of governmental obligations are used in such manner is determined consistently with the rules for exempt facilities in § 1.103-8(a)(1)(i). Any obligation which is an industrial development bond within the meaning of section 103(b)(2) and which satisfies the $1 million small issue exemption requirements is an exempt small issue. See paragraph (c)(1) of this section for the treatment of refunding issues of $1 million or less.

(2) $10 million or less. (i) Under section 103(b)(6)(D), the issuing State or local governmental unit may elect to have an aggregate authorized face amount of $10 million or less, in lieu of the $1 million exemption otherwise provided for in section 103(b)(6)(A), with respect to issues of obligations that are industrial development bonds (within the meaning of section 103(b)(2)) issued after October 24, 1968. If the election is made in a timely manner, the bonds will be treated as obligations of a State or local governmental unit described in section 103(a)(1) and § 1.103-1 if the sum of—

(a) The aggregate face amount of the issue including the aggregate outstanding face amount of any prior $1 million or $10 million exempt small issues taken into account under section 103(b)(6)(B) and paragraph (d) of this section, and

(b) The aggregate amount of “section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditures” (within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section),

is $10 million or less. In the case of an issue of obligations that qualified for exemption under section 103(b)(6)(A) and this paragraph, if a section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditure made after the date of issue has the effect of making taxable the interest on the issue, under section 103(b)(6)(G) the loss of tax exemption for the interest shall begin only with the date on which the expenditure that caused the issue to cease to qualify under the $10 million limit was paid or incurred. See paragraph (b)(2)(vi) of this section for the time and manner in which the issuer may elect the $10 million exemption. See section 103(b)(6)(H) and paragraph (c)(2) of this section for the treatment of certain refinancing issues of $10 million of less.

(ii) The term “section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditure” is defined in this subdivision. Special rules for applying such definition in the case of certain expenditures paid or incurred by a State or local governmental unit are prescribed in subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph. Except as excluded by subdivision (iv) or (v) of this subparagraph, an expenditure (regardless of how paid, whether in cash, notes, or stock in a taxable or nontaxable transaction) is a section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditure if—

(a) The capital expenditure was financed other than out of the proceeds of issues to the extent such issues are taken into account under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(a) of this section.

(b) The capital expenditures were paid or incurred during the 6-year period which begins 3 years before the date of issuance of the issue in question and ends 3 years after such date,

(c) The principal user of the facility in connection with which the property resulting from the capital expenditures is used and the principal user of the facility financed by the proceeds of the issue in question is the same person or are two or more related persons (as defined in section 103(b)(6)(C) and paragraph (e) of this section),

(d) Both facilities referred to in (c) of this subdivision were (during the period described in (b) of this subdivision or a part thereof) located in the same incorporated municipality or in the same county outside of the incorporated municipalities in such county), and

(e) The capital expenditures were properly chargeable to the capital account of any person or State or local governmental unit (whether or not such person is the principal user of the facility or a related person) determined, for this purpose, without regard to any rule of the Code which permits expenditures properly chargeable to capital account to be treated as current expenses. With respect to obligations issued on or after August 8, 1972, determinations under the preceding sentence shall be made by including any expenditure which may, under any rule or election under the Code, be treated as a capital expenditure (whether or not such expenditure is so treated). With respect to obligations issued on or after August 8, 1972, for purposes of this subparagraph, capital expenditures made with respect to a contiguous or integrated facility which is located on both sides of a border between two or more political jurisdictions are made with respect to a facility located in all such jurisdictions and, therefore, shall be treated as if they were made in each such political jurisdiction.

(iii) Amounts properly chargeable to capital account under subdivision (ii) (e) of this subparagraph include capital expenditures made by a State or local governmental unit with respect to an exempt facility or an industrial park, within the 6-year period described in subdivision (ii)(b) of this subparagraph, out of the proceeds of bond issues to which section 103(b)(1) did not apply by reason of section 103(b) (4) or (5) (relating to certain exempt activities and industrial parks). Thus, for example, the cost to the lessor of a leased plantsite financed out of the proceeds of an issue for an exempt air pollution control facility under section 103(b)(4)(F) and paragraph (g) of § 1.103-8 would constitute a section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditure. However, in the case of an industrial park, only the land costs allocated on an area basis to the plantsite and the actual cost of any improvements made on the plantsite, or to be used principally in connection with the actual plantsite occupied by a principal user or a related person, shall be taken into account as capital expenditures. Where the actual amount of capital expenditures made with respect to a facility by a person (including a State or local governmental unit) other than the user of such facility (or a related person) cannot be ascertained, the fair market value of the property with respect to which the capital expenditures were made, at the time of such capital expenditures, shall be deemed to be the amount of such capital expenditures. In the case of a transaction which is not in form a purchase but which is treated as a purchase for Federal income tax purposes, the purchase price for Federal income tax purposes shall constitute a capital expenditure.

(iv) A section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditure shall not include any “excluded expenditure” described in (a) through (e) of this subdivision (iv).

(a) A capital expenditure is an excluded expenditure if either it is made by a public utility company which is not the principal user of the facility financed by the proceeds of the issue in question (or a related person) with respect to property of such company, or it is made by a State or local governmental unit with respect to property of such unit, and if in either case it meets all of the following three conditions: Such property of such company or unit (as the case may be) must be used to provide gas, water, sewage disposal services, electric energy, or telephone service. Such property must be installed in, or connected to, the facility but must not consist of property which is such an integral part of the facility that the cost of such property is ordinarily included as part of the acquisition, construction, or reconstruction cost of such facility. Such property must be of a type normally paid for by the user (or a related person) in the form of periodic fees based upon time or use.

(b) A capital expenditure is an excluded expenditure if it is made by a person other than the user, a related person, or a State or local governmental unit and if it is made with respect to tangible personal property (within the meaning of paragraph (c) of § 1.48-1), or intangible personal property, leased to the user (or a related person) of a facility. However, the preceding sentence shall apply only if such personal property is leased by the manufacturer of such tangible or intangible personal property, or by a person in the trade or business of leasing property the same as, or similar to, such personal property, and only if, pursuant to general business practice, property of such type is ordinarily the subject of a lease.

(c) A capital expenditure is an excluded expenditure if it is made to replace property damaged or destroyed by fire, storm, or other casualty, to the extent that these expenditures do not exceed in dollar amount the fair market value (determined immediately before the casualty) of the property replaced.

(d) A capital expenditure is an excluded expenditure if it is required by a change made after the date of issue in a Federal or State law, or a local ordinance which has general application, or if it is required by a change made after such date in rules and regulations of general application issued under such law or ordinance.

(e) A capital expenditure is an excluded expenditure if it is required by or arises out of circumstances which could not reasonably be foreseen on the date of issue or which arise out of a mistake of law or fact. However, the aggregate dollar amount taken into account under this subdivision (e) with respect to any issue may not exceed $1 million. With respect to expenditures incurred prior to December 11, 1971, the dollar amount specified in the preceding sentence shall be $250,000.

(v)(a) If the assets of a corporation are acquired by another corporation in a transaction to which section 381(a) (relating to carryovers in certain corporate acquisitions) applies, the exchange of consideration by the acquiring corporation for such assets is not a section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditure by such acquiring corporation.

(b) However, if an exchange referred to in (a) of this subdivision occurs during the 6-year period beginning 3 years before the date of issuance of an issue of obligations and ending 3 years after such date, the transferor and transferee shall be treated as having been related persons for the portion of such 6-year period preceding the date of the exchange for purposes of determining whether section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditures have been made. For purposes of this subdivision (b), the date of an exchange to which section 381 applies shall be the date of distribution or transfer within the meaning of paragraph (b) of § 1.381(b)-1.

(c) If section 351(a) applies to a transfer of property to a corporation solely in exchange for its stock or securities, the issuance of such stock or securities in such exchange is not a section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditure by such corporation.

(d) However, if such a transfer referred to in (c) of this subdivision occurs during the 6-year period beginning 3 years before the date of issuance of an issue of obligations and ending 3 years after such date, and if, with respect to the property transferred, expenditures made within such period would have been section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditures if the transferor and transferee had been related persons for such period, then such expenditures shall be considered to be section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditures made by the transferee. In addition, if a transferor and transferee are related persons immediately following such transfer, such transferor and transferee shall also be treated as having been related persons for the portion of such 6-year period preceding the date of such transfer.

(e) For purposes of this subdivision (v), the term “issue of obligations” means an issue being tested for purposes of qualifying or continuing to qualify under an election pursuant to section 103(b)(6)(D) as to which an amount which would be a section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditure solely by reason of (b) or (d) of this subdivision must be taken into account.

(f) If with respect to an issue of obligations an expenditure would not have been a section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditure but for the application of (b) or (d) of this subdivision, and if such section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditure has the effect of making taxable the interest on an issue of obligations which qualified for exemption under section 103(b)(6)(A) and this paragraph, the loss of tax exemption for such interest shall begin not earlier than the date of such exchange or transfer referred to in this subdivision (v).

(vi) The issuer may make the election provided by section 103(b)(6)(D) and this paragraph (b)(2) (assuming that the bonds otherwise qualify under section 103(b)(6) by noting the election affirmatively at or before the time of issuance of the issue in question on its books or records with respect to the issue. The term “books or records” includes the bond resolution or other similar legislation for the issue in question as well as the bond transcript or other compilation of bond and bond-related documents. If the issuer fails to make an election at the time and in the manner prescribed in this paragraph (b)(2), the issue will not be treated as described in section 103(b)(6)(D), and interest thereon will be includible in gross income.

(c) Refunding or refinancing issue exemption—(1) $1 million or less refunding issue. Section 103(b)(6)(A) also provides that section 103(b)(1) shall not apply to any debt obligation issued by a State or local governmental unit as part of an issue the aggregate authorized face amount of which is $1 million or less, if substantially all of the proceeds of such issue are to be used—

(i) To redeem part of all of a prior issue substantially all of the proceeds of which were used to acquire, construct, reconstruct, or improve land or property of a character subject to the allowance for depreciation, or

(ii) To redeem part or all of a prior exempt small refunding issue.

(2) 10 million or less refinancing issue. Section 103(b)(6)(H) provides that section 103(b)(1) shall not apply to any debt obligation issued by a governmental unit as part of an issue which is $10 million or less if the condition of section 103(b)(6)(H) is met and if substantially all of the proceeds are to be used—

(i) To redeem part or all of one or more prior exempt small issues, or

(ii) To redeem part or all of one or more prior exempt small refunding issues.

The condition of section 103(b)(6)(H) is that an election by the issuer of the $10 million exemption in lieu of the $1 million limit for a refunding issue may be made only if each prior issue being redeemed is an issue which qualified either for the $1 million exemption or, by reason of an election under section 103(b)(6)(D), for the $10 million exemption. In addition, in applying the capital expenditures test under section 103(b)(6)(D)(ii) and paragraph (b)(2)(i)(b) of this section to refinancing issues, section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditures are taken into account only for purposes of determining whether prior issues which were made under the section 103(b)(6)(D) election qualified under section 103(b)(6)(A) and would have continued to qualify under that section but for the redemption.

(d) Certain prior issues taken into account—(1) In general. Section 103(b)(6)(B) provides, in effect, that if (i) a prior issue specified in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph is an exempt small issue (including for this purpose an exempt small refunding issue) under section 103(b)(6)(A) and this section, and (ii) such prior issue is outstanding at the time of issuance of a subsequent issue, then in determining the aggregate face amount of such subsequent issue (for purposes of determining whether such issue is a $1 million or $10 million exempt small issue under section 103(b)(6)(A) and this section) there shall be taken into account the outstanding face amount of such prior exempt small issue. For purposes of this paragraph, the outstanding face amount of a prior exempt small issue does not include the face amount of any obligation which is to be redeemed from the proceeds of such subsequent issue.

(2) Prior issues specified. The face amount of an outstanding prior exempt small issue is taken into account under subparagraph (1) of this paragraph if—

(i) The proceeds of both the prior exempt small issue and of the subsequent issue (whether or not the State or local governmental unit issuing such obligation is the same unit for each such issue) are or will be used primarily with respect to facilities located or to be located in the same incorporated municipality or located or to be located in the same county outside of an incorporated municipality in such county (and, for purposes of this subdivision, on or after August 8, 1972, a contiguous or integrated facility which is located on both sides of a border between two or more political jurisdictions shall be treated as if it is entirely within each such political jurisdiction), and

(ii) The principal user of the financed facilities referred to in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph is or will be the same person or two or more related persons (as defined in section 103(b)(6)(C) and paragraph (e) of this section).

(3) Rules of application. The rules of this paragraph shall apply—

(i) Only in the case of outstanding prior exempt small issues which are industrial development bonds to which section 103(b)(1) would have applied but for the provisions of section 103(b)(6). Thus, for example, the provisions of this paragraph do not apply in respect of a prior issue of obligations issued on or before April 30, 1968. In addition, the provisions of this paragraph do not apply in respect of a prior issue for an exempt facility under section 103(b)(4) and § 1.103-8, or for an industrial park under section 103(b)(5) and § 1.103-9, whether or not the issue might also have qualified as an exempt small issue under section 103(b)(6)(A) and this section.

(ii) To all prior exempt small issues which meet the requirements of this paragraph. Thus, for example, in determining the aggregate face amount of an issue under section 103(b)(6)(A), the outstanding face amount of prior $1 million or $10 million exempt small issues which meet the requirements of this paragraph shall be taken into account in determining the aggregate face amount of a subsequent issue being tested for the $1 million small issue exemption. Similarly, in determining the aggregate face amount of an issue under section 103(b)(6)(A) and (D), the outstanding face amount of prior $1 million or $10 million exempt small issues which meet the requirements of this paragraph shall be taken into account in determining the aggregate face amount of a subsequent issue being tested for the $10 million small issue exemption.

(e) Related persons. For purposes of section 103(b) and §§ 1.103-7 through 1.103-11, the term “related person” means a person who is related to another person if, on the date of issue of an issue of obligations—

(1) The relationship between such persons would result in a disallowance of losses under section 267 (relating to disallowance of losses, etc., between related taxpayers) and section 707(b) (relating to losses disallowed, etc., between partners and controlled partnerships) and the regulations thereunder, or

(2) Such persons are members of the same controlled group of corporations, as defined in section 1563(a), relating to definition of controlled group of corporations (except that “more than 50 percent” shall be substituted for “at least 80 percent” each place it appears in section 1563(a)) and the regulations thereunder.

(f) Disqualification of certain small issues. (1) Section 103(b)(6) shall not apply to any obligation issued after April 24, 1979, which is part of an issue, a significant portion of the proceeds of which are to be used directly or indirectly to provide residential real property for family units. For purposes of the preceding sentence, the term “residential real property for family units” means residential rental projects (within the meaning of § 1.103-8(b)) and owner-occupied residences (within the meaning of section 103A).

(2) For purposes of paragraph (f)(1), a significant portion of the proceeds of an issue are used to provide residential real property for family units if 5 percent or more of the proceeds are so used.

(g) Examples. The application of the rules contained in section 103(b)(6) and this section are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

County A and corporation X enter into an arrangement under which the county will provide a factory which X will lease for 25 years. The arrangement provides (1) that A will issue $1 million of bonds on March 1, 1970, (2) that the proceeds of the bond issue will be used to acquire land in County A (but not in an incorporated municipality) and to construct and equip a factory on such land in accordance with X's specifications, (3) that X will rent the facility for 25 years at an annual rental equal to the amount necessary to amortize the principal and pay the interest on the outstanding bonds, and (4) that such payments by X and the facility itself shall be the security for the bonds. Although the bonds issued are industrial development bonds, the bonds are an exempt small issue under section 103(b)(6)(A) and this section since the aggregate authorized face amount of the bond issue is $1 million or less and all of the proceeds of the bond issue are to be used to acquire and improve land and acquire and construct depreciable property. The result would be the same if the arrangement provided that X would purchase the facility from A.

Example 2.

The facts are the same as in example (1) except that, instead of acquiring land and constructing a new factory, the arrangement provides that A will acquire a vacant existing factory building and rebuild and equip the building in accordance with X's specifications. The bonds are an exempt small issue for the same reasons as in example (1).

Example 3.

The facts are the same as in example (1) or (2) except that the financed facilities are additions to facilities which were financed by an issue of bonds to which section 103(b)(1) does not apply because such bonds were issued prior to May 1, 1968, or were subject to the transitional provisions of § 1.103-12. The bonds are an exempt small issue since neither of the prior bond issues are taken into account under section 103(b)(6)(B) and this section in determining the status of industrial development bonds which are issued after April 30, 1968, and which are not subject to the transitional provisions of § 1.103-12.

Example 4.

The facts are the same as in example (1) except that, subsequently, corporation X proposes to County A that A build a $400,000 warehouse located in Town M (an unincorporated town located in County A) for X under terms similar to the factory arrangement described in example (1). On the proposed issue date of the subsequent bond issue, $600,000 of the first exempt small issue will be outstanding. If A issues $400,000 of bonds for such purposes, the bonds will be an exempt small issue under section 103(b)(6) and this section since, under the rules of section 103(b)(6)(B) and paragraph (d) of this section, if the aggregate authorized face amount of the new issue and the outstanding prior exempt small issue will be $1 million or less, the new issue will be an exempt small issue. If, however, the aggregate authorized face amount of the prior issue outstanding on the date of the subsequent issue were in excess of $600,000, the subsequent issue would not qualify as an exempt small issue because (1) the combined aggregate face amount of the outstanding prior issue and the new issue would be in excess of $1 million, (2) the facilities financed by both issues are to be located in unincorporated areas in the same county, (3) the same taxpayer will be the principal user of both facilities, and (4) but for the rules of section 103(b)(6)(B) and paragraph (d) of this section the prior issue would be an exempt small issue.

Example 5.

The facts are the same as in example (1) except that subsequently corporation X proposes to City P and City R (incorporated municipalities located in County A) that P and R each issue bonds and each build $1 million facilities to be located in Cities P and R for the use of X under terms similar to the arrangement in example (1). Each of the $1 million issues will be an exempt small issue because each proposed facility is located within a different incorporated municipality and the proceeds of the prior outstanding exempt small issue were used to construct facilities outside of an incorporated area.

Example 6.

The facts are the same as in example (1) except that $95,000 of the $1 million will be used by the corporation as working capital. The bonds are an exempt small issue for the same reason as in example (1) since substantially all of the proceeds will be used for the acquisition of land and the construction of depreciable property.

Example 7.

The facts are the same as in example (1) except that on November 1, 1969, County A issued $10 million of industrial development bonds, all of the proceeds of which were issued for the acquisition of land as the site for an industrial park within the meaning of section 103(b)(5) and § 1.103-9. The proceeds of the $1 million of bonds issued in 1970 will be used to construct a factory for corporation X to be located in the industrial park. The bonds issued in 1970 are industrial development bonds within the meaning of section 103(b)(2) and § 1.103-7. Since, however, the prior 1969 issue is not an issue to which section 103(b)(6)(A) applied (see paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section), the bonds issued in 1970 are an exempt small issue for the reasons stated in example (1).

Example 8.

County B enters into three separate arrangements with three unrelated corporations whereby the county will provide separate storage facilities for each corporation. The arrangement provides (1) that the county will issue bonds and loan to each corporation $250,000 of the proceeds which will be used to acquire land in the county and to construct the facilities, (2) that the rental payments by the corporations will be equal to the amount necessary to amortize the principal and pay the interest on any outstanding bonds issued by the county, and (3) that the payments by the corporations and the facilities themselves shall be the security for the industrial development bonds. For convenience, the county issues one series of bonds in the face amount of $750,000 rather than three separate series of bonds of $250,000 each. The issue is an exempt small issue under section 103(b)(6)(A) and paragraph (b)(1) of this section since the aggregate authorized face amount of the bond issue is $1 million or less, and all of the proceeds of the bond issue are to be used to acquire and improve land and acquire and construct depreciable property.

Example 9.

City C and corporation Y enter into an arrangement under which C will provide a factory which Y will lease for 25 years. The arrangement provides (1) that C will issue $4 million of bonds on March 1, 1969, after making the election under section 103(b)(6)(D) and paragraph (b)(2) of this section, (2) that the proceeds of the bond issue will be used to acquire land in the city and to construct and equip a factory on such land in accordance with Y's specifications, (3) that Y will rent the facilities for 25 years at an annual rental equal to the amount necessary to amortize the principal and pay the interest on the outstanding bonds, (4) that such payments by Y and the facility itself shall be the security for the bonds, and (5) that, if corporation Y pays or incurs capital expenditures in excess of $1 million within 3 years from the date of issue which disqualify the bonds as an exempt small issue under section 103(b)(6)(D), it will either furnish funds to C to redeem such bonds at par or at a premium, or increase the rental payments to C in an amount sufficient to pay a premium interest rate. Although the bonds issued are industrial development bonds, they are an exempt small issue under section 103(b)(6)(A) by reason of the election under section 103(b)(6)(D) and paragraph (b)(2) of this section, since the aggregate authorized face amount of the bond issue is $5 million or less and all of the proceeds of the bond issue are to be used to acquire and improve land and acquire and construct depreciable property. The provisions for redemption of the bonds or an increase in rental if the bonds are disqualified as an exempt small issue under section 103(b)(6)(A) will not disqualify an otherwise valid election under section 103(b)(6)(D) and paragraph (b)(2) of this section.

Example 10.

The facts are the same as in example (9) except that corporation Y subsequently proposed to the city that it build a $1 million warehouse next to the plant for the use of Y under terms similar to the factory arrangement. Assume further that the factory building was completed by March 1, 1970, and that on January 15, 1972, the proposed issue date of the subsequent bond issue, $2 million of the first exempt small issue will be outstanding. In determining the aggregate authorized face amount of the new issue, the original face amount of a prior outstanding issue must be reduced by that portion which is to be redeemed before it is added to the face amount of the new issue. Therefore, if the city issues $3 million of bonds to redeem the remaining $2 million of bonds and to construct the warehouse the bonds will be an exempt small issue under section 103(b)(6)(A) if an election is made under section 103(b)(6)(D) and paragraph (b)(2) of this section since (1) the face amount of the new issue ($3 million), plus (2) the face amount of the prior outstanding exempt small issue minus the amount of such issue to be refunded ($2 million minus $2 million), plus (3) capital expenditures during the preceding 3 years financed other than out of the proceeds of outstanding issues to which section 103(b)(6)(A) and paragraph (b) of this section applied ($2 million), do not exceed $5 million. If, however, the amount of the January 15, 1972, issue were $3 1/2 million, the issue would not qualify as an exempt small issue under section 103(b)(6)(A) and paragraph (b)(2) of this section.

Example 11.

The facts are the same as in example (9), except that on June 15, 1971, Y purchases from an unrelated motor carrier business a warehouse terminal in the same city at a cost of $250,000 and tractor-trailers and other automotive equipment based at the terminal at a cost of $1 million. This subsequent expenditure by Y has the effect of making the interest on the city C bonds includable in the gross income of the holders of such bonds as of June 15, 1971, because the face amount of the March 1, 1969, issue ($4 million) plus the subsequent capital expenditures within 3 years of the date of issue ($1,250,000) exceed $5 million. (See section 103(b)(6)(D) and paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.)

Example 12.

The facts are the same as in example (9), except that in March, 1970, Y will move $3 million of additional used machinery and equipment into the factory from its factory in another city. The expenditures for such machinery and equipment were incurred by Y more than 3 years prior to the date of issue of the bonds. The transfer of such used equipment into city C does not constitute a section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditure within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section since the expenditures with respect to such property were incurred more than 3 years prior to the date of issue of the bonds. Had the capital expenditures with respect to such property been incurred during the 6-year period beginning 3 years before the date of issue of the bonds and in the 3 years after such date, they would constitute section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditures.

Example 13.

The facts are the same as in example (9), except that in March 1970, corporation Y enters into an arrangement with respect to machinery and equipment to be used in the facility. The arrangement is labeled by the parties as a lease but is treated as a sale for Federal income tax purposes. The amount treated as the purchase price of the machinery and equipment is a section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditure.

Example 14.

On February 1, 1970, city D issues $5 million of its bonds to finance construction of an addition to the manufacturing plant of corporation Z. The bonds will be secured by the facility and lease payments to be made by Z which will be sufficient to pay the principal and interest on such bonds. Assume that the bonds qualify as an exempt small issue under section 103(b)(6)(A) pursuant to an election under section 103(b)(6)(D) and paragraph (b)(2) of this section. On February 1, 1971, D plans to issue $1 million of its bonds to construct a pollution control facility to be leased to Z for use at its manufacturing plant. The rental payments from the lease will be sufficient to pay the principal and interest on the bonds. The bonds will be secured by such facility and the lease payments. Capital expenditures for the pollution control facility will be paid or incurred beginning before February 1, 1973. Although the pollution control facility is an exempt facility under section 103(b)(4)(F) and paragraph (g) of § 1.103-8, amounts used for the pollution control facility shall be considered to be a section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditure and the interest on the February 1, 1970, issue will become taxable as of the date such capital expenditure began to be paid or incurred. See section 103(b)(6)(G) and paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.

Example 15.

On February 1, 1970, City E issues $500,000 of its bonds to acquire and develop an industrial park within the meaning of section 103(b)(5) and paragraph (b) of § 1.103-9. The park consists of 100 acres and is divided into one 50 acre plantsite and 4 smaller sites. The aggregate acquisition cost of the undeveloped land is $150,000 or an average per acre cost of $1,500. Roads, sidewalks, sewers, utilities, sewage, and waste disposal facilities serving the entire industrial park cost $300,000. On September 1, 1970, E leases to corporation Y for 30 years the 50 acre plantsite (with an allocated cost of $75,000) and a railroad spur track from the railroad right of way to Y's plantsite for Y's exclusive use. The spur track was constructed using $50,000 of the proceeds of the industrial park bond issue. E also proposes to issue on September 1, 1970, $4,875,000 of its bonds to construct and equip a building on the leased plantsite to be leased to Y at an additional rental sufficient to pay the principal and interest on this issue of bonds. The September 1, 1970, issue will be an exempt small issue under section 103(b)(6)(A) pursuant to an election under section 103(b)(6)(D) and paragraph (b)(2) of this section since the sum of the amount of the second issue ($4,875,000) and the capital expenditures allocated to the plantsite ($75,000 for 50 acres of land plus $50,000 for the railroad spur tract, totaling $125,000) does not exceed $5 million. The sum of $300,000 which was spent in development of the industrial park provided facilities which will serve or benefit the users generally and hence under paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section is not considered to have provided facilities as to which Y will be the principal user.

Example 16.

On June 1, 1970, corporation Z simultaneously enters into separate arrangements with City F and City G under which each city will issue a $5 million exempt small issue of bonds the proceeds of which will be used by Z to construct separate facilities in each city. By June 1, 1971, the facilities have been completed in the respective cities. On January 1, 1972, Cities F and G, through a valid legal proceeding, merge into a new City FG. Since in this case F and G were separate cities on June 1, 1970 (the date of the bond issues), the factories are not considered to be located in the same incorporated municipality. Accordingly, each $5 million issue by City F and G will continue to qualify as an exempt small issue.

Example 17.

On June 1, 1973, City H issues an exempt small issue of $4.75 million to finance a facility of corporation S to be located in City H. On October 1, 1974, S and corporation T, previously unrelated to S, consummated a statutory merger which qualifies as a reorganization described in section 368(a)(1)(A) and thus as a transaction described in section 381(a). In the transaction, T transferred to S assets with a fair market value of $1.5 million in exchange for stock of S, $300,000 of securities of S, and $100,000 cash. On March 23, 1971, T made $400,000 of capital expenditures for an addition to its factory located in City H. For purposes of testing the H issue of June 1, 1973, such expenditures would have been section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditures if T and S had been related persons. Under the provisions of paragraph (b)(2)(v)(a) of this section, the exchange of $1.5 million of stock, securities, and cash by S does not constitute a section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditure. Since, however, S and T are treated as related persons starting 3 years prior to the date of issue of the obligations, the $400,000 of expenditures by T constitute section 103(b)(6)(D) capital expenditures. Thus, the interest on the June 1, 1973, issue of obligations would become taxable (since the $5 million limit would be exceeded) on the date of the merger.

Example 18.

In 1965 City I issues $10 million of industrial development bonds to construct and equip a factory for corporation Z. In 1975 the remaining principal amount of the bonds outstanding is $4.1 million. If I issues $4.5 million of bonds to redeem the balance of the prior issue, and for other purposes, such issue cannot qualify as an exempt small issue under section 103(b)(6)(D) and paragraph (b)(2) of this section even though at the time of issue the interest on the 1965 bonds was tax-exempt since the prior issue must be one which qualified under section 103(b)(6)(A) and this section. Further, the 1975 issue will be an issue of industrial development bonds notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (d)(2) of § 1.103-7 which provides that certain bonds issued to refund an issue of obligations issued on or before April 30, 1968 (or January 1, 1969, in certain cases) will not be so treated. Paragraph (d)(2) of § 1.103-7 is not applicable because the 1975 issue makes funds available for a purpose other than the debt service obligation on the 1965 bonds.

Example 19.

In 1969 City J issues $4 million of industrial development bonds which qualify as an exempt small issue under section 103(b)(6)(A) pursuant to an election under section 103(b)(6)(D) and paragraph (b)(2) of this section. In 1971, by reason of a $2 million addition to the factory built with the proceeds of the issue, the 1969 exempt small issue loses its tax-exempt status. In 1972, the city issues a $5 million issue to redeem the prior 1969 issue. The redemption issue will not qualify as an exempt small issue since the prior 1969 issue did not continue to qualify under section 103(b)(6)(A) and this section.

[T.D. 7199, 37 FR 15494, Aug. 3, 1972; 37 FR 16177, Aug. 11, 1972; 37 FR 17826, Sept. 1, 1972, as amended by T.D. 7511, 42 FR 54285, Oct. 5, 1977; T.D. 7840, 47 FR 46084, Oct. 15, 1982; 51 FR 16299, May 2, 1986]

§ 1.103-11 Bonds held by substantial users.

(a) In general. Section 103(c) (4), (5), or (6) (relating respectively to interest on bonds to finance certain exempt facilities, interest on bonds to finance industrial parks, and the exemption for certain small issues of industrial development bonds) does not apply, as provided in section 103(c)(7), with respect to any obligation for any period during which such obligation is held either by a person who is a substantial user of the facilities with respect to which the proceeds of such obligation were used or by a related person (within the meaning of section 103(c)(6)(C) and paragraph (e) of § 1.103-10). Therefore, in such a case, interest paid on such an obligation is includable in the gross income of a substantial user (or related person) for any period during which such obligation is held by such user (or related person).

(b) Substantial user. In general, a substantial user of a facility includes any nonexempt person who regularly uses a part of such facility in his trade or business. However, unless a facility, or a part thereof, is constructed, reconstructed, or acquired specifically for a nonexempt person or persons, such a nonexempt person shall be considered to be a substantial user of a facility only if (1) the gross revenue derived by such user with respect to such facility is more than 5 percent of the total revenue derived by all users of such facility or (2) the amount of area of the facility occupied by such user is more than 5 percent of the entire usable area of the facility. Under certain facts and circumstances, where a nonexempt person has a contractual or preemptive right to the exclusive use of property or a portion of property, such person may be a substantial user of such property. A substantial user may also be a lessee or sublessee of all or any portion of the facility. A licensee or similar person may also be a substantial user where his use is regular and is not merely a casual, infrequent, or sporadic use of the facility. Absent special circumstances, individuals who are physically present on or in the facility as employees of a substantial user shall not be deemed to be substantial users.

(c) Examples. The application of section 103(c)(7) and this section are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

Pursuant to an arrangement with corporation X, County A issues $4 million of its bonds (an exempt small issue under section 103(c)(6)(A) pursuant to an election under section 103(c)(6)(D) and paragraph (b)(2) of § 1.103-10) and will use the proceeds to finance construction of a manufacturing facility which is to be leased to X for an annual rental of $500,000. X subleases space to a restaurant operator at an annual rental of $25,000 for the operation of a canteen and lunch counter for the convenience of X's employees. The canteen is required to be open at least 5 days each week (except holidays) from 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m., and the lunch counter must be in operation during the noon hour. The canteen regularly sells cigarettes, candy, and soft drinks, and uses advertising displays and dispensers with product names. The space physically occupied and the amount of revenue derived by the restaurant operator are more than 5 percent of the respective amounts with respect to the entire facility. Both X and the restaurant operator are substantial users. However, absent special circumstances none of X's employees, the employees of the restaurant operator, or the customers or salesmen who regularly visit the premises to do business either with X or the restaurant operator are substantial users. Similarly, the manufacturers, distributors, and dealers of products sold in the canteen ordinarily are not substantial users.

Example 2.

The facts are the same as in example (1) except that X rents food and beverage vending machines from a local dealer. The machines are regularly serviced by the local dealer under a contract with X. Title to and ownership of the machines are retained by the dealer. The local dealer is not deemed to be a substantial user if the revenue derived by such dealer from, and the space occupied by, such machines do not exceed 5 percent of the respective amounts with respect to the entire facility.

Example 3.

City B proposes to issue $2 million of bonds which qualify as an exempt small issue under section 103(c)(6)(A) pursuant to an election under section 103(c)(6)(D) and paragraph (b)(2) of § 1.103-10 in order to construct a medical building for certain physicians and dentists. The facility will contain 30 offices to be leased on equal terms and for the same rental rates to each physician or dentist for use in his trade or business. Each physician or dentist will be a substantial user of the facility since the facility is being constructed specifically for such physicians and dentists. The result would be the same in the case of an office building for general commercial use.

Example 4.

City C proposes to expand the airport it owns and operates with the proceeds of its bonds which qualify as bonds issued for an exempt facility under section 103(c)(4)(D) and paragraph (e) of § 1.103-8 and which are secured by a pledge of airport revenues. The airport is serviced by several commercial airlines which have long-term agreements with C for the use of runways, terminal space, and hangar and storage facilities. Each of the airlines either occupies more than 5 percent of the usable space of, or derives more than 5 percent of the revenue derived with respect to, the airport. C also leases counter and vehicle servicing and parking areas to car rental companies, space for restaurants, kiosks for the sale of newspapers and magazines, and space for the operations of a charter plane company. The latter operates its own planes, offers flying lessons and services, and stores private planes for local businesses and individuals. An airport limousine company has an exclusive franchise for passenger pickup at the terminal. Other taxi, transfer, freight, and express companies regularly deliver passengers and freight to the terminal but do not have space regularly assigned to them, nor do they have operating agreements with C. Various business concerns have advertising product displays in the terminal building. In addition to regular telephone service, coin-operated telephones, provided by the telephone company, are located throughout the terminal, at locations specified by C. None of the above exceed the 5-percent limitations of paragraph (b) of this section and the bond proceeds will not be specifically used for any of them. Only the commercial airlines, which violate the 5-percent limitations, are substantial users of the airport.

Example 5.

City D issues $25 million of its revenue bonds and will use $10 million of the proceeds to finance construction of a sports facility which qualifies as an exempt facility under section 103(c)(4)(B) and paragraph (c) of § 1.103-8, $8 million to acquire and develop land as the site for an industrial park within the meaning of section 103(c)(5) and § 1.103-9, and $7 million to finance the construction of an office building to be used exclusively by the city, an exempt person. The revenues from the sports facility and the industrial park and all the facilities themselves will be the security for the bonds. The sports facility and the industrial park sites will be used in the trades of businesses of nonexempt persons. The bonds are industrial development bonds, but under the provisions of paragraph (a)(1) of § 1.103-8 and paragraph (a) of § 1.103-9, the interest on the $25 million issue will not be includable in gross income. However, the interest on bonds held shall be includable in the gross income of a substantial user of either the sports facility or the industrial park if such substantial user holds any of the obligations of the $25 million issue. The 5-percent limitations of paragraph (b) of this section are applied separately with respect to each facility.

Example 6.

Authority E issues $4 million of bonds which qualify as an exempt small issue under section 103(c)(6)(A) pursuant to an election under section 103(c)(6)(D) and paragraph (b)(2) of § 1.103-10 in order to construct a bank building on the grounds of an airport. In addition, E issues $40 million to expand the airport. The bank will not derive revenue in excess of 5 percent of the revenue derived with respect to the airport nor will it occupy more than 5 percent of the usable area of such airport. The bank will be a substantial user of the bank building constructed with the proceeds of the $4 million issue since the facility was constructed specifically for the bank. However, the bank will not be a substantial user with respect to the airport because it does not exceed the 5-percent limitations of paragraph (b) of this section. Had E issued one issue of $44 million in order to expand the airport and construct a bank building, the bank would be a substantial user of the entire facility since the $44 million issue was being used to construct a facility a portion of which was specifically for the bank.

[T.D. 7199, 37 FR 15499, Aug. 3, 1972; 37 FR 16177, Aug. 11, 1972]

§ 1.103-16 Obligations of certain volunteer fire departments.

(a) General rule. An obligation of a volunteer fire department issued after December 31, 1980, shall be treated as an obligation of a political subdivision of a State for purposes of section 103(a)(1) if—

(1) The volunteer fire department is a qualified volunteer fire department within the meaning of paragraph (b) of this section, and

(2) Substantially all of the proceeds of the issue of which the obligation is a part are to be used for the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, or improvement of a fire house or fire truck used or to be used by the qualified volunteer fire department.

An obligation of a volunteer fire department shall not be treated as an obligation of a political subdivision of a State for purposes of section 103(a)(1) unless both conditions set forth in this paragraph (a) are satisfied. Thus, for example, if an obligation is issued by an ambulance and rescue squad that is a qualified volunteer fire department as required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section, but substantially all of the proceeds of the issue of which the obligation is a part are to be used for the furnishing of emergency medical services, rather than for the purposes specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the obligation shall not be treated as an obligation of a political subdivision of a State for purposes of section 103(a)(1).

(b) Definition of qualified volunteer fire department. For purposes of this section, the term “qualified volunteer fire department” means an organization—

(1) That is organized and operated to provide firefighting services or emergency medical services in an area within the jurisdiction of a political subdivision, and

(2) That is required to furnish firefighting services by written agreement with the political subdivision, and

(3) That serves persons in an area within the jurisdiction of the political subdivision that is not provided with any other firefighting services.

The requirement of paragraph (b)(2) of this section that a qualified volunteer fire department be required to furnish firefighting services by written agreement with the political subdivision may be satisfied by an ordinance or statute of the political subdivision that establishes, regulates, or funds the volunteer fire department. A volunteer fire department does not fail to satisfy the requirement of pargraph (b)(3) of this section by furnishing or receiving firefighting services on an emergency basis, or by cooperative agreement with other fire departments, to or from areas outside of the area that the volunteer fire department is organized and operated to serve. The fact that tax revenues of a political subdivision served by a volunteer fire department contribute toward the support of the volunteer fire department in the form of salary, purchase of equipment, or other defrayment of expenses will not prevent the volunteer fire department from being a “qualified volunteer fire department” within the meaning of this paragraph (b). Moreover, an obligation of a volunteer fire department receiving such support may qualify as an obligation of a political subdivision within the meaning of section 103(a)(1) independently of section 103(i) and this section if the requirements of section 103(a)(1) are satisfied. See § 1.103-1(b) for rules relating to qualification under section 103(a)(1).

(c) “Substantially all” test. Substantially all of the proceeds of an issue are used for the purposes specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section if 90 percent or more of the proceeds are so used. Thus, for example, if more than 10 percent of the proceeds of an obligation issued by a qualified volunteer fire department are used for the purchase of an ambulance or for rescue equipment not to be used in providing fire fighting services, interest on the obligation is not exempt from tax under section 103(i) and this section. In computing this percentage—

(1) Costs are allocated between providing a firehouse or firetruck and other uses of the proceeds on a pro rata basis; and

(2) The rules set forth in § 1.103-8(a)(1)(i), relating to amounts allocable to exempt and nonexempt uses and amounts chargeable to capital account, apply.

(d) Refunding issues. An obligation which is part of an issue issued by a qualified volunteer fire department after December 31, 1980, part or all of the proceeds of which issue are used directly or indirectly to pay principal, interest, call premium, or reasonable incidental costs of refunding a prior issue qualifies as an obligation of a political subdivision under section 103(i) and this section only if—

(1) The prior issue was issued by a qualified volunteer fire department;

(2) Substantially all of the proceeds of the prior issue were used for the purposes described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section;

(3) The prior issue was issued after December 31, 1980; and

(4) The refunding issue is issued not more than 180 days before the date on which the last obligation of the prior issue is discharged (within the meaning of § 1.103-13)(b)(11)).

(e) Examples. The provisions of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

The County M Volunteer Fire and Rescue Association provides firefighting, ambulance, and emergency medical services in County M. The board of county commissioners of County M contracts with the County M Volunteer Fire and Rescue Association for these services, and County M is not served by any other firefighting association. On August 1, 1981, the Association issues an obligation for funds to purchase a new fire truck, a new ambulance, and rescue equipment not to be used for fighting fires. Funds to be used for the purchase of the ambulance and rescue equipment constitute more than 10 percent of the proceeds of the obligation. Thus, substantially all of the proceeds of the obligations are not used for one of the purposes described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Although the County M Volunteer Fire and Rescue Association is a qualified volunteer fire department under paragraph (b) of this section because it provides firefighting and emergency medical services in an area within County M which is not provided with any other firefighting services and is required to provide these services by written agreement with County M, the August 1, 1981, obligation of County M Volunteer Fire and Rescue Association will not be treated as an obligation of a political subdivision of a State under section 103(i) and paragraph (a) of this section because substantially all of the proceeds of the obligation are not to be used for a purpose described in section 103(i)(l)(B) and paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Accordingly, interest on the August 1, 1981, obligation of County M Volunteer Fire and Rescue Association is not exempt from gross income under section 103(a)(1).

Example 2.

County N Volunteer Fire Department provides firefighting services in County N by contract with the county, which is not served by any other firefighting association. On June 15, 1982, County N Volunteer Fire Department issues its obligation for funds to construct an addition to its firehouse to house a rescue squad, the rescue squad's vehicle, and rescue equipment not to be used in firefighting. Although the County N Volunteer Fire Department is a qualified volunteer fire department under paragraph (b) of this section, interest on its June 15, 1982, obligation will not be exempt from tax under section 103(i) and this section because the proceeds of this obligation will not be used for the purposes described in paragraph (a) of this section.

Example 3.

The County O Volunteer Fire and Rescue Association provides firefighting, ambulance, and emergency medical services in County O. The board of county commissioners of County O contracts with the County O Volunteer Fire and Rescue Association for these services, and County O is not served by any other firefighting association. On September 1, 1983, the Association issues its obligations for funds to construct a new building to house its firefighting, ambulance, and rescue functions. Although the ambulance and rescue equipment will occupy space in the projected facility, the cost allocable on a pro rata basis to providing housing for the ambulance and rescue equipment represents less than 10 percent of the proceeds of the obligations. Thus, substantially all of the proceeds of the obligations are used for one of the purposes described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The County O Volunteer Fire and Rescue Association is a qualified volunteer fire department under paragraph (b) of this section because it provides firefighting and emergency medical services in an area within County O which is not provided with any other firefighting services and is required to provide these services by written agreement with County O. The obligations of County O Volunteer Fire and Rescue Association will be treated as obligations of a political subdivision of a State under section 103(i) and paragraph (a) of this section because the obligations are those of a qualified volunteer fire department and because substantially all of the proceeds of the obligations are to be used for a purpose described in section 103(i)(1)(B) and paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Accordingly, interest on the September 1, 1983, issue of obligations of County O Volunteer Fire and Rescue Association is exempt from gross income under section 103(a)(1).

[T.D. 7901, 48 FR 32981, July 20, 1983]

§ 1.103A-2 Qualified mortgage bond.

(a)-(j) [Reserved]

(k) Information reporting requirement—(1) In general. An issue meets the requirements of this paragraph only if the issuer in good faith attempted to meet the information reporting requirements of this paragraph. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (k)(5)(iv) of this section, the requirements of this paragraph apply to qualified veterans' mortgage bonds issued after July 18, 1984, and to qualified mortgage bonds issued after December 31, 1984. With respect to bonds issued after December 31, 1986, see the regulations under section 149(e).

(2) Information required. (i) The issuer must, based on information and reasonable expectations determined as of the date of issue, submit on Form 8038 the information required therein; the issuer need not however, include the information required by Form 8038 that is relevant only to obligations described in section 103(l)(1) and the regulations thereunder. The information that must be submitted includes—

(A) The name, address, and employer identification number of the issuer,

(B) The date of issue,

(C) The face amount of each obligation which is part of the issue,

(D) The total purchase price of the issue,

(E) The amount allocated to a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund,

(F) The amount of lendable proceeds,

(G) The stated interest rate of each maturity,

(H) The term of each maturity,

(I) In the case of an issue of qualified mortgage bonds, whether the issuer has elected under § 6a.103A-2(i)(4)(v) to pay arbitrage to the United States,

(J) In the case of an issue of qualified mortgage bonds, the issuer's market limitation as of the date of issue (as defined in § 6a.103A-2(g)), the amount of qualified mortgage bonds that the issuer has elected not to issue under section 25(c)(2) and the regulations thereunder, and the aggregate amount of qualified mortgage bonds issued to date by the issuer during the calendar year, and

(K) In the case of an issue of qualified veterans' mortgage bonds, the issuer's State veterans limit (as defined in section 103A(o)(3)(B) and the regulations thereunder) and the aggregate amount of qualified veterans' mortgage bonds issued to date by the issuer during the calendar year and prior to the date of issue of the issue for which the Form 8038 is being submitted.

(ii) With respect to issues issued after December 31, 1984, the issuer must submit a report containing information on the borrowers of the original proceeds of such issues. The report must be filed for each reporting period in which the original proceeds of any of such issues are used to provide mortgages. The issuer is not responsible for false information provided by a borrower if the issuer did not know or have reason to know that the information was false. The report must be filed on the form prescribed by the Internal Revenue Service. If no form is prescribed, or if the form prescribed is not readily available, the issuer may use its own form provided that such form is in the format set forth in paragraph (k)(3) of this section and contains the information required by this paragraph (k)(2)(ii). The report must be titled “Qualified Mortgage Bond Information Report” or “Qualified Veterans' Mortgage Bond Information Report”, and must include the name, address, and TIN of the issuer, the reporting period for which the information is provided, and the following tables containing information concerning the borrowers of the original proceeds of the issues subject to the requirements of this paragraph (k)(2)(ii) with respect to mortgages provided during the reporting period for which the report is filed:

(A) A table titled “Number of Mortgage Loans by Income and Acquisition Cost” showing the number of mortgage loans (other than those issued in connection with qualified home improvement and rehabilitation loans) made during the reporting period according to the annualized gross income of the borrowers (categorized in the following intervals of income:

$0-$9,999

$10,000-$19,999

$20,000-$29,999

$30,000-$39,999

$40,000-$49,999

$50,000-$74,999

$75,000 or more)

and according to the acquisition cost of each residence being financed (categorized in the following intervals of acquisition cost:

$0-$19,999

$20,000-$39,999

$40,000-$59,999

$60,000-$79,999

$80,000-$99,999

$100,000-$119,999

$120,000-$149,999

$150,000-$199,999

$200,000 or more)

For each interval of income and acquisition cost the table must also be categorized according to the number of borrowers that—

(1) Did not have a present ownership interest in a principal residence at any time during the 3-year period ending on the date the mortgage is executed (i.e., satisfied the 3-year requirement) and purchased residences in targeted areas,

(2) Satisfied the 3-year requirement and purchased residences not located in targeted areas,

(3) Did have a present ownership interest in a principal residence at any time during the 3-year period ending on the date the mortgage is executed (i.e., did not satisfy the 3-year requirement) and purchased residences in targeted areas, and

(4) Did not satisfy the 3-year requirement and purchased residences not located in targeted areas.

With respect to issues of qualified veterans' mortgage bonds, for each interval of income and acquisition cost the table need only be categorized according to the number of borrowers that satisfied the 3-year requirement and the number of borrowers that failed to satisfy the 3-year requirement.

(B) A table titled “Volume of Mortgage Loans by Income and Acquisition Cost” showing the total principal amount of the mortgage loans (other than qualified home improvement and rehabilitation loans) provided during the reporting period according to annualized gross income (categorized in the same intervals of income as the preceding table) and according to the acquisition cost of the residences acquired (categorized in the same acquisition cost intervals as the preceding table). For each interval of income and acquisition cost the table must also be categorized according to the total principal amount of the mortgage loans of borrowers that—

(1) Satisfied the 3-year requirement and purchased residences in targeted areas,

(2) Satisfied the 3-year requirement and purchased residences not located in targeted areas,

(3) Did not satisfy the 3-year requirement and purchased residences in targeted areas, and

(4) Did not satisfy the 3-year requirement and purchased residences not located in targeted areas.

With respect to issues of qualified verterans' mortgage bonds, for each interval of income and acquisition cost the table need only be categorized according to the total principal amount of the mortgage loans of borrowers that satisified the 3-year requirement and the total principal amount of the mortgage loans of borrowers that did not satisfy the 3-year requirement.

(C) For issues other than qualified veterans' mortgage bonds, a table titled “Mortgage Subsidy Bonds for Qualified Home Improvement and Rehabilitation Loans” showing the number of borrowers obtaining qualified home improvement loans and qualified rehabilitation loans and the total of the principal amounts of such loans; the information contained in the table must also be categorized according to whether the residences with respect to which the loans were provided are located in targeted areas.

(3) Format. (i) With respect to the report required by paragraph (k)(2)(ii) of this section, if no form is prescribed by the Internal Revenue Service, or if the prescribed form is not readily available, the issuer must submit the report in the format specified in this paragraph (k)(3).

(ii) With respect to issues of qualified mortgage bonds, the format of the report specified in this paragraph (k)(3) is the following:

Qualified Mortgage Bond Information Report

Name of issuer:

Address of issuer:

TIN of issuer:

Reporting period:

Number of Mortgage Loans by Income and Acquisition Cost

3-year requirement: Annualized gross monthly income of borrowers Satisfied Not Satisfied Totals
Nontargeted area Targeted area Nontargeted area Targeted area
$0 to $9,999
$10,000 to $19,999
$20,000 to $29,999
$30,000 to $39,999
$40,000 to $49,999
$50,000 to $74,999
$75,000 or more
Total
Acquisition Cost
$0 to $19,999
$20,000 to $39,999
$40,000 to $59,999
$60,000 to $79,999
$80,000 to $99,999
$100,000 to $119,999
$120,000 to $149,999
$150,000 to $199,999
$200,000 or more
Total

Volume of Mortgage Loans by Income and Acquisition Cost

3-year requirement: Annualized gross monthly income of borrowers Satisfied Not Satisfied Totals
Nontargeted area Targeted area Nontargeted area Targeted area
$0 to $9,999
$10,000 to $19,999
$20,000 to $29,999
$30,000 to $39,999
$40,000 to $49,999
$50,000 to $74,999
$75,000 or more
Total
Acquisition Cost
$0 to $19,999
$20,000 to $39,999
$40,000 to $59,999
$60,000 to $79,999
$80,000 to $99,999
$100,000 to $119,999
$120,000 to $149,999
$150,000 to $199,999
$200,000 or more
Total

Mortgage Subsidy Bonds for Qualified Home Improvement and Rehabilitation Loans

Nontargeted area Targeted area Totals
Number of qualified home improvement loans
Volume of qualified home improvement loans
Number of qualified rehabilitation loans
Volume of qualified rehabilitation loans

(iii) The format of the report specified in this paragraph (k)(3) for qualified veterans' mortgage bonds is the following:

Qualified Veterans' Mortgage Bond Information Report

Name of issuer:

Address of issuer:

TIN of issuer:

Reporting period:

Number of Mortgage Loans by Income and Acquisition Cost

3-year requirement: annualized gross monthly income of borrowers Satisfied Not satisfied Totals
$0 to $9,999
$10,000 to $19,999
$20,000 to $29,999
$30,000 to $39,999
$40,000 to $49,999
$50,000 to $74,999
$75,000 or more
Total
Acquistion Cost
$0 to $19,999
$20,000 to $39,999
$40,000 to $59,999
$60,000 to $79,999
$80,000 to $99,999
$100,000 to $119,999
$120,000 to $149,999
$150,000 to $199,999
$200,000 or more
Total

Number of Mortgage Loans by Income and Acquisition Cost

3-year requirement: annualized gross monthly income of borrowers Satisfied Not satisfied Totals
$0 to $9,999
$10,000 to $19,999
$20,000 to $29,999
$30,000 to $39,999
$40,000 to $49,999
$50,000 to $74,999
$75,000 or more
Total
Acquistion Cost
$0 to $19,999
$20,000 to $39,999
$40,000 to $59,999
$60,000 to $79,999
$80,000 to $99,999
$100,000 to $119,999
$120,000 to $149,999
$150,000 to $199,999
$200,000 or more
Total

(4) Definitions and special rules. (i) For purposes of this paragraph the term “annualized gross income” means the borrower's gross monthly income muliplied by 12. Gross monthly income is the sum of monthly gross pay, any additional income from investments, pensions, Veterans Administration (VA) compensation, part-time employment, bonuses, dividends, interest, current overtime pay, net rental income, etc., and other income (such as alimony and child support, if the borrower has chosen to disclose such income). Information with respect to gross monthly income may be obtained from available loan documents, e.g., the sum of lines 23D and 23E on the Application for VA or FmHA Home Loan Guaranty or for HUD/FHA Insured Mortgage (VA Form 26-1802a, HUD 92900, Jan. 1982), or the total line from the Gross Monthly Income section of FHLMC Residential Loan Application form (FHLMC 65 Rev. 8/78). With respect to obligations issued prior to October 1, 1985, issuers may submit data based on annualized gross income or, instead, based on the adjusted income (as defined in § 1.167(k)-3(b)(3)) of the mortgagor's family for the previous calendar year. If data is submitted based on adjusted income, the issuer must note this fact in the report.

(ii) For purposes of this paragraph, the term “reporting period” means the following periods:

(A) The period beginning January 1, 1985, and ending on September 30, 1985,

(B) The period beginning on October 1, 1985, and ending on June 30, 1986, and

(C) After June 30, 1986, each 1-year period beginning July 1 and ending June 30.

(iii) See the regulations under section 103(l) for the definitions of the terms “date of issue”, “maturity”, and “term of issue”.

(iv) For purposes of this paragraph, verification of information concernig a borrower's gross monthly income with other available information concerning the borrower's income (e.g., Federal income tax returns) is not required. In determining whether a borrower acquiring a residence in a targeted area satisfies the 3-year requirement, the issuer may rely on a statement signed by the borrower.

(5) Time for filing. (i) The report required by paragraph (k)(2)(i) of this section shall be filed not later than the 15th day of the second calendar month after the close of the calendar quarter in which the obligation is issued. The statement may be filed at any time before such date but must be complete based on facts and reasonable expectations as of the date of issue. The statement need not be amended to report information learned subsequent to the date of issue or to reflect changed circumstances with respect to the issuer.

(ii) The report required by paragraph (k)(2)(ii) of this section (relating to use of proceeds) shall be filed not later than the 15th day of the second calendar month after the close of the reporting period, except that the report for the reporting period ending September 30, 1985, is due not later than February 15, 1986. The report may be filed at any time before such date but must be complete based on facts and reasonable expectations as of the date the report is filed. The report need not be amended to reflect information learned subsequent to the date the report is filed or to reflect changed circumstances with respect to any borrower.

(iii) The Commissioner may grant an extension of time for the filing of a report required by paragraph (k)(2) (i) or (ii) of this section if there is reasonable cause for the failure to file such report in a timely fashion.

(iv) An issue of qualified veterans' mortgage bonds issued after July 18, 1984, and prior to January 1, 1985, will be treated as satisfying the information reporting requirement of this paragraph if a Form 8038 with respect to the issue is properly filed not later than February 15, 1985; the report described in paragraph (k)(2)(ii) of this section need not be filed with respect to such issues.

(6) Place for filing. The reports required by paragraph (k)(2) (i) and (ii) of this section are to be filed at the Internal Revenue Service Center, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 19255.

(l) Policy statement—(1) In general. (i) For obligations issued after December 31, 1984, an issue meets the requirements of this paragraph only if the applicable elected representative of the governmental unit which is the issuer (or on behalf of which the issuing authority is empowered to issue qualified mortgage bonds) has published (after a public hearing following reasonable public notice) the report described in paragraph (l)(3) of this section by the last day of the year preceding the year in which such issue is issued and a copy of such report has been submitted to the Commissioner on or before such last day. The Commissioner may grant an extension of time for publishing and filing the report if there is reasonable cause for the failure to publish or file such report in a timely fashion. The requirements of this paragraph will be treated as met if the issuer in good faith attempted to meet the policy statement requirements of this paragraph.

(ii) With respect to reports required by paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section to be published and submitted to the Commissioner not later than December 31, 1984, the Commissioner has determined that there is reasonable cause for the failure to publish or file such reports in a timely fashion; such a report will be considered published and filed in a timely fashion if, not later than March 11, 1985, the report is published (after a public hearing following reasonable public notice) and a copy is submitted to the Commissioner. In addition, any report submitted not later than December 31, 1984, with respect to which an issuer in good faith attempted to satisfy the requirements of section 103A(j)(5) shall be treated as substantially satisfying the requirements of this paragraph. For example, with respect to a report submitted not later than December 31, 1984, an issuer shall not be treated as failing to satisfy the requirements of section 103A(j)(5) based on the fact that (A) the notice of public hearing failed to state the manner in which affected residents may obtain copies of the proposed report prior to the hearing, or (B) the proposed report was not available prior to or at the public hearing. With respect to reports required to be published and submitted to the Commissioner not later than December 31, 1986, the Commissioner has determined that there is a reasonable cause for the failure to publish and file such reports in a timely fashion; such reports will be considered published and filed in a timely fashion if, not later than December 31, 1987, the report is published (after having a public hearing following reasonable public notice) and a copy is submitted to the Commissioner.

(2) Definitions and special rules. (i) In the case of an issuer that issues qualified mortgage bonds on behalf of one or more governmental units, a single report may be filed provided that such report is signed (A) by the applicable elected representative of each governmental unit on whose behalf obligations have been issued during any preceding calendar year or (B) by the Governor of the State in which the issuer is located.

(ii) See notice 103(k)(2)(E) and the regulations thereunder for the definition of the term “applicable elected representative”.

(iii) In the case of qualified mortgage bonds issued by, or on behalf of, a governmental unit that did not reasonably expect during the preceding calendar year to issue (or have issued on its behalf by any other issuer) qualified mortgage bonds during the current calendar year, the requirements of this paragraph will be treated as met if the applicable governmental unit which is the issuer (or on behalf of which the issuing authority is empowered to issue qualified mortgage bonds) has published (after a public hearing following reasonable public notice) the report described in paragraph (l)(3) of this section prior to the issuance of any qualified mortgage bonds and a copy of such report has been submitted to the Commissioner prior to such issuance.

(iv) For purposes of this paragraph a report will be considered to be “published” when the applicable elected representative of the governmental unit has made copies of the report available for distribution to the public. Reasonable public notice of the manner in which copies of the report may be obtained must be provided; such notice may be included as part of the public notice required by paragraph (l)(4) of this section.

(3) Report. (i) A report is described in this paragraph (l)(3) if it contains the issuer's name, TIN, and the title “Policy Report Under Section 103A” stated on the cover page of the report and if it includes—

(A) A statement of the policies of the issuer with respect to housing, development, and low-income housing assistance which such issuer is to follow in issuing qualified mortgage bonds and mortgage credit certificates, and

(B) An assessment of the compliance of such issuer during the 1-year period preceding the date of the report with—

(1) The statement of policy on qualified mortgage bonds and mortgage credit certificates that was set forth in the previous report, if any, of the issuer, and

(2) The intent of Congress that State and local governments are expected to use their authority to issue qualified mortgage bonds and mortgage credit certificates to the greatest extent feasible (taking into account prevailing interest rates and conditions in the housing market) to assist lower income families to afford home ownership before assisting higher income families.

(ii) For example, a report described in this paragraph (l)(3) may (but is not required to) contain—

(A) A specific statement of the policies with respect to housing, development, and low-income housing assistance which the issuer is to follow in issuing qualified mortgage bonds and mortgage credit certificates, including, for example, a statement as to—

(1) With respect to housing policies, (i) whether the proceeds will be used to provide financing for the acquisition of residences, to provide qualified home improvement loans, or to provide qualified rehabilitation loans; (ii) whether all or a portion of the proceeds will be targeted to new, existing, or any other particular class or type of housing; (iii) how the existence of a need or absence of a need for such targeting has been determined; (iv) the method by which the proceeds will be targeted; (v) any other pertinent information relating to the issuer's housing policies; and (vi) how the housing policies relate to the issuer's development and low-income housing assistance policies;

(2) With respect to development policies, (i) whether all or a portion of the proceeds will be targeted to specific areas (including targeted areas as described in § 6a.103A-2(b)(3)); (ii) a description of the areas to which the proceeds will be targeted; (iii) the reasons for selecting such areas; (iv) whether proceeds targeted to each area are to be used to finance redevelopment of existing housing or new construction; (v) any other pertinent information relating to the issuer's development policies; and (vi) how the development policies relate to the issuer's low-income housing assistance policies; and

(3) With respect to low-income housing assistance policies, (i) whether all or a portion of the proceeds will be targeted to low-income (i.e., 80 percent of median income), moderate-income (i.e., 100 percent of median income), or any other class of borrowers; (ii) the method by which the proceeds will be targeted to such borrowers; and (iii) any other pertinent information relating to the issuer's low-income housing assistance policies;

(B) An assessment of the compliance of the governmental unit or issuing authority during the twelve-month period ending with the date of the report with the statement of housing, development, and low-income housing assistance policies with respect to qualified mortgage bonds and mortgage credit certificates that were set forth in the report, if any, published in the preceding year with respect to such governmental unit, including, for example, a statement as to whether the governmental unit or issuing authority successfully implemented its policies and, if not, an analysis of the reasons for such failure; and

(C) An assessment of the compliance of the governmental unit or issuing authority during the twelve-month period ending with the date of the report with the intent of Congress that State and local governments are expected to use their authority to issue qualified mortgage bonds and mortgage credit certificates to the greatest extent feasible (taking into account prevailing interest rates and conditions in the housing market) to assist lower income families to afford home ownership before assisting higher income families, including, for example, a description of (1) the method used by the governmental unit or issuing authority to distribute proceeds, (2) whether and how that method enabled the governmental unit or issuing authority to assist lower income families before higher income families, and (3) any income levels that have been defined and used by the governmental unit or issuing authority in connection with distribution of the proceeds (no specific definition of lower income and higher income is imposed on governmental units or issuing authorities).

(iii) For purposes of the assessments of compliance required by paragraph (l)(3)(i)(B) of this section to be included in the report, the “date of the report” means June 30. For purposes of the report required to be filed prior to January 1, 1986, an issuer need not perform these assessments of compliance with respect to any period prior to January 1, 1985.

(iv) An issuer that fails to establish policies with respect to the criteria provided in paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section will not be treated as failing to satisfy the requirements of this paragraph. Thus, for example, an issuer may state in its report that none of the proceeds of the issue will be targeted to specific areas. Similarly, an issuer that fails to successfully implement its policies will not be treated as failing to satisfy the requirements of this paragraph.

(4) Public hearing. The public hearing required by paragraph (l)(1) of this section means a forum providing a reasonable opportunity for interested individuals to express their views, both orally and in writing, on the report that the applicable representative proposes to publish to satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (l). A public hearing held prior to January 1, 1985, will not fail to satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (l)(4) merely because the proposed policy statement was not available prior to the public hearing. In general, a governmental unit may select its own procedure for the hearing, provided that interested individuals have a reasonable opportunity to express their views. Thus, it may impose reasonable requirements on persons who wish to participate in the hearing, such as a requirement that persons desiring to speak at the hearing so request in writing at least 24 hours before the hearing or that they limit their oral remarks to 10 minutes. For purposes of this public hearing requirement, it is not necessary that the applicable elected representative who will publish the report be present at the hearing, that a report on the hearing be submitted to that official, or that State administrative procedural requirements for public hearings in general be observed. However, compliance with such State procedural requirements (except those at variance with a specific requirement set forth in this paragraph) will generally assure that the hearing satisfies the requirements of this paragraph. The hearing may be conducted by any individual appointed or employed to perform such function by the governmental unit, its agencies, or by the issuer. Thus, for example, for a report to be issued by an issuing authority that acts on behalf of a county, the hearing may be conducted by the issuing authority, the county, or an appointee or employee of either.

(5) Reasonable public notice. (i) The reasonable public notice required by paragraph (l)(1) of this section means published notice which is reasonably designed to inform residents of the geographical area within the jurisdiction of the governmental unit that will publish the report. The notice must state the time and place for the hearing and contain the information required by paragraph (l)(5)(ii) of this section. Notice is presumed reasonable if published no fewer than 14 days before the hearing. Notice is presumed reasonably designed to inform affected residents only if published in one or more newspapers of general circulation available to residents of that locality or if announced by radio or televison broadcast to those residents.

(ii) The notice of hearing described in this paragraph (l)(5) must state—

(A) The time and place for the hearing,

(B) Any applicable limitations regarding participation in the hearing,

(C) With respect to any notice of hearing published after December 31, 1984, the manner in which affected residents may obtain copies of the proposed report prior to the hearing, and

(D) With respect to any notice of hearing published after December 31, 1984, that the hearing will involve the issuer's policies with respect to housing, development, and low-income housing assistance which the issuer is to follow in issuing qualified mortgage bonds and mortgage credit certificates.

(6) Procedure for public hearings of multiple jurisdiction issuers. In the case of an issuer that issues qualified mortgage bonds on behalf of two or more governmental units (“multiple jurisdiction issuer”), each governmental unit on whose behalf the issuer reasonably expects to issue qualified mortgage bonds during the succeeding calendar year must hold a public hearing following reasonable public notice prior to the publication of the report required by this paragraph. A multiple jurisdiction issuer may hold a combined hearing as long as the combined hearing is a joint undertaking that provides all residents of the participating governmental units (i.e., each governmental unit on whose behalf qualified mortgage bonds were issued by the authority and each governmental unit on whose behalf the authority reasonably expects to issue qualified mortgage bonds during the succeeding calendar year) a reasonable opportunity to be heard. The location of any combined hearing is presumed to provide a reasonable opportunity for all affected residents to be heard if it is no farther than 100 miles from the seat of government of each participating governmental unit beyond whose geographic jurisdiction the hearing is conducted.

(7) Place for filing. The report is to be filed with the Internal Revenue Service Center, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 19255.

(m) State certification requirements—(1) In general. An issue meets the requirements of this paragraph only if the issuer in good faith attempted to meet the State certification requirements of this paragraph. The requirements of this paragraph apply to obligations issued after December 31, 1984; see section 149(e) and the regulations thereunder with respect to obligations issued after December 31, 1986.

(2) Certification. (i) An issue satisfied the requirements of section 103A(j)(4) and this paragraph (m)(2) only if the State official designated by law (or, if there is no State official, the Governor) certifies on or before the later of the date of issue or October 3, 1985, following a request for such certification by the issuer, that, as of the date the certification is executed, the issue meets the requirements of section 103A(g) and the regulations thereunder (relating to volume limitation). In the case of any constitutional home rule city, the certification shall be made by the chief executive officer of the city. To the extent consistent with State and local law, the Governor (or the chief executive officer of any constitutional home rule city) may delegate the responsibility to execute the certification required by this paragraph.

(ii) The certifying official need not perform an independent investigation in order to determine whether the issue meets the requirements of section 103A(g). In determining the aggregate amount of qualified mortgage bonds previously issued by an issuer during a calendar year, the certifying official may rely on copies of the reports submitted, to date, by the issuer pursuant to section 103A(j)(3) for other issues of qualified mortgage bonds issued during that year and copies of any elections previously made pursuant to section 25(c)(2) not to issue qualified mortgage bonds, together with an affidavit executed by an officer of the issuer responsible for issuing the bonds stating that the issuer has not, to date during the calendar year, issued any other qualified mortgage bonds, the amount, if any, of the issuer's market limitation that it has, to date during the calendar year, surrendered to other issuing authorities, and that it has not, to date during the calendar year, made any other elections not to issue qualified mortgage bonds. If, based on such information, the certifying official determines that, as of the date the certification is executed, the issue will not exceed the issuer's market limitation for the year, the official may certify that the issue meets the requirements of section 103A(g).

(3) Special rule. If 15 days elapse after the issuer files a proper request for the certification described in paragraph (m)(2) of this section and the issuer has not received from the State official designated by law (or, if there is no State official, the Governor) certification that the issue meets the requirements of section 103A(g) and § 6a.103A-2(g) or, in the alternative, a statement that the issue does not meet such requirements, the issuer may, instead, submit an affidavit executed by an officer of the issuer responsible for issuing the bonds stating that—

(i) The issue meets the requirements of section 103(A)(g) and § 6a.103A-2(g),

(ii) At least 15 days before the execution of the affidavit the issuer filed a proper request for the certification described in paragraph (m)(2) of this section, and

(iii) The State official designated by law (or, if there is no State official, the Governor) has not provided the certification described in paragraph (m)(2) of this section.

In the case of obligations issued prior to October 4, 1985 the preceding sentence shall be applied by substituting “30 days” for “15 days”. For purposes of this paragraph, a request for certification is proper if the request includes the reports and affidavits described in paragraph (m)(2)(ii) of this section.

(4) Filing. The certification (or affidavit) required by this paragraph shall be filed with the Internal Revenue Service Center, Philadelphia, PA 19255. The certification (or affidavit) shall be submitted with the Form 8038 required to be filed by section 103A(j)(3) and paragraph (k) of this § 1.103A-2. The Commissioner may grant an extension of time for filing the certification (or affidavit) if there is a reasonable cause for the failure to file such statement in a timely fashion.

(5) Effect of certification. The fact that an issuer obtains the certification (or affidavit) described in this paragraph does not ensure that the requirements of paragraph (g) of § 6a.103A-2 are met. Obligations that do not meet the requirements of paragraph (g) of § 6a.103A-2 are not described in section 103(a).

[T.D. 8049, 50 FR 35542, Sept. 3, 1985, as amended by T.D. 8129, 52 FR 7410, Mar. 11, 1987]

§ 1.104-1 Compensation for injuries or sickness.

(a) In general. Section 104(a) provides an exclusion from gross income with respect to certain amounts described in paragraphs (b), (c), (d) and (e) of this section, which are received for personal injuries or sickness, except to the extent that such amounts are attributable to (but not in excess of) deductions allowed under section 213 (relating to medical, etc., expenses) for any prior taxable year. See section 213 and the regulations thereunder.

(b) Amounts received under workmen's compensation acts. Section 104(a)(1) excludes from gross income amounts which are received by an employee under a workmen's compensation act (such as the Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act, 33 U.S.C., c. 18), or under a statute in the nature of a workmen's compensation act which provides compensation to employees for personal injuries or sickness incurred in the course of employment. Section 104(a)(1) also applies to compensation which is paid under a workmen's compensation act to the survivor or survivors of a deceased employee. However, section 104(a)(1) does not apply to a retirement pension or annuity to the extent that it is determined by reference to the employee's age or length of service, or the employee's prior contributions, even though the employee's retirement is occasioned by an occupational injury or sickness. Section 104(a)(1) also does not apply to amounts which are received as compensation for a nonoccupational injury or sickness nor to amounts received as compensation for an occupational injury or sickness to the extent that they are in excess of the amount provided in the applicable workmen's compensation act or acts. See, however, §§ 1.105-1 through 1.105-5 for rules relating to exclusion of such amounts from gross income.

(c) Damages received on account of personal physical injuries or physical sickness—(1) In general. Section 104(a)(2) excludes from gross income the amount of any damages (other than punitive damages) received (whether by suit or agreement and whether as lump sums or as periodic payments) on account of personal physical injuries or physical sickness. Emotional distress is not considered a physical injury or physical sickness. However, damages for emotional distress attributable to a physical injury or physical sickness are excluded from income under section 104(a)(2). Section 104(a)(2) also excludes damages not in excess of the amount paid for medical care (described in section 213(d)(1)(A) or (B)) for emotional distress. For purposes of this paragraph (c), the term damages means an amount received (other than workers' compensation) through prosecution of a legal suit or action, or through a settlement agreement entered into in lieu of prosecution.

(2) Cause of action and remedies. The section 104(a)(2) exclusion may apply to damages recovered for a personal physical injury or physical sickness under a statute, even if that statute does not provide for a broad range of remedies. The injury need not be defined as a tort under state or common law.

(3) Effective/applicability date. This paragraph (c) applies to damages paid pursuant to a written binding agreement, court decree, or mediation award entered into or issued after September 13, 1995, and received after January 23, 2012. Taxpayers also may apply these final regulations to damages paid pursuant to a written binding agreement, court decree, or mediation award entered into or issued after September 13, 1995, and received after August 20, 1996. If applying these final regulations to damages received after August 20, 1996, results in an overpayment of tax, the taxpayer may file a claim for refund before the period of limitations under section 6511 expires. To qualify for a refund of tax on damages paid after August 20, 1996, under a written binding agreement, court decree, or mediation award entered into or issued after September 13, 1995, a taxpayer must meet the requirements of section 1605 of the Small Business Job Protection Act of 1996, Public Law 104-188 (110 Stat. 1838).

(d) Accident or health insurance. Section 104(a)(3) excludes from gross income amounts received through accident or health insurance for personal injuries or sickness (other than amounts received by an employee, to the extent that such amounts (1) are attributable to contributions of the employer which were not includible in the gross income of the employee, or (2) are paid by the employer). Similar treatment is also accorded to amounts received under accident or health plans and amounts received from sickness or disability funds. See section 105(e) and § 1.105-5. If, therefore, an individual purchases a policy accident or health insurance out of his own funds, amounts received thereunder for personal injuries or sickness are excludable from his gross income under section 104(a)(3). See, however, section 213 and the regulations thereunder as to the inclusion in gross income of amounts attributable to deductions allowed under section 213 for any prior taxable year. Section 104(a)(3) also applies to amounts received by an employee for personal injuries or sickness from a fund which is maintained exclusively by employee contributions. Conversely, if an employer is either the sole contributor to such a fund, or is the sole purchaser of a policy of accident or health insurance for his employees (on either a group or individual basis), the exclusion provided under section 104(a)(3) does not apply to any amounts received by his employees through such fund or insurance. If the employer and his employees contribute to a fund or purchase insurance which pays accident or health benefits to employees, section 104(a)(3) does not apply to amounts received thereunder by employees to the extent that such amounts are attributable to the employer's contributions. See § 1.105-1 for rules relating to the determination of the amount attributable to employer contributions. Although amounts paid by or on behalf of an employer to an employee for personal injuries or sickness are not excludable from the employee's gross income under section 104(a)(3), they may be excludable therefrom under section 105. See §§ 1.105-1 through 1.105-5, inclusive. For treatment of accident or health benefits paid to or on behalf of a self- employed individual by a trust described in section 401(a) which is exempt under section 501(a) or under a plan described in section 403(a), see paragraph (g) of § 1.72-15.

(e) Amounts received as pensions, etc., for certain personal injuries or sickness. (1) Section 104(a)(4) excludes from gross income amounts which are received as a pension, annuity, or similar allowance for personal injuries or sickness resulting from active service in the armed forces of any country, or in the Coast and Geodetic Survey, or the Public Health Service. For purposes of this section, that part of the retired pay of a member of an armed force, computed under formula No. 1 or 2 of 10 U.S.C. 1401, or under 10 U.S.C. 1402(d), on the basis of years of service, which exceeds the retired pay that he would receive if it were computed on the basis of percentage of disability is not considered as a pension, annuity, or similar allowance for personal injury or sickness, resulting from active service in the armed forces of any country, or in the Coast and Geodetic Survey, or the Public Health Service (see 10 U.S.C. 1403 (formerly 37 U.S.C. 272(h), section 402(h) of the Career Compensation Act of 1949)). See paragraph (a)(3)(i)(a) of § 1.105-4 for the treatment of retired pay in excess of the part computed on the basis of percentage of disability as amounts received through a wage continuation plan. For the rules relating to certain reduced uniformed services retirement pay, see paragraph (c)(2) of § 1.122-1. For rules relating to a waiver by a member or former member of the uniformed services of a portion of disability retired pay in favor of a pension or compensation receivable under the laws administered by the Veterans Administration (38 U.S.C. 3105), see § 1.122-1(c)(3). For rules relating to a reduction of the disability retired pay of a member or former member of the uniformed services under the Dual Compensation Act of 1964 (5 U.S.C. 5531) by reason of Federal employment, see § 1.122-1(c)(4).

(2) Section 104(a)(4) excludes from gross income amounts which are received by a participant in the Foreign Service Retirement and Disability System in a taxable year of such participant ending after September 8, 1960, as a disability annuity payable under the provisions of section 831 of the Foreign Service Act of 1946, as amended (22 U.S.C. 1081; 60 Stat. 1021). However, if any amount is received by a survivor of a disabled or incapacitated participant, such amount is not excluded from gross income by reason of the provisions of section 104(a)(4).

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960, as amended by T.D. 6722, 29 FR 5070, Apr. 14, 1964; T.D. 7043, 35 FR 8477, June 2, 1970; T.D. 9573, 77 FR 3107, Jan. 23, 2012]

§ 1.105-1 Amounts attributable to employer contributions.

(a) In general. Under section 105(a), amounts received by an employee through accident or health insurance for personal injuries or sickness must be included in his gross income to the extent that such amounts (1) are attributable to contributions of the employer which were not includible in the gross income of the employee, or (2) are paid by the employer, unless such amounts are excluded therefrom under section 105(b), (c), or (d). For purposes of this section, the term “amounts received by an employee through an accident or health plan” refers to any amounts received through accident or health insurance, and also to any amounts which, under section 105(e), are treated as being so received. See § 1.105-5. In determining the extent to which amounts received for personal injuries or sickness by an employee through an accident or health plan are subject to the provisions of section 105(a), rather than section 104(a)(3), the provisions of paragraphs (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section shall apply. A self-employed individual is not an employee for purposes of section 105 and §§ 1.105-1 through 1.105-5. See paragraph (g) of § 1.72-15. Thus, such an individual will not be treated as an employee with respect to benefits described in section 105 received from a plan in which he participates as an employee within the meaning of section 401(c)(1) at the time he, his spouse, or any of his dependents becomes entitled to receive such benefits.

(b) Noncontributory plans. All amounts received by employees through an accident or health plan which is financed solely by their employer, either by payment of premiums on an accident or health insurance policy (whether on a group or individual basis), by contributions to a fund which pays accident or health benefits, or by direct payment of the benefits under the plan, are subject to the provisions of section 105(a), except to the extent that they are excludable under section 105(b), (c), or (d). This rule may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

Employer A maintains a plan for his employees which provides that he will continue to pay regular wages to employees who are absent from work due to sickness or personal injuries. Employees make no contributions to the plan and all benefits are paid by the employer. Amounts received by employees under the plan are subject to section 105(a), and must be included in gross income unless excluded therefrom under section 105(b), (c), or (d).

Example 2.

Pursuant to a State nonoccupational disability benefits law, employer B maintains an accident and health plan for his employees. Although under the State law B is authorized to withhold from his employees' wages a specified amount for employee contributions to the State fund, in actual practice B does not so withhold and makes all contributions out of his own funds. All amounts received by B's employees from the State fund are subject to section 105(a), and must be included in gross income unless excluded therefrom under section 105 (b), (c), or (d).

(c) Contributory plans. (1) In the case of amounts received by an employee through an accident or health plan which is financed partially by his employer and partially by contributions of the employee, section 105(a) applies to the extent that such amounts are attributable to contributions of the employer which were not includible in the employee's gross income. The portion of such amounts which is attributable to such contributions of the employer shall be determined in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section in the case of an insured plan, or paragraph (e) of this section in the case of a noninsured plan. As used in this section, the phrase “contributions of the employer” means employer contributions which were not includible in the gross income of the employee. See section 106 for the exclusion from an employee's gross income of employer contributions to accident or health plans.

(2) A separate determination of the portion of the amounts received under the accident or health plan which is attributable to the contributions of the employer shall be made with respect to each class of employees in any case where the plan provides that some classes of covered employees contribute but others do not, or that the employer will make different contributions for different classes of employees, or that different classes of employees will make different contributions, and where in any such case both the contributions of the employer on account of each such class of employees and the contributions of such class of employees can be ascertained. For example, if employees contribute during the first year of employment but not thereafter, there will have to be a separate determination for first year employees, provided that the amount of the contributions of the employer on account of first-year employees and the contributions of such first-year employees can be ascertained for the required periods to apply the rules of paragraph (d) or (e) of this section. If in such a case the contributions of the employer to the plan on account of first-year employees are not distinguishable from his other contributions to the plan, then the determination shall be made for all employees under the plan, and such determination shall be used by all employees under the plan.

(3) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of § 1.72-15, if the plan provides accident or health benefits as well as other benefits for the employees, and if the respective contributions made by the employer and the employees to provide the accident or health benefits cannot be ascertained, the determination of the portion of the accident or health benefits received under such plan which is attributable to the contributions of the employer shall be made in accordance with the rules of paragraph (d) or (e) of this section on the basis of the contributions of the employer and of the employees to the entire plan.

(4) A determination of the portion attributable to the contributions of the employer, once made in accordance with the rules of this section, shall as to such portion be used for all purposes. For example, if an employee receives amounts under a wage continuation plan during the month of January and terminates his services during February, the portion of such amounts which is attributable to the contributions of the employer may be determined in order to provide the employee with such information at the time he is provided his Form W-2. The determination made for such purpose will also be used by the employee to report his income for his taxable year in which such amounts are received, without regard to the experience under the plan for the rest of the year.

(d) Insured plans—(1) Individual policies. If an amount is received from an insurance company by an employee under an individual policy of accident or health insurance purchased by contributions of the employer and the employee, the portion of the amount received which is attributable to the employer's contributions shall be an amount which bears the same ratio to the amount received as the portion of the premiums paid by the employer for the current policy year bears to the total premiums paid by the employer and the employee for that year. This rule may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.

Employer A maintains a plan whereby he pays two-thirds of the annual premium cost on individual policies of accident and health insurance for his employees. The remainder of each employee's premium is paid by a payroll deduction from the wages of the employee. The annual premium for employee X is $24, of which $16 is paid by the employer. Thus, 16/24 or two-thirds of all amounts received by X under such insurance policy are attributable to the contributions of the employer and are subject to section 105(a), and the remaining one-third of such amounts is excludable from X's gross income under section 104(a)(3).

(2) Group policies. If the accident or health coverage is provided under or is a part of a group insurance policy purchased by contributions of the employer and of the employees, and the net premiums for such coverage for a period of at least three policy years are known at the beginning of the calendar year, the portion of any amount received by an employee which is attributable to the contributions of the employer for such coverage shall be an amount which bears the same ratio to the amount received as the portion of the net premiums contributed by the employer for the last three policy years which are known at the beginning of the calendar year, bears to the total of the net premiums contributed by the employer and all employees for such policy years. If the net premiums for such coverage for a period of at least three policy years are not known at the beginning of the calendar year but are known for at least one policy year, such determination shall be made by using the net premiums for such coverage which are known at the beginning of the calendar year. If the net premiums for such coverage are not known at the beginning of the calendar year for even one policy year, such determination shall be made by using either (i) a reasonable estimate of the net premiums for the first policy year, or (ii) if the net premiums for a policy year are ascertained during the calendar year, by using such net premiums. These rules may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.

An employer maintains a plan under which a portion of the cost of a group policy of accident and health insurance for his employees is paid through payroll deductions from wages of the employees. The remainder of the cost is borne by the employer. The policy year begins on November 1 and ends on October 31. The net premium for the policy year ended October 31, 1954, is not known on January 1, 1955, because certain retroactive premium adjustments, such as dividends and credits, are not determinable until after January 1. Therefore, for purposes of this computation the last three policy years are the policy years ended October 31, 1951, 1952, and 1953. The net premium for the policy year ended October 31, 1953, was $8,000, of which the employer contributed $3,000; the net premium for the policy year ended October 31, 1952, was $9,000, of which the employer contributed $3,500; and the net premium for the policy year ended October 31, 1951, was $7,000, of which the employer contributed $1,500. The portion of any amount received under the policy by an employee at any time during 1955 which is attributable to the contributions of the employer is to be determined by using the ratio of $8,000 ($3,000 plus $3,500 plus $1,500) to $24,000 ($8,000 plus $9,000 plus $7,000. Thus, $8,000 ÷ $24,000 or one-third, of the amounts received by an employee at any time during 1955 is attributable to contributions of the employer.

(e) Noninsured plans. If the accident or health benefits are a part of a noninsured plan to which the employer and the employees contribute, and such plan has been in effect for at least three years before the beginning of the calendar year, the portion of the amount received which is attributable to the employer's contributions shall be an amount which bears the same ratio to the amount received as the contributions of the employer for the period of three calendar years next preceding the year of receipt bear to the total contributions of the employer and all the employees for such period. If, at the beginning of the calendar year of receipt, such plan has not been in effect for three years but has been in effect for at least one year, such determination shall be based upon the contributions made during the 1-year or 2-year period during which the plan has been in effect. If such plan has not been in effect for one full year at the beginning of the calendar year of receipt, such determination may be based upon the portion of the year of receipt preceding the time when the determination is made, or such determination may be made periodically (such as monthly or quarterly) and used throughout the succeeding period. For example, if an employee terminates his services on April 15, 1955, and 1955 is the first year the plan has been in effect, such determination may be based upon the contributions of the employer and the employees during the period beginning with January 1 and ending with April 15, or during the month of March, or during the quarter consisting of January, February, and March.

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960, as amended by T.D. 6722, 29 FR 5071, Apr. 14, 1964]

§ 1.105-2 Amounts expended for medical care.

Section 105(b) provides an exclusion from gross income with respect to the amounts referred to in section 105(a) (see § 1.105-1) which are paid, directly or indirectly, to the taxpayer to reimburse him for expenses incurred for the medical care (as defined in section 213(e)) of the taxpayer, his spouse, and his dependents (as defined in section 152). However, the exclusion does not apply to amounts which are attributable to (and not in excess of) deductions allowed under section 213 (relating to medical, etc., expenses) for any prior taxable year. See section 213 and the regulations thereunder. Section 105(b) applies only to amounts which are paid specifically to reimburse the taxpayer for expenses incurred by him for the prescribed medical care. Thus, section 105(b) does not apply to amounts which the taxpayer would be entitled to receive irrespective of whether or not he incurs expenses for medical care. For example, if under a wage continuation plan the taxpayer is entitled to regular wages during a period of absence from work due to sickness or injury, amounts received under such plan are not excludable from his gross income under section 105(b) even though the taxpayer may have incurred medical expenses during the period of illness. Such amounts may, however, be excludable from his gross income under section 105(d). See § 1.105-4. If the amounts are paid to the taxpayer solely to reimburse him for expenses which he incurred for the prescribed medical care, section 105(b) is applicable even though such amounts are paid without proof of the amount of the actual expenses incurred by the taxpayer, but section 105(b) is not applicable to the extent that such amounts exceed the amount of the actual expenses for such medical care. If the taxpayer incurs an obligation for medical care, payment to the obligee in discharge of such obligation shall constitute indirect payment to the taxpayer as reimbursement for medical care. Similarly, payment to or on behalf of the taxpayer's spouse or dependents shall constitute indirect payment to the taxpayer.

§ 1.105-3 Payments unrelated to absence from work.

Section 105(c) provides an exclusion from gross income with respect to the amounts referred to in section 105(a) to the extent that such amounts (a) constitute payments for the permanent loss or permanent loss of use of a member or function of the body, or the permanent disfigurement, of the taxpayer, his spouse, or a dependent (as defined in section 152), and (b) are computed with reference to the nature of the injury without regard to the period the employee is absent from work. Loss of use or disfigurement shall be considered permanent when it may reasonably be expected to continue for the life of the individual. For purposes of section 105(c), loss or loss of use of a member or function of the body includes the loss or loss of use of an appendage of the body, the loss of an eye, the loss of substantially all of the vision of an eye, and the loss of substantially all of the hearing in one or both ears. The term “disfigurement” shall be given a reasonable interpretation in the light of all the particular facts and circumstances. Section 105(c) does not apply if the amount of the benefits is determined by reference to the period the employee is absent from work. For example, if an employee is absent from work as a result of the loss of an arm, and under the accident and health plan established by his employer, he is to receive $125 a week so long as he is absent from work for a period not in excess of 52 weeks, section 105(c) is not applicable to such payments. See, however, section 105(d) and § 1.105-4. However, for purposes of section 105(c), it is immaterial whether an amount is paid in a lump sum or in installments. Section 105(c) does not apply to amounts which are treated as workmen's compensation under paragraph (b) of § 1.104-1, or to amounts paid by reason of the death of the employee (see section 101).

§ 1.105-5 Accident and health plans.

(a) In general. Sections 104(a)(3) and 105 (b), (c), and (d) exclude from gross income certain amounts received through accident or health insurance. Section 105(e) provides that for purposes of sections 104 and 105 amounts received through an accident or health plan for employees, and amounts received from a sickness and disability fund for employees maintained under the law of a State, a Territory, or the District of Columbia, shall be treated as amounts received through accident or health insurance. In general, an accident or health plan is an arrangement for the payment of amounts to employees in the event of personal injuries or sickness. A plan may cover one or more employees, and there may be different plans for different employees or classes of employees. An accident or health plan may be either insured or noninsured, and it is not necessary that the plan be in writing or that the employee's rights to benefits under the plan be enforceable. However, if the employee's rights are not enforceable, an amount will be deemed to be received under a plan only if, on the date the employee became sick or injured, the employee was covered by a plan (or a program, policy, or custom having the effect of a plan) providing for the payment of amounts to the employee in the event of personal injuries or sickness, and notice or knowledge of such plan was reasonably available to the employee. It is immaterial who makes payment of the benefits provided by the plan. For example, payment may be made by the employer, a welfare fund, a State sickness or disability benefits fund, an association of employers or employees, or by an insurance company.

(b) Self-employed individuals. Under section 105(g), a self-employed individual is not treated as an employee for purposes of section 105. Therefore, for example, benefits paid under an accident or health plan as referred to in section 105(e) to or on behalf of an individual who is self-employed in the business with respect to which the plan is established will not be treated as received through accident and health insurance for purposes of sections 104(a)(3) and 105.

[T.D. 6722, 29 FR 5071, Apr. 14, 1964]

§ 1.105-11 Self-insured medical reimbursement plan.

(a) In general. Under section 105(a), amounts received by an employee through a self-insured medical reimbursement plan which are attributable to contributions of the employer, or are paid by the employer, are included in the employee's gross income unless such amounts are excludable under section 105(b). For amounts reimbursed to a highly compensated individual to be fully excludable from such individual's gross income under section 105(b), the plan must satisfy the requirements of section 105(h) and this section. Section 105(h) is not satisfied if the plan discriminates in favor of highly compensated individuals as to eligibility to participate or benefits. All or a portion of the reimbursements or payments on behalf of such individuals under a discriminatory plan are not excludable from gross income under section 105(b). However, benefits paid to participants who are not highly compensated individuals may be excluded from gross income if the requirements of section 105(b) are satisfied, even if the plan is discriminatory.

(b) Self-insured medical reimbursement plan—(1) General rule—(i) Definition. A self-insured medical reimbursement plan is a separate written plan for the benefit of employees which provides for reimbursement of employee medical expenses referred to in section 105(b). A plan or arrangement is self-insured unless reimbursement is provided under an individual or group policy of accident or health insurance issued by a licensed insurance company or under an arrangement in the nature of a prepaid health care plan that is regulated under federal or state law in a manner similar to the regulation of insurance companies. Thus, for example, a plan of a health maintenance organization, established under the Health Maintenance Organization Act of 1973, would qualify as a prepaid health care plan. In addition, this section applies to a self-insured medical reimbursement plan, determined in accordance with the rules of this section, maintained by an employee organization described in section 501(c)(9).

(ii) Shifting of risk. A plan underwritten by a policy of insurance or a prepaid health care plan that does not involve the shifting of risk to an unrelated third party is considered self-insured for purposes of this section. Accordingly, a cost-plus policy or a policy which in effect merely provides administrative or bookkeeping services is considered self-insured for purposes of this section. However, a plan is not considered self-insured merely because one factor the insurer uses in determining the premium is the employer's prior claims experience.

(iii) Captive insurance company. A plan underwritten by a policy of insurance issued by a captive insurance company is not considered self-insured for purposes of this section if for the plan year the premiums paid by companies unrelated to the captive insurance company equal or exceed 50 percent of the total premiums received and the policy of insurance is similar to policies sold to such unrelated companies.

(2) Other rules. The rules of this section apply to a self-insured portion of an employer's medical plan or arrangement even if the plan is in part underwritten by insurance. For example, if an employer's medical plan reimburses employees for benefits not covered under the insured portion of an overall plan, or for deductible amounts under the insured portions, such reimbursement is subject to the rules of this section. However, a plan which reimburses employees for premiums paid under an insured plan is not subject to this section. In addition, medical expense reimbursements not described in the plan are not paid pursuant to a plan for the benefit of employees, and therefore are not excludable from gross income under section 105(b). Such reimbursements will not affect the determination of whether or not a plan is discriminatory.

(c) Prohibited discrimination—(1) In general. A self-insured medical reimbursement plan does not satisfy the requirements of section 105(h) and this paragraph for a plan year unless the plan satisfies subparagraphs (2) and (3) of this paragraph. However, a plan does not fail to satisfy the requirements of this paragraph merely because benefits under the plan are offset by benefits paid under a self-insured or insured plan of the employer or another employer, or by benefits paid under Medicare or other Federal or State law or similar foreign law. A self-insured plan may take into account the benefits provided under another plan only to the extent that the type of benefit subject to reimbursement is the same under both plans. For example, an amount reimbursed to an employee for a hospital expense under a medical plan maintained by the employer of the employee's spouse may be offset against the self-insured benefit where the self-insured plan covering the employee provides the same type of hospital benefit.

(2) Eligibility to participate—(i) Percentage test. A plan satisfies the requirements of this subparagraph if it benefits—

(A) Seventy percent or more of all employees, or

(B) Eighty percent or more of all the employees who are eligible to benefit under the plan if 70 percent or more of all employees are eligible to benefit under the plan.

(ii) Classification test. A plan satisfies the requirements of this subparagraph if it benefits such employees as qualify under a classification of employees set up by the employer which is found by the Internal Revenue Service not to be discriminatory in favor of highly compensated individuals. In general, this determination will be made based upon the facts and circumstances of each case, applying the same standards as are applied under section 410(b)(1)(B) (relating to qualified pension, profit-sharing and stock bonus plans), without regard to the special rules in section 401(a)(5) concerning eligibility to participate.

(iii) Exclusion of certain employees. Under section 105(h)(3), for purposes of this subparagraph (2), there may be excluded from consideration:

(A) Employees who have not completed 3 years of service prior to the beginning of the plan year. For purposes of this section years of service may be determined by any method that is reasonable and consistent. A determination made in the same manner as (and not requiring service in excess of how) a year of service is determined under section 410(a)(3) shall be deemed to be reasonable. For purposes of the 3-year rule, all of an employee's years of service with the employer prior to a separation from service are not taken into account. For purposes of the 3-year rule, an employee's years of service prior to age 25, as a part-time or seasonal employee, as a member of a collective bargaining unit, or as a nonresident alien, as each is described in this subdivision, are not excluded by reason of being so described from counting towards satisfaction of the rule. In addition, if the employer is a predecessor employer (determined in a manner consistent with section 414(a)), service for such predecessor is treated as service for the employer.

(B) Employees who have not attained age 25 prior to the beginning of the plan year.

(C) Part-time employees whose customary weekly employment is less than 35 hours, if other employees in similar work with the same employer (or, if no employees of the employer are in similar work, in similar work in the same industry and location) have substantially more hours, and seasonal employees whose customary annual employment is less than 9 months, if other employees in similar work with the same employer (or, if no employees of the employer are in similar work, in similar work in the same industry and location) have substantially more months. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, any employee whose customary weekly employment is less than 25 hours or any employee whose customary annual employment is less than 7 months may be considered as a part-time or seasonal employee.

(D) Employees who are included in a unit of employees covered by an agreement between employee representatives and one or more employers which the Commissioner finds to be a collective bargaining agreement, if accident and health benefits were the subject of good faith bargaining between such employee representatives and such employer or employers. For purposes of determining whether such bargaining occurred, it is not material that such employees are not covered by another medical plan or that the plan was not considered in such bargaining.

(E) Employees who are nonresident aliens and who receive no earned income (within the meaning of section 911(b) and the regulations thereunder) from the employer which constitutes income from sources within the United States (within the meaning of section 861(a)(3) and the regulations thereunder).

(3) Nondiscriminatory benefits—(i) In general. In general, benefits subject to reimbursement under a plan must not discriminate in favor of highly compensated individuals. Plan benefits will not satisfy the requirements of this subparagraph unless all the benefits provided for participants who are highly compensated individuals are provided for all other participants. In addition, all the benefits available for the dependents of employees who are highly compensated individuals must also be available on the same basis for the dependents of all other employees who are participants. A plan that provides optional benefits to participants will be treated as providing a single benefit with respect to the benefits covered by the option provided that (A) all eligible participants may elect any of the benefits covered by the option and (B) there are either no required employee contributions or the required employee contributions are the same amount. This test is applied to the benefits subject to reimbursement under the plan rather than the actual benefit payments or claims under the plan. The presence or absence of such discrimination will be determined by considering the type of benefit subject to reimbursement provided highly compensated individuals, as well as the amount of the benefit subject to reimbursement. A plan may establish a maximum limit for the amount of reimbursement which may be paid a participant for any single benefit, or combination of benefits. However, any maximum limit attributable to employer contributions must be uniform for all participants and for all dependents of employees who are participants and may not be modified by reason of a participant's age or years of service. In addition, if a plan covers employees who are highly compensated individuals, and the type or the amount of benefits subject to reimbursement under the plan are in proportion to employee compensation, the plan discriminates as to benefits.

(ii) Discriminatory operation. Not only must a plan not discriminate on its face in providing benefits in favor of highly compensated individuals, the plan also must not discriminate in favor of such employees in actual operation. The determination of whether plan benefits discriminate in operation in favor of highly compensated individuals is made on the basis of the facts and circumstances of each case. A plan is not considered discriminatory merely because highly compensated individuals participating in the plan utilize a broad range of plan benefits to a greater extent than do other employees participating in the plan. In addition, if a plan (or a particular benefit provided by a plan) is terminated, the termination would cause the plan benefits to be discriminatory if the duration of the plan (or benefit) has the effect of discriminating in favor of highly compensated individuals. Accordingly, the prohibited discrimination may occur where the duration of a particular benefit coincides with the period during which a highly compensated individual utilizes the benefit.

(iii) Retired employees. To the extent that an employer provides benefits under a self-insured medical reimbursement plan to a retired employee that would otherwise be excludible from gross income under section 105(b), determined without regard to section 105(h), such benefits shall not be considered a discriminatory benefit under this paragraph (c). The preceding sentence shall not apply to a retired employee who was a highly compensated individual unless the type, and the dollar limitations, of benefits provided retired employees who were highly compensated individuals are the same for all other retired participants. If this subdivision applies to a retired participant, that individual is not considered an employee for purposes of determining the highest paid 25 percent of all employees under paragraph (d) of this section solely by reason of receiving such plan benefits.

(4) Multiple plans, etc.—(i) General rule. An employer may designate two or more plans as constituting a single plan that is intended to satisfy the requirements of section 105(h)(2) and paragraph (c) of this section, in which case all plans so designated shall be considered as a single plan in determining whether the requirements of such section are satisfied by each of the separate plans. A determination that the combination of plans so designated does not satisfy such requirements does not preclude a determination that one or more of such plans, considered separately, satisfies such requirements. A single plan document may be utilized by an employer for two or more separate plans provided that the employer designates the plans that are to be considered separately and the applicable provisions of each separate plan.

(ii) Other rules. If the designated combined plan discriminates as to eligibility to participate or benefits, the amount of excess reimbursement will be determined under the rules of section 105(h)(7) and paragraph (e) of this section by taking into account all reimbursements made under the combined plan.

(iii) H.M.O. participants. For purposes of section 105(h)(2)(A) and paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a self-insured plan will be deemed to benefit an employee who has enrolled in a health maintenance organization (HMO) that is offered on an optional basis by the employer in lieu of coverage under the self-insured plan if, with respect to that employee, the employer's contributions to the HMO plan equal or exceed those that would be made to the self-insured plan, and if the HMO plan is designated in accordance with subdivision (i) with the self-insured plan as a single plan. For purposes of section 105(h) and this section, except as provided in the preceding sentence, employees covered by, and benefits under, the HMO plan are not treated as part of the self-insured plan.

(d) Highly compensated individuals defined. For purposes of section 105(h) and this section, the term “highly compensated individual” means an individual who is—

(1) One of the 5 highest paid officers,

(2) A shareholder who owns (with the application of section 318) more than 10 percent in value of the stock of the employer, or

(3) Among the highest paid 25 percent of all employees (including the 5 highest paid officers, but not including employees excludable under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section who are not participants in any self-insured medical reimbursement plan of the employer, whether or not designated as a single plan under paragraph (c)(4) of this section, or in a health maintenance organization plan).

The status of an employee as an officer or stockholder is determined with respect to a particular benefit on the basis of the employee's officer status or stock ownership at the time during the plan year at which the benefit is provided. In calculating the highest paid 25 percent of all employees, the number of employees included will be rounded to the next highest number. For example, if there are 5 employees, the top two are in the highest paid 25 percent. The level of an employee's compensation is determined on the basis of the employee's compensation for the plan year. For purposes of the preceding sentence, fiscal year plans may determine employee compensation on the basis of the calendar year ending within the plan year.

(e) Excess reimbursement of highly compensated individual—(1) In general. For purposes of section 105(h) and this section, a reimbursement paid to a highly compensated individual is an excess reimbursement if it is paid pursuant to a plan that fails to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) or (c)(3) for the plan year. The amount reimbursed to a highly compensated individual which constitutes an excess reimbursement is not excludable from such individual's gross income under section 105(b).

(2) Discriminatory benefit. In the case of a benefit available to highly compensated individuals but not to all other participants (or which otherwise discriminates in favor of highly compensated individuals as opposed to other participants), the amount of excess reimbursement equals the total amount reimbursed to the highly compensated individual with respect to the benefit.

(3) Discriminatory coverage. In the case of benefits (other than discriminatory benefits described in subparagraph (2)) paid to a highly compensated individual under a plan which fails to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) relating to nondiscrimination in eligibility to participate, the amount of excess reimbursement is determined by multiplying the total amount reimbursed to the individual by a fraction. The numerator of the fraction is the total amount reimbursed during that plan year to all highly compensated individuals. The denominator of the fraction is the total amount reimbursed during that plan year to all participants. In computing the fraction and the total amount reimbursed to the individual, discriminatory benefits described in subparagraph (2) are not taken into account. Accordingly, any amount which is included in income by reason of the benefit's not being available to all other participants will not be taken into account.

(4) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

Corporation M maintains a self-insured medical reimbursement plan which covers all employees. The plan provides the following maximum limits on the amount of benefits subject to reimbursement: $5,000 for officers and $1,000 for all other participants. During a plan year Employee A, one of the 5 highest paid officers, received reimbursements in the amount of $4,000. Because the amount of benefits provided for highly compensated individuals is not provided for all other participants, the plan benefits are discriminatory. Accordingly, Employee A received an excess reimbursement of $3,000 ($4,000−$1,000) which constitutes a benefit available to highly compensated individuals, but not to all other participants.

Example 2.

Corporation N maintains a self-insured medical reimbursement plan which covers all employees. The plan provides a broad range of medical benefits subject to reimbursement for all participants. However, only the 5 highest paid officers are entitled to dental benefits. During the plan year Employee B, one of the 5 highest paid officers, received dental payments under the plan in the amount of $300. Because dental benefits are provided for highly compensated individuals, and not for all other participants, the plan discriminates as to benefits. Accordingly, Employee B received an excess reimbursement in the amount of $300.

Example 3.

Corporation O maintains a self-insured medical reimbursement plan which discriminates as to eligibility by covering only the highest paid 40% of all employees. Benefits subject to reimbursement under the plan are the same for all participants. During a plan year Employee C, a highly compensated individual, received benefits in the amount of $1,000. The amount of excess reimbursement paid Employee C during the plan year will be calculated by multiplying the $1,000 by a fraction determined under subparagraph (3).

Example 4.

Corporation P maintains a self-insured medical reimbursement plan for its employees. Benefits subject to reimbursement under the plan are the same for all plan participants. However, the plan fails the eligibility tests of section 105(h)(3)(A) and thereby discriminates as to eligibility. During the 1980 plan year Employee D, a highly compensated individual, was hospitalized for surgery and incurred medical expenses of $4,500 which were reimbursed to D under the plan. During that plan year the Corporation P medical plan paid $50,000 in benefits under the plan, $30,000 of which constituted benefits paid to highly compensated individuals. The amount of excess reimbursement not excludable by D under section 105(b) is $2,700:

Example 5.

Corporation Q maintains a self-insured medical reimbursement plan for its employees. The plan provides a broad range of medical benefits subject to reimbursement for participants. However, only the five highest paid officers are entitled to dental benefits. In addition, the plan fails the eligibility test of section 105(h)(3)(A) and thereby discriminates as to eligibility. During the calendar 1981 plan year, Employee E, a highly compensated individual, received dental benefits under the plan in the amount of $300, and no other employee received dental benefits. In addition, Employee E was hospitalized for surgery and incurred medical expenses, reimbursement for which was available to all participants, of $4,500 which were reimbursed to E under the plan. Because dental benefits are only provided for highly compensated individuals, Employee E received an excess reimbursement under paragraph (e)(2) above in the amount of $300. For the 1981 plan year, the Corporation Q medical plan paid $50,300 in total benefits under the plan, $30,300 of which constituted benefits paid to highly compensated individuals. In computing the fraction under paragraph (e)(3), discriminatory benefits described in paragraph (e)(2) are not taken into account. Therefore, the amount of excess reimbursement not excludable to Employee E with respect to the $4,500 of medical expenses incurred is $2,700:

and the total amount of excess reimbursements includable in E's income for 1981 is $3,000.

Example 6.

(i) Corporation R maintains a calendar year self-insured medical reimbursement plan which covers all employees. The type of benefits subject to reimbursement under the plan include all medical care expenses as defined in section 213(e). The amount of reimbursement available to any employee for any calendar year is limited to 5 percent of the compensation paid to each employee during the calendar year. The amount of compensation and reimbursement paid to Employees A-F for the calendar year is as follows:

Employee Compensation Reimbursable amount paid
A $100,000 $5,000
B 25,000 1,250
C 15,000 750
D 10,000 500
E 10,000 500
F 8,000 400
8,400

(ii) Because the amount of benefits subject to reimbursement under the plan is in proportion to employee compensation the plan discriminates as to benefits. In addition, Employees A and B are highly compensated individuals. The amount of excess reimbursement paid Employees A and B during the plan year will be determined under paragraph (e)(2). Because benefits in excess of $400 (Employee F's maximum benefit) are provided for highly compensated individuals and not for all other participants, Employees A and B received, respectively, an excess reimbursement of $4,600 and $850.

(f) Certain controlled groups. For purposes of applying the provisions of section 105(h) and this section, all employees who are treated as employed by a single employer under section 414 (b) and (c), and the regulations thereunder (relating to special rules for qualified pension, profit-sharing and stock bonus plans), shall be treated as employed by a single employer.

(g) Exception for medical diagnostic procedures—(1) In general. For purposes of applying section 105(h) and this section, reimbursements paid under a plan for medical diagnostic procedures for an employee, but not a dependent, are not considered to be a part of a plan described in this section. The medical diagnostic procedures include routine medical examinations, blood tests, and X-rays. Such procedures do not include expenses incurred for the treatment, cure or testing of a known illness or disability, or treatment or testing for a physical injury, complaint or specific symptom of a bodily malfunction. For example, a routine dental examination with X-rays is a medical diagnostic procedure, but X-rays and treatment for a specific complaint are not. In addition, such procedures do not include any activity undertaken for exercise, fitness, nutrition, recreation, or the general improvement of health unless they are for medical care as defined in section 213(e). The diagnostic procedures must be performed at a facility which provides no services (directly or indirectly) other than medical, and ancillary, services. For purposes of the preceding sentence, physical proximity between a medical facility and nonmedical facilities will not for that reason alone cause the medical facility not to qualify. For example, an employee's annual physical examination conducted at the employee's personal physician's office is not considered a part of the medical reimbursement plan and therefore is not subject to the nondiscrimination requirements. Accordingly, the amount reimbursed may be excludable from the employee's income if the requirements of section 105(b) are satisfied.

(2) Transportation, etc. expenses. Transportation expenses primarily for an allowable diagnostic procedure are included within the exception described in this paragraph, but only to the extent they are ordinary and necessary. Transportation undertaken merely for the general improvement of health, or in connection with a vacation, is not within the scope of this exception, nor are any incidental expenses for food or lodging; therefore, amounts reimbursed for such expenses may be excess reimbursements under paragraph (e).

(h) Time of inclusion. Excess reimbursments (determined under paragraph (e)) paid to a highly compensated individual for a plan year will be considered as received in the taxable year of the individual in which (or with which) the plan year ends. The particular plan year to which reimbursements relate shall be determined under the plan provisions. In the absence of plan provisions reimbursements shall be attributed to the plan year in which payment is made. For example, under a calendar year plan an excess reimbursement paid to A in 1981 on account of an expense incurred and subject to reimbursement for the 1980 plan year under the terms of the plan will be considered as received in 1980 by A.

(i) Self-insured contributory plan. A medical plan subject to this section may provide for employer and employee contributions. See § 1.105-1(c). The tax treatment of reimbursements attributable to employee contributions is determined under section 104(a)(3). The tax treatment of reimbursements attributable to employer contributions is determined under section 105. The amount of reimbursements which are attributable to contributions of the employer shall be determined in accordance with § 1.105-1(e).

(j) Effective date. Section 105(h) and this section are effective for taxable years beginning after December 31, 1979 and for amounts reimbursed after December 31, 1979. In determining plan discrimination and the taxability of excess reimbursements made for a plan year beginning in 1979 and ending in 1980, a plan's eligibility and benefit requirements as well as actual reimbursements made in the plan year during 1979, will not be taken into account. In addition, this section does not apply to expenses which are incurred in 1979 and paid in 1980.

(k) Special rules—(1) Relation to cafeteria plans. If a self-insured medical reimbursement plan is included in a cafeteria plan as described in section 125, the rules of this section will determine the status of a benefit as a taxable or nontaxable benefit, and the rules of section 125 will determine whether an employee is taxed as though he elected all available taxable benefits (including taxable benefits under a discriminatory medical reimbursement plan). This rule is illustrated by the following example:

Example.

Corporation M maintains a cafeteria plan described in section 125. Under the plan an officer of the corporation may elect to receive medical benefits provided by a self-insured medical reimbursement plan which is subject to the rules of this section. However, the self-insured medical reimbursement plan fails the nondiscrimination rules under paragraph (c) of this section. Accordingly, the amount of excess reimbursement is taxable to the officer participating in the medical reimbursement plan pursuant to section 105(h) and this section. Therefore, the self-insured medical reimbursement plan will be considered a taxable benefit under section 125 and the regulations thereunder.

(2) Benefit subject to reimbursement. For purposes of this section, a benefit subject to reimbursement is a benefit described in the plan under which a claim for reimbursement or for a payment directly to the health service provider may be filed by a plan participant. It does not refer to actual claims or benefit reimbursements paid under a plan.

[T.D. 7754, 46 FR 3505, Jan. 15, 1981]

§ 1.106-1 Contributions by employer to accident and health plans.

(a) The gross income of an employee does not include the contributions that the employer makes to an accident or health plan for compensation (through insurance or otherwise) to the employee for personal injuries or sickness incurred by the employee, the employee's spouse, the employee's dependents (as defined in section 152 determined without regard to section 152(b)(1), (b)(2), or (d)(1)(B)), or any child (as defined in section 152(f)(1)) of the employee who as of the end of the taxable year has not attained age 27. The employer may contribute to an accident or health plan either by paying the premium (or a portion of the premium) on a policy of accident or health insurance covering one or more of his employees, or by contributing to a separate trust or fund (including a fund referred to in section 105(e)) which provides accident or health benefits directly or through insurance to one or more of his employees. However, if such insurance policy, trust, or fund provides other benefits in addition to accident or health benefits, section 106 applies only to the portion of the employer's contribution which is allocable to accident or health benefits. See paragraph (d) of § 1.104-1 and §§ 1.105-1 through 1.105-5, inclusive, for regulations relating to exclusion from an employee's gross income of amounts received through accident or health insurance and through accident or health plans. For the treatment of the payment of premiums for accident or health insurance from a qualified trust under section 401(a), see §§ 1.72-15 and 1.402(a)-1(e).

(b) Effective/applicability date. The first and last sentences of paragraph (a) of this section apply for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2015.

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960; 25 FR 14021, Dec. 21, 1960, as amended by T.D. 9665, 79 FR 26841, May 12, 2014]

§ 1.107-1 Rental value of parsonages.

(a) In the case of a minister of the gospel, gross income does not include (1) the rental value of a home, including utilities, furnished to him as a part of his compensation, or (2) the rental allowance paid to him as part of his compensation to the extent such allowance is used by him to rent or otherwise provide a home. In order to qualify for the exclusion, the home or rental allowance must be provided as remuneration for services which are ordinarily the duties of a minister of the gospel. In general, the rules provided in § 1.1402(c)-5 will be applicable to such determination. Examples of specific services the performance of which will be considered duties of a minister for purposes of section 107 include the performance of sacerdotal functions, the conduct of religious worship, the administration and maintenance of religious organizations and their integral agencies, and the performance of teaching and administrative duties at theological seminaries. Also, the service performed by a qualified minister as an employee of the United States (other than as a chaplain in the Armed Forces, whose service is considered to be that of a commissioned officer in his capacity as such, and not as a minister in the exercise of his ministry), or a State, Territory, or possession of the United States, or a political subdivision of any of the foregoing, or the District of Columbia, is in the exercise of his ministry provided the service performed includes such services as are ordinarily the duties of a minister.

(b) For purposes of section 107, the term “home” means a dwelling place (including furnishings) and the appurtenances thereto, such as a garage. The term “rental allowance” means an amount paid to a minister to rent or otherwise provide a home if such amount is designated as rental allowance pursuant to official action taken prior to January 1, 1958, by the employing church or other qualified organization, or if such amount is designated as rental allowance pursuant to official action taken in advance of such payment by the employing church or other qualified organization when paid after December 31, 1957. The designation of an amount as rental allowance may be evidenced in an employment contract, in minutes of or in a resolution by a church or other qualified organization or in its budget, or in any other appropriate instrument evidencing such official action. The designation referred to in this paragraph is a sufficient designation if it permits a payment or a part thereof to be identified as a payment of rental allowance as distinguished from salary or other remuneration.

(c) A rental allowance must be included in the minister's gross income in the taxable year in which it is received, to the extent that such allowance is not used by him during such taxable year to rent or otherwise provide a home. Circumstances under which a rental allowance will be deemed to have been used to rent or provide a home will include cases in which the allowance is expended (1) for rent of a home, (2) for purchase of a home, and (3) for expenses directly related to providing a home. Expenses for food and servants are not considered for this purpose to be directly related to providing a home. Where the minister rents, purchases, or owns a farm or other business property in addition to a home, the portion of the rental allowance expended in connection with the farm or business property shall not be excluded from his gross income.

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960, as amended by T.D. 6691, 28 FR 12817, Dec. 3, 1963]

§ 1.108-1 [Reserved]

§ 1.108-2 Acquisition of indebtedness by a person related to the debtor.

(a) General rules. The acquisition of outstanding indebtedness by a person related to the debtor from a person who is not related to the debtor results in the realization by the debtor of income from discharge of indebtedness (to the extent required by section 61(a)(12) and section 108) in an amount determined under paragraph (f) of this section. Income realized pursuant to the preceding sentence is excludible from gross income to the extent provided in section 108(a). The rules of this paragraph apply if indebtedness is acquired directly by a person related to the debtor in a direct acquisition (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) or if a holder of indebtedness becomes related to the debtor in an indirect acquisition (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section).

(b) Direct acquisition. An acquisition of outstanding indebtedness is a direct acquisition under this section if a person related to the debtor (or a person who becomes related to the debtor on the date the indebtedness is acquired) acquires the indebtedness from a person who is not related to the debtor. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the Commissioner may provide by Revenue Procedure or other published guidance that certain acquisitions of indebtedness described in the preceding sentence are not direct acquisitions for purposes of this section.

(c) Indirect acquisition—(1) In general. An indirect acquisition is a transaction in which a holder of outstanding indebtedness becomes related to the debtor, if the holder acquired the indebtedness in anticipation of becoming related to the debtor.

(2) Proof of anticipation of relationship. In determining whether indebtedness was acquired by a holder in anticipation of becoming related to the debtor, all relevant facts and circumstances will be considered. Such facts and circumstances include, but are not limited to, the intent of the parties at the time of the acquisition, the nature of any contacts between the parties (or their respective affiliates) before the acquisition, the period of time for which the holder held the indebtedness, and the significance of the indebtedness in proportion to the total assets of the holder group (as defined in paragraph (c)(5) of this section). For example, if a holder acquired the indebtedness in the ordinary course of its portfolio investment activities and the holder's acquisition of the indebtedness preceded any discussions concerning the acquisition of the holder by the debtor (or by a person related to the debtor) or the acquisition of the debtor by the holder (or by a person related to the holder), as the case may be, these facts, taken together, would ordinarily establish that the holder did not acquire the indebtedness in anticipation of becoming related to the debtor. The absence of discussions between the debtor and the holder (or their respective affiliates), however, does not by itself establish that the holder did not acquire the indebtedness in anticipation of becoming related to the debtor (if, for example, the facts and circumstances show that the holder was considering a potential acquisition of or by the debtor, or the relationship is created within a relatively short period of time of the acquisition, or the indebtedness constitutes a disproportionate portion of the holder group's assets).

(3) Indebtedness acquired within 6 months of becoming related. Notwithstanding any other provision of this paragraph (c), a holder of indebtedness is treated as having acquired the indebtedness in anticipation of becoming related to the debtor if the holder acquired the indebtedness less than 6 months before the date the holder becomes related to the debtor.

(4) Disclosure of potential indirect acquisition—(i) In general. If a holder of outstanding indebtedness becomes related to the debtor under the circumstances described in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) or (iii) of this section, the debtor is required to attach the statement described in paragraph (c)(4)(iv) of this section to its tax return (or to a qualified amended return within the meaning of § 1.6664-2(c)(3)) for the taxable year in which the debtor becomes related to the holder, unless the debtor reports its income on the basis that the holder acquired the indebtedness in anticipation of becoming related to the debtor. Disclosure under this paragraph (c)(4) is in addition to, and is not in substitution for, any disclosure required to be made under section 6662, 6664 or 6694.

(ii) Indebtedness represents more than 25 percent of holder group's assets—(A) In general. Disclosure under this paragraph (c)(4) is required if, on the date the holder becomes related to the debtor, indebtedness of the debtor represents more than 25 percent of the fair market value of the total gross assets of the holder group (as defined in paragraph (c)(5) of this section).

(B) Determination of total gross assets. In determining the total gross assets of the holder group, total gross assets do not include any cash, cash item, marketable stock or security, short-term indebtedness, option, futures contract, notional principal contract, or similar item (other than indebtedness of the debtor), nor do total gross assets include any asset in which the holder has substantially reduced its risk of loss. In addition, total gross assets do not include any ownership interest in or indebtedness of a member of the holder group.

(iii) Indebtedness acquired within 6 to 24 months of becoming related. Disclosure under this paragraph (c)(4) is required if the holder acquired the indebtedness 6 months or more before the date the holder becomes related to the debtor, but less than 24 months before that date.

(iv) Contents of statement. A statement under this paragraph (c)(4) must include the following—

(A) A caption identifying the statement as disclosure under § 1.108-2(c);

(B) An identification of the indebtedness with respect to which disclosure is made;

(C) The amount of such indebtedness and the amount of income from discharge of indebtedness is section 108(e)(4) were to apply;

(D) Whether paragraph (c)(4)(ii) or (iii) of this section applies to the transaction; and

(E) A statement describing the facts and circumstances supporting the debtor's position that the holder did not acquire the indebtedness in anticipation of becoming related to the debtor.

(v) Failure to disclose. In addition to any other penalties that may apply, if a debtor fails to provide a statement required by this paragraph (c)(4), the holder is presumed to have acquired the indebtedness in anticipation of becoming related to the debtor unless the facts and circumstances clearly established that the holder did not acquire the indebtedness in anticipation of becoming related to the debtor.

(5) Holder group. For purposes of this paragraph (c), the holder group consists of the holder of the indebtedness and all persons who are both—

(i) Related to the holder before the holder becomes related to the debtor; and

(ii) Related to the debtor after the holder becomes related to the debtor.

(6) Holding period—(i) Suspensions. The running of the holding periods set forth in paragraphs (c)(3) and (c)(4)(iii) of this section is suspended during any period in which the holder or any person related to the holder is protected (directly or indirectly) against risk of loss by an option, a short sale, or any other device or transaction.

(ii) Tacking. For purposes of paragraphs (c)(3) and (c)(4)(iii) of this section, the period for which a holder held the debtor's indebtedness includes—

(A) The period for which the indebtedness was held by a corporation to whose attributes the holder succeeded pursuant to section 381; and

(B) The period (ending on the date on which the holder becomes related to the debtor) for which the indebtedness was held continuously by members of the holder group (as defined in paragraph (c)(5) of this section).

(d) Definitions—(1) Acquisition date. For purposes of this section, the acquisition date is the date on which a direct acquisition of indebtedness or an indirect acquisition of indebtedness occurs.

(2) Relationship. For purposes of this section, persons are considered related if they are related within the meaning of sections 267(b) or 707(b)(1). However—

(i) Sections 267(b) and 707(b)(1) are applied as if section 267(c)(4) provided that the family of an individual consists of the individual's spouse, the individual's children, grandchildren, and parents, and any spouse of the individual's children or grandchildren; and

(ii) Two entities that are treated as a single employer under subsection (b) or (c) of section 414 are treated as having a relationship to each other that is described in section 267(b).

(e) Exceptions—(1) Indebtedness retired within one year. This section does not apply to a direct or indirect acquisition of indebtedness with a stated maturity date on or before the date that is one year after the acquisition date, if the indebtedness is, in fact, retired on or before its stated maturity date.

(2) Acquisitions by securities dealers. (i) This section does not apply to a direct acquisition or an indirect acquisition of indebtedness by a dealer that acquires and disposes of such indebtedness in the ordinary course of its business of dealing in securities if—

(A) The dealer accounts for the indebtedness as a security held primarily for sale to customers in the ordinary course of business;

(B) The dealer disposes of the indebtedness (or it matures while held by the dealer) within a period consistent with the holding of the indebtedness for sale to customers in the ordinary course of business, taking into account the terms of the indebtedness and the conditions and practices prevailing in the markets for similar indebtedness during the period in which it is held; and

(C) The dealer does not sell or otherwise transfer the indebtedness to a person related to the debtor (other than in a sale to a dealer that in turn meets the requirements of this paragraph (e)(2)).

(ii) A dealer will continue to satisfy the conditions of this paragraph (e)(2) with respect to indebtedness that is exchanged for successor indebtedness in a transaction in which unrelated holders also exchange indebtedness of the same issue, provided that the conditions of this paragraph (e)(2) are met with respect to the successor indebtedness.

(iii) For purposes of this paragraph (e)(2), if the period consistent with the holding of indebtedness for sale to customers in the ordinary course of business is 30 days or less, the dealer is considered to dispose of indebtedness within that period if the aggregate principal amount of indebtedness of that issue sold by the dealer to customers in the ordinary course of business (or that mature and are paid while held by the dealer) in the calendar month following the month in which the indebtedness is acquired equals or exceeds the aggregate principal amount of indebtedness of that issue held in the dealer's inventory at the close of the month in which the indebtedness is acquired. If the period consistent with the holding of indebtedness for sale to customers in the ordinary course of business is greater than 30 days, the dealer is considered to dispose of the indebtedness within that period if the aggregate principal amount of indebtedness of that issue sold by the dealer to customers in the ordinary course of business (or that mature and are paid while held by the dealer) within that period equals or exceeds the aggregate principal amount of indebtedness of that issue held in inventory at the close of the day on which the indebtedness was acquired.

(f) Amount of discharge of indebtedness income realized—(1) Holder acquired the indebtedness by purchase on or less than six months before the acquisition date. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (f), the amount of discharge of indebtedness income realized under paragraph (a) of this section is measured by reference to the adjusted basis of the related holder (or of the holder that becomes related to the debtor) in the indebtedness on the acquisition date if the holder acquired the indebtedness by purchase on or less than six months before the acquisition date. For purposes of this paragraph (f), indebtedness is acquired “by purchase” if the indebtedness in the hands of the holder is not substituted basis property within the meaning of section 7701(a)(42). However, indebtedness is also considered acquired by purchase within six months before the acquisition date if the holder acquired the indebtedness as transferred basis property (within the meaning of section 7701(a)(43)) from a person who acquired the indebtedness by purchase on or less than six months before the acquisition date.

(2) Holder did not acquire the indebtedness by purchase on or less than six months before the acquisition date. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (f), the amount of discharge of indebtedness income realized under paragraph (a) of this section is measured by reference to the fair market value of the indebtedness on the acquisition date if the holder (or the transferor to the holder in a transferred basis transaction) did not acquire the indebtedness by purchase on or less than six months before the acquisition date.

(3) Acquisitions of indebtedness in nonrecognition transactions. [Reserved]

(4) Avoidance transactions. The amount of discharge of indebtedness income realized by the debtor under paragraph (a) of this section is measured by reference to the fair market value of the indebtedness on the acquisition date if the indebtedness is acquired in a direct or an indirect acquisition in which a principal purpose for the acquisition is the avoidance of federal income tax.

(g) Correlative adjustments—(1) Deemed issuance. For income tax purposes, if a debtor realizes income from discharge of its indebtedness in a direct or an indirect acquisition under this section (whether or not the income is excludible under section 108(a)), the debtor's indebtedness is treated as new indebtedness issued by the debtor to the related holder on the acquisition date (the deemed issuance). The new indebtedness is deemed issued with an issue price equal to the amount used under paragraph (f) of this section to compute the amount realized by the debtor under paragraph (a) of this section (i.e., either the holder's adjusted basis or the fair market value of the indebtedness, as the case may be). Under section 1273(a)(1), the excess of the stated redemption price at maturity (as defined in section 1273(a)(2)) of the indebtedness over its issue price is original issue discount (OID) which, to the extent provided in sections 163 and 1272, is deductible by the debtor and includible in the gross income of the related holder. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the Commissioner may provide by Revenue Procedure or other published guidance that the indebtedness is not treated as newly issued indebtedness for purposes of designated provisions of the income tax laws.

(2) Treatment of related holder. The related holder does not recognize any gain or loss on the deemed issuance described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section. The related holder's adjusted basis in the indebtedness remains the same as it was immediately before the deemed issuance. The deemed issuance is treated as a purchase of the indebtedness by the related holder for purposes of section 1272(a)(7) (pertaining to reduction of original issue discount where a subsequent holder pays acquisition premium) and section 1276 (pertaining to acquisitions of debt at a market discount).

(3) Loss deferral on disposition of indebtedness acquired in certain exchanges. (i) Any loss otherwise allowable to a related holder on the disposition at any time of indebtedness acquired in a direct or indirect acquisition (whether or not any discharge of indebtedness income was realized under paragraph (a) of this section) is deferred until the date the debtor retires the indebtedness if—

(A) The related holder acquired the debtor's indebtedness in exchange for its own indebtedness; and

(B) The issue price of the related holder's indebtedness was not determined by reference to its fair market value (e.g., the issue price was determined under section 1273(b)(4) or 1274(a) or any other provision of applicable law).

(ii) Any comparable tax benefit that would otherwise be available to the holder, debtor, or any person related to either, in any other transaction that directly or indirectly results in the disposition of the indebtedness is also deferred until the date the debtor retires the indebtedness.

(4) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this paragraph (g). In each example, all taxpayers are calendar-year taxpayers, no taxpayer is insolvent or under the jurisdiction of a court in a title 11 case and no indebtedness is qualified farm indebtedness described in section 108(g).

Example 1.

(i) P, a domestic corporation, owns 70 percent of the single class of stock of S, a domestic corporation. S has outstanding indebtedness that has an issue price of $10,000,000 and provides for monthly interest payments of $80,000 payable at the end of each month and a payment at maturity of $10,000,000. The indebtedness has a stated maturity date of December 31, 1994. On January 1, 1992, P purchases S's indebtedness from I, an individual not related to S within the meaning of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, for cash in the amount of $9,000,000. S repays the indebtedness in full at maturity.

(ii) Under section 61(a)(12), section 108(e)(4), and paragraphs (a) and (f) of this section, S realizes $1,000,000 of income from discharge of indebtedness on January 1, 1992.

(iii) Under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the indebtedness is treated as issued to P on January 1, 1992, with an issue price of $9,000,000. Under section 1273(a), the $1,000,000 excess of the stated redemption price at maturity of the indebtedness ($10,000,000) over its issue price ($9,000,000) is original issue discount, which is includible in gross income by P and deductible by S over the remaining term of the indebtedness under sections 163(e) and 1272(a).

(iv) Accordingly, S deducts and P includes in income original issue discount, in addition to stated interest, as follows: in 1992, $289,144.88; in 1993, $331,286.06; and in 1994, $379,569.06.

Example 2.

The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that on January 1, 1992, P sells S's indebtedness to J, who is not related to S within the meaning of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, for $9,400,000 in cash. J holds S's indebtedness to maturity. On January 1, 1993, P's adjusted basis in S's indebtedness is $9,289,144.88. Accordingly, P realizes gain in the amount of $110,855.12 upon the disposition. S and J continue to deduct and include the original issue discount on the indebtedness in accordance with Example 1. The amount of original issue discount includible by J is reduced by the $110,855.12 acquisition premium as provided in section 1272(a)(7).

Example 3.

The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that on February 1, 1992 (one month after P purchased S's indebtedness), S retires the indebtedness for an amount of cash equal to the fair market value of the indebtedness. Assume that the fair market value of the indebtedness is $9,022,621.41, which in this case equals the issue price of indebtedness determined under paragraph (g)(1) of this section ($9,000,000) plus the accrued original issue discount through February 1 ($22,621.41). Section 1.61-12(c)(3) provides that if indebtedness is repurchased for a price that is exceeded by the issue price of the indebtedness plus the amount of discount already deducted, the excess is income from discharge of indebtedness. Therefore, S does not realize income from discharge of indebtedness. The result would be the same if P had contributed the indebtedness to the capital of S. Under section 108(e)(6), S would be treated as having satisfied the indebtedness with an amount of money equal to P's adjusted basis and, under section 1272(d)(2), P's adjusted basis is equal to $9,022,621.41.

Example 4.

(i) P, a domestic corporation, owns 70 percent of the single class of stock of S, a domestic corporation. On January 1, 1986, P issued indebtedness that has an issue price of $5,000,000 and provides for no stated interest payments and a payment at maturity of $10,000,000. The indebtedness has a stated maturity date of December 31, 1995. On January 1, 1992, S purchases P's indebtedness from K, a partnership not related to P within the meaning of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, for cash in the amount of $6,000,000. The sum of the debt's issue price and previously deducted original issue discount is $7,578,582.83. P repays the indebtedness in full at maturity.

(ii) Under section 61(a)(12), section 108(e)(4), and paragraphs (a) and (f) of this section, P realizes $1,578,582.83 in income from discharge of indebtedness ($7,578,582.83 minus $6,000,000) on January 1, 1992.

(iii) Under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the indebtedness is treated as issued to S on January 1, 1992, with an issue price of $6,000,000. Under section 1273(a), the $4,000,000 excess of the stated redemption price at maturity of the indebtedness ($10,000,000) over its issue price ($6,000,000) is orignial issue discount, which is includible in gross income by S and deductible by P over the remaining term of the indebtedness under sections 163(e) and 1272(a).

(iv) Accordingly, P deducts and S includes in income original issue discount as follows: in 1992, $817,316.20; in 1993, $928,650.49; in 1994, $1,055,150.67; and in 1995, $1,198,882.64.

(h) Effective date. This section applies to any transaction described in paragraph (a) and in either paragraph (b) or (c) of this section with an acquisition date on or after March 21, 1991. Although this section does not apply to direct or indirect acquisitions occurring before March 21, 1991, section 108(e)(4) is effective for any transaction after December 31, 1980, subject to the rules of section 7 of the Bankruptcy Tax Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-589, 94 Stat. 3389, 3411). Taxpayers may use any reasonable method of determining the amount of discharge of indebtedness income realized and the treatment of correlative adjustments under section 108(e)(4) for acquisitions of indebtedness before March 21, 1991, if such method is applied consistently by both the debtor and related holder.

[T.D. 8460, 57 FR 61808, Dec. 29, 1992]

§ 1.108-3 Intercompany losses and deductions.

(a) General rule. This section applies to certain losses and deductions from the sale, exchange, or other transfer of property between corporations that are members of a consolidated group or a controlled group (an intercompany transaction). See section 267(f) (controlled groups) and § 1.1502-13 (consolidated groups) for applicable definitions. For purposes of determining the attributes to which section 108(b) applies, a loss or deduction not yet taken into account under section 267(f) or § 1.1502-13 (an intercompany loss or deduction) is treated as basis described in section 108(b) that the transferor retains in property. To the extent a loss not yet taken into account is reduced under this section, it cannot subsequently be taken into account under section 267(f) or § 1.1502-13. For example, if S and B are corporations filing a consolidated return, and S sells land with a $100 basis to B for $90 and the $10 loss is deferred under section 267(f) and § 1.1502-13, the deferred loss is treated for purposes of section 108(b) as $10 of basis that S has in land (even though S has no remaining interest in the land sold to B) and is subject to reduction under section 108(b)(2)(E). Similar principles apply, with appropriate adjustments, if S and B are members of a controlled group and S's loss is deferred only under section 267(f).

(b) Effective date. This section applies with respect to discharges of indebtedness occurring on or after September 11, 1995.

[T.D. 8597, 60 FR 36680, July 18, 1995]

§ 1.108-4 Election to reduce basis of depreciable property under section 108(b)(5) of the Internal Revenue Code .

(a) Description. An election under section 108(b)(5) is available whenever a taxpayer excludes discharge of indebtedness income (COD income) from gross income under sections 108(a)(1)(A), (B), or (C) (concerning title 11 cases, insolvency, and qualified farm indebtedness, respectively). See sections 108(d)(2) and (3) for the definitions of title 11 case and insolvent. See section 108(g)(2) for the definition of qualified farm indebtedness.

(b) Time and manner. To make an election under section 108(b)(5), a taxpayer must enter the appropriate information on Form 982, Reduction of Tax Attributes Due to Discharge of Indebtedness (and Section 1082 Basis Adjustment), and attach the form to the timely filed (including extensions) Federal income tax return for the taxable year in which the taxpayer has COD income that is excluded from gross income under section 108(a). An election under this section may be revoked only with the consent of the Commissioner.

(c) Effective date. This section applies to elections concerning discharges of indebtedness occurring on or after October 22, 1998.

[T.D. 8787, 63 FR 56562, Oct. 22, 1998]

§ 1.108-5 Time and manner for making election under the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1993.

(a) Description. Section 108(c)(3)(C), as added by section 13150 of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1993 (Pub. L. 103-66, 107 Stat. 446), allows certain noncorporate taxpayers to elect to treat certain indebtedness described in section 108(c)(3) that is discharged after December 31, 1992, as qualified real property business indebtedness. This discharged indebtedness is excluded from gross income to the extent allowed by section 108.

(b) Time and manner for making election. The election described in this section must be made on the timely-filed (including extensions) Federal income tax return for the taxable year in which the taxpayer has discharge of indebtedness income that is excludible from gross income under section 108(a). The election is to be made on a completed Form 982, in accordance with that Form and its instructions.

(c) Revocability of election. The election described in this section is revocable with the consent of the Commissioner.

(d) Effective date. The rules set forth in this section are effective December 27, 1993.

[T.D. 8688, 61 FR 65322, Dec. 12, 1996. Redesignated by T.D. 8787, 63 FR 56563, Oct. 22, 1998]

§ 1.108-6 Limitations on the exclusion of income from the discharge of qualified real property business indebtedness.

(a) Indebtedness in excess of value. With respect to any qualified real property business indebtedness that is discharged, the amount excluded from gross income under section 108(a)(1)(D) (concerning discharges of qualified real property business indebtedness) shall not exceed the excess, if any, of the outstanding principal amount of that indebtedness immediately before the discharge over the net fair market value of the qualifying real property, as defined in § 1.1017-1(c)(1), immediately before the discharge. For purposes of this section, net fair market value means the fair market value of the qualifying real property (notwithstanding section 7701(g)), reduced by the outstanding principal amount of any qualified real property business indebtedness (other than the discharged indebtedness) that is secured by such property immediately before and after the discharge. Also, for purposes of section 108(c)(2)(A) and this section, outstanding principal amount means the principal amount of indebtedness together with all additional amounts owed that, immediately before the discharge, are equivalent to principal, in that interest on such amounts would accrue and compound in the future, except that outstanding principal amount shall not include amounts that are subject to section 108(e)(2) and shall be adjusted to account for unamortized premium and discount consistent with section 108(e)(3).

(b) Overall limitation. The amount excluded from gross income under section 108(a)(1)(D) shall not exceed the aggregate adjusted bases of all depreciable real property held by the taxpayer immediately before the discharge (other than depreciable real property acquired in contemplation of the discharge) reduced by the sum of any—

(1) Depreciation claimed for the taxable year the taxpayer excluded discharge of indebtedness from gross income under section 108(a)(1)(D); and

(2) Reductions to the adjusted bases of depreciable real property required under section 108(b) or section 108(g) for the same taxable year.

(c) Effective date. This section applies to discharges of qualified real property business indebtedness occurring on or after October 22, 1998.

[T.D. 8787, 63 FR 56563, Oct. 22, 1998]

§ 1.108-7 Reduction of attributes.

(a) In general. (1) If a taxpayer excludes discharge of indebtedness income (COD income) from gross income under section 108(a)(1)(A), (B), or (C), then the amount excluded shall be applied to reduce the following tax attributes of the taxpayer in the following order:

(i) Net operating losses.

(ii) General business credits.

(iii) Minimum tax credits.

(iv) Capital loss carryovers.

(v) Basis of property.

(vi) Passive activity loss and credit carryovers.

(vii) Foreign tax credit carryovers.

(2) The taxpayer may elect under section 108(b)(5), however, to apply any portion of the excluded COD income to reduce first the basis of depreciable property. To the extent the excluded COD income is not so applied, the taxpayer must then reduce any remaining tax attributes in the order specified in section 108(b)(2). If the excluded COD income exceeds the sum of the taxpayer's tax attributes, the excess is permanently excluded from the taxpayer's gross income. For rules relating to basis reductions required by sections 108(b)(2)(E) and 108(b)(5), see sections 1017 and 1.1017-1. For rules relating to the time and manner for making an election under section 108(b)(5), see § 1.108-4.

(b) Carryovers and carrybacks. The tax attributes subject to reduction under section 108(b)(2) and paragraph (a)(1) of this section that are carryovers to the taxable year of the discharge, or that may be carried back to taxable years preceding the year of the discharge, are taken into account by the taxpayer for the taxable year of the discharge or the preceding years, as the case may be, before such attributes are reduced pursuant to section 108(b)(2) and paragraph (a)(1) of this section.

(c) Transactions to which section 381 applies. If a taxpayer realizes COD income that is excluded from gross income under section 108(a) either during or after a taxable year in which the taxpayer is the distributor or transferor of assets in a transaction described in section 381(a), any tax attributes to which the acquiring corporation succeeds, including the basis of property acquired by the acquiring corporation in the transaction, must reflect the reductions required by section 108(b). For this purpose, all attributes listed in section 108(b)(2) immediately prior to the transaction described in section 381(a), but after the determination of tax for the year of the distribution or transfer of assets, including basis of property, will be available for reduction under section 108(b)(2). However, the basis of stock or securities of the acquiring corporation, if any, received by the taxpayer in exchange for the transferred assets shall not be available for reduction under section 108(b)(2).

(d) Special rules for S corporations—(1) In general. If an S corporation excludes COD income from gross income under section 108(a)(1)(A), (B), or (C), the amount excluded shall be applied to reduce the S corporation's tax attributes under paragraph (a)(1) of this section. For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the aggregate amount of the shareholders' losses or deductions that are disallowed for the taxable year of the discharge under section 1366(d)(1), including disallowed losses or deductions of a shareholder that transfers all of the shareholder's stock in the S corporation during the taxable year of the discharge, is treated as the net operating loss tax attribute (deemed NOL) of the S corporation for the taxable year of the discharge.

(2) Allocation of excess losses or deductions—(i) In general. If the amount of an S corporation's deemed NOL exceeds the amount of the S corporation's COD income that is excluded from gross income under section 108(a)(1)(A), (B), or (C), the excess deemed NOL shall be allocated to the shareholder or shareholders of the S corporation as a loss or deduction that is disallowed under section 1366(d) for the taxable year of the discharge.

(ii) Multiple shareholders—(A) In general. If an S corporation has multiple shareholders, to determine the amount of the S corporation's excess deemed NOL to be allocated to each shareholder under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, calculate with respect to each shareholder the shareholder's excess amount. The shareholder's excess amount is the amount (if any) by which the shareholder's losses or deductions disallowed under section 1366(d)(1) (before any reduction under paragraph (a)(1) of this section) exceed the amount of COD income that would have been taken into account by that shareholder under section 1366(a) had the COD income not been excluded under section 108(a).

(B) Shareholders with a shareholder's excess amount. Each shareholder that has a shareholder's excess amount, as determined under paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, is allocated an amount equal to the S corporation's excess deemed NOL multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the shareholder's excess amount and the denominator of which is the sum of all shareholders' excess amounts.

(C) Shareholders with no shareholder's excess amount. If a shareholder does not have a shareholder's excess amount as determined in paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, none of the S corporation's excess deemed NOL shall be allocated to that shareholder.

(iii) Terminating shareholder. Any amount of the S corporation's excess deemed NOL allocated under paragraph (d)(2) of this section to a shareholder that had transferred all of the shareholder's stock in the corporation during the taxable year of the discharge is permanently disallowed under § 1.1366-2(a)(6), unless the transfer of stock is described in section 1041(a). If the transfer of stock is described in section 1041(a), the amount of the S corporation's excess deemed NOL allocated to the transferor under paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall be treated as a loss or deduction incurred by the corporation in the succeeding taxable year with respect to the transferee. See section 1366(d)(2)(B).

(3) Character of excess losses or deductions allocated to a shareholder. The character of an S corporation's excess deemed NOL that is allocated to a shareholder under paragraph (d)(2) of this section consists of a proportionate amount of each item of the shareholder's loss or deduction that is disallowed for the taxable year of the discharge under section 1366(d)(1).

(4) Information requirements. If an S corporation excludes COD income from gross income under section 108(a) for a taxable year, each shareholder of the S corporation during the taxable year of the discharge must report to the S corporation the amount of the shareholder's losses and deductions that are disallowed for the taxable year of the discharge under section 1366(d)(1), even if that amount is zero. If a shareholder fails to report the amount of the shareholder's losses and deductions that are disallowed for the taxable year of the discharge under section 1366(d)(1) to the S corporation, or if the S corporation knows that the amount reported by the shareholder is inaccurate, or if the information, as reported, appears to be incomplete or incorrect, the S corporation may rely on its own books and records, as well as other information available to the S corporation, to determine the amount of the shareholder's losses and deductions that are disallowed for the taxable year of the discharge under section 1366(d)(1), provided that the S corporation knows or reasonably believes that its information presents an accurate reflection of the shareholder's disallowed losses and deductions under section 1366(d)(1). The S corporation must report to each shareholder the amount of the S corporation's excess deemed NOL that is allocated to that shareholder under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, even if that amount is zero, in accordance with applicable forms and instructions.

(e) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this section:

Example 1.

(i) Facts. In Year 4, X, a corporation in a title 11 case, is entitled under section 108(a)(1)(A) to exclude from gross income $100,000 of COD income. For Year 4, X has gross income in the amount of $50,000. In each of Years 1 and 2, X had no taxable income or loss. In Year 3, X had a net operating loss of $100,000, the use of which when carried over to Year 4 is not subject to any restrictions other than those of section 172.

(ii) Analysis. Pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, X takes into account the net operating loss carryover from Year 3 in computing its taxable income for Year 4 before any portion of the COD income excluded under section 108(a)(1)(A) is applied to reduce tax attributes. Thus, the amount of the net operating loss carryover that is reduced under section 108(b)(2) and paragraph (a) of this section is $50,000.

Example 2.

(i) Facts. The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that in Year 4 X sustains a net operating loss in the amount of $100,000. In addition, in each of Years 2 and 3, X reported taxable income in the amount of $25,000.

(ii) Analysis. Pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section and section 172, the net operating loss sustained in Year 4 is carried back to Years 2 and 3 before any portion of the COD income excluded under section 108(a)(1)(A) is applied to reduce tax attributes. Thus, the amount of the net operating loss that is reduced under section 108(b)(2) and paragraph (a) of this section is $50,000.

Example 3.

(i) Facts. In Year 2, X, a corporation in a title 11 case, has outstanding debts of $200,000 and a depreciable asset that has an adjusted basis of $75,000 and a fair market value of $100,000. X has no other assets or liabilities. X has a net operating loss of $80,000 that is carried over to Year 2 but has no general business credit, minimum tax credit, or capital loss carryovers. Under a plan of reorganization, X transfers its asset to Corporation Y in exchange for Y stock with a value of $100,000. X distributes the Y stock to its creditors in exchange for release of their claims against X. X's shareholders receive nothing in the transaction. The transaction qualifies as a reorganization under section 368(a)(1)(G) that satisfies the requirements of section 354(b)(1)(A) and (B). For Year 2, X has gross income of $10,000 (without regard to any income from the discharge of indebtedness) and is allowed a depreciation deduction of $10,000 in respect of the asset. In addition, it generates no general business credits.

(ii) Analysis. On the distribution of Y stock to X's creditors, under section 108(a)(1)(A), X is entitled to exclude from gross income the debt discharge amount of $100,000. (Under section 108(e)(8), X is treated as satisfying $100,000 of the debt owed the creditors for $100,000, the fair market value of the Y stock transferred to those creditors.) In Year 2, X has no taxable income or loss because its gross income is exactly offset by the depreciation deduction. As a result of the depreciation deduction, X's basis in the asset is reduced by $10,000 to $65,000. Pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the amount of X's net operating loss to which Y succeeds pursuant to section 381 and the basis of X's property transferred to Y must take into account the reductions required by section 108(b). Pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, X's net operating loss carryover in the amount of $80,000 is reduced by $80,000 of the COD income excluded under section 108(a)(1). In addition, X's basis in the asset is reduced by $20,000, the extent to which the COD income excluded under section 108(a)(1) did not reduce the net operating loss. Accordingly, as a result of the reorganization, there is no net operating loss to which Y succeeds under section 381. Pursuant to section 361, X recognizes no gain or loss on the transfer of its property to Y. Pursuant to section 362(b), Y's basis in the asset acquired from X is $45,000.

Example 4.

(i) Facts. The facts are the same as in Example 3, except that X elects under section 108(b)(5) to reduce first the basis of its depreciable asset.

(ii) Analysis. As in Example 3, on the distribution of Y stock to X's creditors, under section 108(a)(1)(A), X is entitled to exclude from gross income the debt discharge amount of $100,000. In addition, in Year 2, X has no taxable income or loss because its gross income is exactly offset by the depreciation deduction. As a result of the depreciation deduction, X's basis in the asset is reduced by $10,000 to $65,000. Pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the amount of X's net operating loss to which Y succeeds pursuant to section 381 and the basis of X's property transferred to Y must take into account the reductions required by section 108(b). As a result of the election under section 108(b)(5), X's basis in the asset is reduced by $65,000 to $0. In addition, X's net operating loss is reduced by $35,000, the extent to which the amount excluded from income under section 108(a)(1)(A) does not reduce X's asset basis. Accordingly, as a result of the reorganization, Y succeeds to X's net operating loss in the amount of $45,000 under section 381. Pursuant to section 361, X recognizes no gain or loss on the transfer of its property to Y. Pursuant to section 362(b), Y's basis in the asset acquired from X is $0.

Example 5.

(i) Facts. During the entire calendar year 2009, A, B, and C each own equal shares of stock in X, a calendar year S corporation. As of December 31, 2009, A, B, and C each have a zero stock basis and X does not have any indebtedness to A, B, or C. For the 2009 taxable year, X excludes from gross income $45,000 of COD income under section 108(a)(1)(A). The COD income (had it not been excluded) would have been allocated $15,000 to A, $15,000 to B, and $15,000 to C under section 1366(a). For the 2009 taxable year, X has $30,000 of losses and deductions that X passes through pro rata to A, B, and C in the amount of $10,000 each. The losses and deductions that pass through to A, B, and C are disallowed under section 1366(d)(1). In addition, B has $10,000 of section 1366(d) losses from prior years and C has $20,000 of section 1366(d) losses from prior years. A's ($10,000), B's ($20,000) and C's ($30,000) combined $60,000 of disallowed losses and deductions for the taxable year of the discharge are treated as a current year net operating loss tax attribute of X under section 108(d)(7)(B) (deemed NOL) for purposes of the section 108(b) reduction of tax attributes.

(ii) Allocation. Under section 108(b)(2)(A), X's $45,000 of excluded COD income reduces the $60,000 deemed NOL to $15,000. Therefore, X has a $15,000 excess net operating loss (excess deemed NOL) to allocate to its shareholders. Under paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(C) of this section, none of the $15,000 excess deemed NOL is allocated to A because A's section 1366(d) losses and deductions immediately prior to the section 108(b)(2)(A) reduction ($10,000) do not exceed A's share of the excluded COD income for 2008 ($15,000). Thus, A has no shareholder's excess amount. Each of B's and C's respective section 1366(d) losses and deductions immediately prior to the section 108(b)(2)(A) reduction exceed each of B's and C's respective shares of the excluded COD income for 2008. B's excess amount is $5,000 ($20,000−$15,000) and C's excess amount is $15,000 ($30,000−$15,000). Therefore, the total of all shareholders' excess amounts is $20,000. Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, X will allocate $3,750 of the $15,000 excess deemed NOL to B ($15,000 × $5,000/$20,000) and $11,250 of the $15,000 excess deemed NOL to C ($15,000 × $15,000/$20,000). These amounts are treated as losses and deductions disallowed under section 1366(d)(1) for the taxable year of the discharge. Accordingly, at the beginning of 2010, A has no section 1366(d)(2) carryovers, B has $3,750 of carryovers, and C has $11,250 of carryovers.

(iii) Character. Immediately prior to the section 108(b)(2)(A) reduction, B's $20,000 of section 1366(d) losses and deductions consisted of $8,000 of long-term capital losses, $7,000 of section 1231 losses, and $5,000 of ordinary losses. After the section 108(b)(2)(A) tax attribute reduction, X will allocate $3,750 of the excess deemed NOL to B. Under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the $3,750 excess deemed NOL allocated to B consists of $1,500 of long-term capital losses (($8,000/$20,000) × $3,750), $1,312.50 of section 1231 losses (($7,000/$20,000) × $3,750), and $937.50 of ordinary losses (($5,000/$20,000) × $3,750). As a result, at the beginning of 2010, B's $3,750 of section 1366(d)(2) carryovers consist of $1,500 of long-term capital losses, $1,312.50 of section 1231 losses, and $937.50 of ordinary losses.

Example 6.

(i) A and B each own 50 percent of the shares of stock in X, a calendar year S corporation. On March 1, 2009, X realizes $12,000 of COD income and excludes this amount from gross income under section 108(a)(1)(A) for X's 2009 taxable year. On June 30, 2009, A sells all of her shares of stock in X to C in a transfer not described in section 1041(a). X does not make a terminating election under section 1377(a)(2). The COD income (had it not been excluded) would have been allocated $3,000 to A, $6,000 to B, and $3,000 to C under section 1366(a). Prior to the section 108(b)(2)(A) reduction, for the taxable year of the discharge the shareholders have disallowed losses and deductions under section 1366(d) (including disallowed losses carried over to the current year under section 1366(d)(2)) in the following amounts: A—$5,000, B—$13,000, and C—$2,000. The combined $20,000 of disallowed losses and deductions for the taxable year of the discharge are treated as a current year net operating loss tax attribute of X under section 108(d)(7)(B) (deemed NOL).

(ii) Under section 108(b)(2)(A), X's $12,000 of excluded COD income reduces the $20,000 deemed NOL to $8,000. Therefore, X has an $8,000 excess net operating loss (excess deemed NOL) to allocate to its shareholders. Under paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(C) of this section, none of the $8,000 excess deemed NOL is allocated to C because C's section 1366(d) losses and deductions immediately prior to the section 108(b)(2)(A) reduction ($2,000) do not exceed C's share of the excluded COD income for 2008 ($3,000). However, each of A's and B's respective section 1366(d) losses and deductions immediately prior to the section 108(b)(2)(A) reduction exceed each of A's and B's respective shares of the excluded COD income for 2009. A's excess amount is $2,000 ($5,000−$3,000) and B's excess amount is $7,000 ($13,000−$6,000). Therefore, the total of all shareholders' excess amounts is $9,000. Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, X will allocate $1,777.78 of the $8,000 excess deemed NOL to A ($8,000 × $2,000/$9,000) and $6,222.22 of the $8,000 excess deemed NOL to B ($8,000 × $7,000/$9,000). However, because A transferred all of her shares of stock in X in a transaction not described in section 1041(a), A's $1,777.78 of section 1366(d) losses and deductions are permanently disallowed under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section. Accordingly, at the beginning of 2010, B has $6,222.22 of section 1366(d)(2) carryovers and C has no section 1366(d)(2) carryovers.

Example 7.

The facts are the same as in Example 6, except that X, with the consent of A and C, makes a terminating election under section 1377(a)(2) upon A's sale of her stock in X to C. Therefore, the COD income (had it not been excluded) would have been allocated $6,000 to A, $6,000 to B, and $0 to C. Under paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(C) of this section, none of the $8,000 excess deemed NOL is allocated to A because A's section 1366(d) losses and deductions immediately prior to the section 108(b)(2)(A) reduction ($5,000) do not exceed A's share of the excluded COD income for 2009 ($6,000). However, each of B's and C's respective section 1366(d) losses and deductions immediately prior to the section 108(b)(2)(A) reduction exceed each of B's and C's respective shares of the excluded COD income for 2009. B's excess amount is $7,000 ($13,000−$6,000), C's excess amount is $2,000 ($2,000−$0). Therefore, the total of all shareholders' excess amounts is $9,000. Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, X will allocate $6,222.22 of the $8,000 excess deemed NOL to B ($8,000 × $7,000/$9,000) and $1,777.78 of the $8,000 excess deemed NOL to C. Accordingly, at the beginning of 2010, B has $6,222.22 of section 1366(d)(2) carryovers and C has $1,777.78 of section 1366(d)(2) carryovers.

(f) Effective/applicability date—(1) Paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and Examples 1, 2, 3, and 4 of paragraph (e) of this section apply to discharges of indebtedness occurring on or after May 10, 2004.

(2) Paragraph (d) and Examples 5, 6, and 7 of paragraph (e) of this section apply to discharges of indebtedness occurring on or after October 30, 2009. Paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section applies on and after July 23, 2014. For rules that apply before that date, see 26 CFR part 1 (revised as of April 1, 2014).

[T.D. 9080, 68 FR 42592, July 18, 2003; 68 FR 56556, Oct. 1, 2003. Redesignated and amended by T.D. 9127, 69 FR 26039, May 11, 2004; T.D. 9469, 74 FR 56111, Oct. 30, 2009; T.D. 9682, 79 FR 42677, July 23, 2014]

§ 1.108-8 Indebtedness satisfied by partnership interest.

(a) In general. For purposes of determining income of a debtor from discharge of indebtedness (COD income), if a debtor partnership transfers a capital or profits interest in the partnership to a creditor in satisfaction of its recourse or nonrecourse indebtedness (a debt-for-equity exchange), the partnership is treated as having satisfied the indebtedness with an amount of money equal to the fair market value of the partnership interest.

(b) Determination of fair market value—(1) In general. All the facts and circumstances are considered in determining the fair market value of a partnership interest transferred by a debtor partnership to a creditor in satisfaction of the debtor partnership's indebtedness (debt-for-equity interest) for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section. If the fair market value of the debt-for-equity interest does not equal the fair market value of the indebtedness exchanged, then general tax law principles shall apply to account for the difference.

(2) Safe harbor—(i) General rule. For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the fair market value of a debt-for-equity interest is deemed to be equal to the liquidation value of the debt-for-equity interest, as defined in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section, if the following requirements are satisfied—

(A) The creditor, debtor partnership, and its partners treat the fair market value of the indebtedness as being equal to the liquidation value of the debt-for-equity interest for purposes of determining the tax consequences of the debt-for-equity exchange;

(B) If, as part of the same overall transaction, the debtor partnership transfers more than one debt-for-equity interest to one or more creditors, then each creditor, debtor partnership, and its partners treat the fair market value of each debt-for-equity interest transferred by the debtor partnership to such creditors as equal to its liquidation value;

(C) The debt-for-equity exchange is a transaction that has terms that are comparable to terms that would be agreed to by unrelated parties negotiating with adverse interests; and

(D) Subsequent to the debt-for-equity exchange, the debtor partnership does not redeem the debt-for-equity interest, and no person bearing a relationship to the debtor partnership or its partners that is specified in section 267(b) or section 707(b) purchases the debt-for-equity interest, as part of a plan at the time of the debt-for-equity exchange that has as a principal purpose the avoidance of COD income by the debtor partnership.

(ii) Tiered-partnership rule. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), the liquidation value of a debt-for-equity interest in a partnership (upper-tier partnership) that directly or indirectly owns an interest in one or more partnerships (lower-tier partnership(s)) is determined by taking into account the liquidation value of such lower-tier partnership interests.

(iii) Definition of liquidation value. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), the liquidation value of a debt-for-equity interest equals the amount of cash that the creditor would receive with respect to the debt-for-equity interest if, immediately after the debt-for-equity exchange, the partnership sold all of its assets (including goodwill, going concern value, and any other intangibles) for cash equal to the fair market value of those assets and then liquidated.

(c) Example. The following example illustrates the provisions of this section:

Example.

(i) AB partnership has $1,000 of outstanding indebtedness owed to C. C agrees to transfer to AB partnership the $1,000 indebtedness in a debt-for-equity exchange for a debt-for-equity interest in AB partnership. The liquidation value of C's debt-for-equity interest is $700, which is the amount of cash that C would receive with respect to that interest if, immediately after the debt-for-equity exchange, AB partnership sold all of its assets for cash equal to the fair market value of those assets and then liquidated. Each of the requirements of the liquidation value safe harbor described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is satisfied.

(ii) Because the requirements in paragraph (b)(2) of this section are satisfied, the fair market value of C's debt-for-equity interest in AB partnership for purposes of determining AB partnership's COD income is the liquidation value of C's debt-for-equity interest, or $700. Accordingly, AB partnership is treated as satisfying the $1,000 indebtedness for $700 under section 108(e)(8).

(d) Effective/applicability date. This section applies to debt-for-equity exchanges occurring on or after November 17, 2011.

[T.D. 9557, 76 FR 71258, Nov. 17, 2011]

§ 1.108-9 Application of the bankruptcy and the insolvency provisions of section 108 to grantor trusts and disregarded entities.

(a) General rule—(1) Owner is the taxpayer. For purposes of applying section 108(a)(1)(A) and (B) to discharge of indebtedness income of a grantor trust or a disregarded entity, neither the grantor trust nor the disregarded entity shall be considered to be the “taxpayer,” as that term is used in section 108(a)(1) and (d)(1) through (3). Rather, for purposes of section 108(a)(1)(A) and (B) and (d)(1) through (3) and subject to section 108(d)(6), the owner of the grantor trust or the owner of the disregarded entity is the “taxpayer.”

(2) The bankruptcy exclusion. If indebtedness of a grantor trust or a disregarded entity is discharged in a title 11 case, section 108(a)(1)(A) applies to that discharged indebtedness only if the owner of the grantor trust or the owner of the disregarded entity is under the jurisdiction of the court in a title 11 case as the title 11 debtor. If the grantor trust or the disregarded entity is under the jurisdiction of the court in a title 11 case as the title 11 debtor, but the owner of the grantor trust or the owner of the disregarded entity is not, section 108(a)(1)(A) does not apply to the discharge of indebtedness income.

(3) The insolvency exclusion. Section 108(a)(1)(B) applies to the discharged indebtedness of a grantor trust or a disregarded entity only to the extent the owner of the grantor trust or the owner of the disregarded entity is insolvent. If the grantor trust or the disregarded entity is insolvent, but the owner of the grantor trust or the owner of the disregarded entity is solvent, section 108(a)(1)(B) does not apply to the discharge of indebtedness income.

(b) Application to partnerships. Under section 108(d)(6), in the case of a partnership, section 108(a)(1)(A) and (B) applies at the partner level. If a partnership holds an interest in a grantor trust or a disregarded entity, the applicability of section 108(a)(1)(A) and (B) to the discharge of indebtedness income is tested by looking to each partner to whom the income is allocable.

(c) Definitions—(1) Disregarded entity. For purposes of this section, a disregarded entity is an entity that is disregarded as an entity separate from its owner for Federal income tax purposes. See § 301.7701-2(c)(2)(i) of this chapter, the Procedure and Administration Regulations. Examples of disregarded entities include a domestic single-member limited liability company that does not elect to be classified as a corporation for Federal income tax purposes pursuant to § 301.7701-3 of this chapter, a corporation that is a qualified REIT subsidiary (within the meaning of section 856(i)(2)), and a corporation that is a qualified subchapter S subsidiary (within the meaning of section 1361(b)(3)(B)).

(2) Grantor trust. For purposes of this section, a grantor trust is any portion of a trust that is treated under subpart E of part I of subchapter J of chapter 1 of subtitle A of title 26 of the United States Code as being owned by the grantor or another person.

(3) Owner. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section to the contrary, neither a grantor trust nor a disregarded entity shall be considered an owner for purposes of this section.

(4) Title 11 debtor. For purposes of this section, a title 11 debtor is a debtor in a case under title 11 of the United States Code, as defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(13).

(d) Applicability date. The rules of this section apply to discharge of indebtedness income occurring on or after June 10, 2016.

[T.D. 9771, 81 FR 37507, June 10, 2016]

§ 1.108(c)-1T [Reserved]

§ 1.108(i)-0 Definitions and effective/applicability dates.

(a) Definitions. For purposes of regulations under section 108(i)—

(1) Acquisition. An acquisition, with respect to any applicable debt instrument, includes an acquisition of the debt instrument for cash or other property, the exchange of the debt instrument for another debt instrument (including an exchange resulting from a modification of the debt instrument), the exchange of the debt instrument for corporate stock or a partnership interest, the contribution of the debt instrument to capital, the complete forgiveness of the indebtedness by the holder of the debt instrument, and a direct or an indirect acquisition within the meaning of § 1.108-2.

(2) Applicable debt instrument. An applicable debt instrument is a debt instrument that was issued by a C corporation or any other person in connection with the conduct of a trade or business by such person. In the case of an intercompany obligation (as defined in § 1.1502-13(g)(2)(ii)), applicable debt instrument includes only an instrument for which COD income is realized upon the instrument's deemed satisfaction under § 1.1502-13(g)(5).

(3) C corporation issuer. C corporation issuer means a C corporation that issues a debt instrument with any deferred OID deduction.

(4) C corporation partner. A C corporation partner is a C corporation that is a direct or indirect partner of an electing partnership or a related partnership.

(5) COD income. COD income means income from the discharge of indebtedness, as determined under sections 61(a)(12) and 108(a) and the regulations under those sections.

(6) COD income amount. A COD income amount is a partner's distributive share of COD income with respect to an applicable debt instrument of an electing partnership.

(7) Debt instrument. Debt instrument means a bond, debenture, note, certificate, or any other instrument or contractual arrangement constituting indebtedness (within the meaning of section 1275(a)(1)).

(8) Deferral period. For a reacquisition that occurs in 2009, deferral period means the taxable year of the reacquisition and the four taxable years following such taxable year. For a reacquisition that occurs in 2010, deferral period means the taxable year of the reacquisition and the three taxable years following such taxable year.

(9) Deferred amount. A deferred amount is the portion of a partner's COD income amount with respect to an applicable debt instrument that is deferred under section 108(i).

(10) Deferred COD income. Deferred COD income means COD income that is deferred under section 108(i).

(11) Deferred item. A deferred item is any item of deferred COD income or deferred OID deduction that has not been previously taken into account under section 108(i).

(12) Deferred OID deduction. A deferred OID deduction means an otherwise allowable deduction for OID that is deferred under section 108(i)(2) with respect to a debt instrument issued (or treated as issued under section 108(e)(4)) in a debt-for-debt exchange described in section 108(i)(2)(A) or a deemed debt-for-debt exchange described in § 1.108(i)-3(a).

(13) Deferred section 465 amount. A deferred section 465 amount is described in paragraph (d)(3) of § 1.108(i)-2.

(14) Deferred section 752 amount. A deferred section 752 amount is described in paragraph (b)(3) of § 1.108(i)-2.

(15) Direct partner. A direct partner is a person that owns a direct interest in a partnership.

(16) Electing corporation. An electing corporation is a C corporation with deferred COD income by reason of a section 108(i) election.

(17) Electing entity. An electing entity is an entity that is a taxpayer that makes an election under section 108(i).

(18) Electing member. An electing member is an electing corporation that is a member of an affiliated group that files a consolidated return.

(19) Electing partnership. An electing partnership is a partnership that makes an election under section 108(i).

(20) Electing S corporation. An electing S corporation is an S corporation that makes an election under section 108(i).

(21) Included amount. An included amount is the portion of a partner's COD income amount with respect to an applicable debt instrument that is not deferred under section 108(i) and is included in the partner's distributive share of partnership income for the taxable year of the partnership in which the reacquisition occurs.

(22) Inclusion period. The inclusion period is the five taxable years following the last taxable year of the deferral period.

(23) Indirect partner. An indirect partner is a person that owns an interest in a partnership through an S corporation and/or one or more partnerships.

(24) Issuing entity. An issuing entity is any entity that is—

(i) A related partnership;

(ii) A related S corporation;

(iii) An electing partnership that issues a debt instrument (or is treated as issuing a debt instrument under section 108(e)(4)) in a debt-for-debt exchange described in section 108(i)(2)(A) or a deemed debt-for-debt exchange described in § 1.108(i)-3(a); or

(iv) An electing S corporation that issues a debt instrument (or is treated as issuing a debt instrument under section 108(e)(4)) in a debt-for-debt exchange described in section 108(i)(2)(A) or a deemed debt-for-debt exchange described in § 1.108(i)-3(a).

(25) OID. OID means original issue discount, as determined under sections 1271 through 1275 (and the regulations under those sections). If the amount of OID with respect to a debt instrument is less than a de minimis amount as determined under § 1.1273-1(d), the OID is treated as zero for purposes of section 108(i)(2).

(26) Reacquisition. A reacquisition, with respect to any applicable debt instrument, is any event occurring after December 31, 2008 and before January 1, 2011, that causes COD income with respect to such applicable debt instrument, including any acquisition of the debt instrument by the debtor that issued (or is otherwise the obligor under) the debt instrument or a person related to such debtor (within the meaning of section 108(i)(5)(A)).

(27) Related partnership. A related partnership is a partnership that is related to the electing entity (within the meaning of section 108(i)(5)(A)) and that issues a debt instrument in a debt-for-debt exchange described in section 108(i)(2)(A) or a deemed debt-for-debt exchange described in § 1.108(i)-3(a).

(28) Related S corporation. A related S corporation is an S corporation that is related to the electing entity (within the meaning of section 108(i)(5)(A)) and that issues a debt instrument in a debt-for-debt exchange described in section 108(i)(2)(A) or a deemed debt-for-debt exchange described in § 1.108(i)-3(a).

(29) Separate interest. A separate interest is a direct interest in an electing partnership or in a partnership or S corporation that is a direct or indirect partner of an electing partnership.

(30) S corporation partner. An S corporation partner is an S corporation that is a direct or indirect partner of an electing partnership or a related partnership.

(b) Effective/Applicability dates—(1) In general. The rules of this section, § 1.108(i)-1, and § 1.108(i)-2, apply on or after July 2, 2013, to reacquisitions of applicable debt instruments in taxable years ending after December 31, 2008. In addition, the rules of § 1.108(i)-3 apply on or after July 2, 2013, to debt instruments issued after December 31, 2008, in connection with reacquisitions of applicable debt instruments in taxable years ending after December 31, 2008.

(2) Prior periods. For rules applying before July 2, 2013, see § 1.108(i)-0T, § 1.108(i)-1T, § 1.108(i)-2T, and § 1.108(i)-3T, as contained in 26 CFR part 1, revised April 1, 2013.

[T.D. 9622, 78 FR 39986, July 3, 2013; 78 FR 48607, Aug. 9, 2013]

§ 1.108(i)-1 Deferred discharge of indebtedness income and deferred original issue discount deductions of C corporations.

(a) Overview. Section 108(i)(1) provides an election for the deferral of COD income arising in connection with the reacquisition of an applicable debt instrument. An electing corporation generally includes deferred COD income ratably over the inclusion period. Paragraph (b) of this section provides rules for the mandatory acceleration of an electing corporation's remaining deferred COD income, the mandatory acceleration of a C corporation issuer's deferred OID deductions, and for the elective acceleration of an electing member's (other than the common parent's) remaining deferred COD income. Paragraph (c) of this section provides examples illustrating the application of the mandatory and elective acceleration rules. Paragraph (d) of this section provides rules for the computation of an electing corporation's earnings and profits. Paragraph (e) of this section refers to the effective/applicability dates.

(b) Acceleration events—(1) Deferred COD income. Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, and § 1.108(i)-2(b)(6) (in the case of a corporate partner), an electing corporation's deferred COD income is taken into account ratably over the inclusion period.

(2) Mandatory acceleration events. An electing corporation takes into account all of its remaining deferred COD income, including its share of an electing partnership's deferred COD income, immediately before the occurrence of any one of the events described in this paragraph (b)(2) (mandatory acceleration events), regardless of whether the electing corporation is in a title 11 or similar case at the time the mandatory acceleration event occurs.

(i) Changes in tax status. The electing corporation changes its tax status. For purposes of the preceding sentence, an electing corporation is treated as changing its tax status if it becomes one of the following entities:

(A) A tax-exempt entity as defined in § 1.337(d)-4(c)(2).

(B) An S corporation as defined in section 1361(a)(1).

(C) A qualified subchapter S subsidiary as defined in section 1361(b)(3)(B).

(D) An entity operating on a cooperative basis within the meaning of section 1381.

(E) A regulated investment company (RIC) as defined in section 851 or a real estate investment trust (REIT) as defined in section 856.

(F) A qualified REIT subsidiary as defined in section 856(i), but only if the qualified REIT subsidiary was not a REIT immediately before it became a qualified REIT subsidiary.

(ii) Cessation of corporate existence—(A) In general. The electing corporation ceases to exist for Federal income tax purposes.

(B) Exception for section 381(a) transactions—(1) In general. The electing corporation is not treated as ceasing to exist and is not required to take into account its remaining deferred COD income solely because its assets are acquired in a transaction to which section 381(a) applies. In such a case, the acquiring corporation succeeds to the electing corporation's remaining deferred COD income and becomes subject to section 108(i) and the regulations thereunder, including all reporting requirements, as if the acquiring corporation were the electing corporation. A transaction is not treated as one to which section 381(a) applies for purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) in the following circumstances—

(i) The acquisition of the assets of an electing corporation by an S corporation, if the acquisition is described in section 1374(d)(8);

(ii) The acquisition of the assets of an electing corporation by a RIC or REIT, if the acquisition is described in § 1.337(d)-7(a)(2)(ii);

(iii) The acquisition of the assets of a domestic electing corporation by a foreign corporation;

(iv) The acquisition of the assets of a foreign electing corporation by a domestic corporation, if as a result of the transaction, one or more exchanging shareholders include in income as a deemed dividend the all earnings and profits amount with respect to stock in the foreign electing corporation pursuant to § 1.367(b)-3(b)(3);

(v) The acquisition of the assets of an electing corporation by a tax-exempt entity as defined in § 1.337(d)-4(c)(2); or

(vi) The acquisition of the assets of an electing corporation by an entity operating on a cooperative basis within the meaning of section 1381.

(2) Special rules for consolidated groups—(i) Liquidations. For purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, the acquisition of assets by distributee members of a consolidated group upon the liquidation of an electing corporation is not treated as a transaction to which section 381(a) applies, unless immediately prior to the liquidation, one of the distributee members owns stock in the electing corporation meeting the requirements of section 1504(a)(2) (without regard to § 1.1502-34). See § 1.1502-80(g).

(ii) Taxable years. In the case of an intercompany transaction to which section 381(a) applies, the transaction does not cause the transferor or distributor to have a short taxable year for purposes of determining the taxable year of the deferral and inclusion period.

(iii) Net value acceleration rule—(A) In general. The electing corporation engages in an impairment transaction and, immediately after the transaction, the gross value of the electing corporation's assets (gross asset value) is less than one hundred and ten percent of the sum of its total liabilities and the tax on the net amount of its deferred items (the net value floor) (the net value acceleration rule). Impairment transactions are any transactions, however effected, that impair an electing corporation's ability to pay the amount of Federal income tax liability on its deferred COD income and include, for example, distributions (including section 381(a) transactions), redemptions, below-market sales, charitable contributions, and the incurrence of additional indebtedness without a corresponding increase in asset value. Value-for-value sales or exchanges (for example, an exchange to which section 351 or section 721 applies), or mere declines in the market value of the electing corporation's assets are not impairment transactions. In addition, an electing corporation's investments and expenditures in pursuance of its good faith business judgment are not impairment transactions. For purposes of determining an electing corporation's gross asset value, the amount of any distribution that is not treated as an impairment transaction under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(D) of this section (distributions and charitable contributions consistent with historical practice) or under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(E) of this section (special rules for RICs and REITs) is treated as an asset of the electing corporation. Solely for purposes of computing the amount of the net value floor, the tax on the deferred items is determined by applying the highest rate of tax specified in section 11(b) for the taxable year.

(B) Transactions integrated. Any transaction that occurs before the reacquisition of an applicable debt instrument, but that occurs pursuant to the same plan as the reacquisition, is taken into account in determining whether the gross asset value of the electing corporation is less than the net value floor.

(C) Corrective action to restore net value. An electing corporation is not required to take into account its deferred COD income under the net value acceleration rule of paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section if, before the due date of the electing corporation's return (including extensions), value is restored in a transaction in an amount equal to the lesser of—

(1) The amount of value that was removed from the electing corporation in one or more impairment transactions (net of amounts previously restored under this paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(C)); or

(2) The amount by which the electing corporation's net value floor exceeds its gross asset value.

For example, assume an electing corporation incurs $50 of debt, distributes the $50 of proceeds to its shareholder, and immediately after the distribution, the electing corporation's gross asset value is below the net value floor by $25. The electing corporation may avoid the inclusion of its remaining deferred COD income if value of at least $25 is restored to it before the due date of the electing corporation's tax return (including extensions) for the taxable year that includes the distribution. The value that must be restored is determined at the time of the impairment transaction on a net value basis (for example, additional borrowings by an electing corporation do not restore value).

(D) Exceptions for distributions and charitable contributions that are consistent with historical practice. An electing corporation's distributions are not treated as impairment transactions (and are not taken into account as a reduction of the electing corporation's gross asset value when applying the net value acceleration rule to any impairment transaction), to the extent that the distributions are described in section 301(c) and the amount of these distributions, in the aggregate, for the applicable taxable year (applicable distribution amount) does not exceed the annual average amount of section 301(c) distributions over the preceding three taxable years (average distribution amount). If an electing corporation's applicable distribution amount exceeds its average distribution amount (excess amount), then the amount of the impairment transaction equals the excess amount. Appropriate adjustments must be made to take into account any issuances or redemptions of stock, or similar transactions, occurring during the taxable year of distribution or any of the preceding three taxable years. If the electing corporation has a short taxable year for the year of the distribution or for any of the preceding three taxable years, the amounts are determined on an annualized basis. If an electing corporation has been in existence for less than three years, the period during which the electing corporation has been in existence is substituted for the preceding three taxable years. For purposes of determining an electing corporation's average distribution amount, the electing corporation does not take into account the distribution history of a distributor or transferor in a transaction to which section 381(a) applies (other than a transaction described in section 368(a)(1)(F)). Rules similar to those prescribed in this paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(D) also apply to an electing corporation's charitable contributions (within the meaning of section 170(c)) that are consistent with its historical practice.

(E) Special rules for RICs and REITs—(1) Distributions. Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(D) of this section, in the case of a RIC or REIT, any distribution with respect to stock that is treated as a dividend under section 852 or 857 is not treated as an impairment transaction (and is not taken into account as a reduction in gross asset value when applying the net value acceleration rule to any impairment transaction).

(2) Redemptions by RICs. Any redemption of a redeemable security, as defined in 15 U.S.C. section 80a-2(a)(32), by a RIC in the ordinary course of business is not treated as an impairment transaction (and is not taken into account as a reduction in gross asset value when applying the net value acceleration rule to any impairment transaction).

(F) Special rules for consolidated groups—(1) Impairment transactions and net value acceleration rule. In the case of an electing member, the determination of whether the member has engaged in an impairment transaction is made on a group-wide basis. An electing member is treated as engaging in an impairment transaction if any member's transaction impairs the group's ability to pay the tax liability associated with all electing members' deferred COD income. Accordingly, intercompany transactions are not impairment transactions. Similarly, the net value acceleration rule is applied by reference to the gross asset value of all members (excluding stock of members whether or not described in section 1504(a)(4)), the liabilities of all members, and the tax on all members' deferred items. For example, assume P is the common parent of the P-S consolidated group, S has a section 108(i) election in effect, and S makes a $100 distribution to P which, on a separate entity basis, would reduce S's gross asset value below the net value floor. S's intercompany distribution to P is not an impairment transaction. However, if P makes a $100 distribution to its shareholder, P's distribution is an impairment transaction (unless the distribution is consistent with its historical practice under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(D) of this section), and the net value acceleration rule is applied by reference to the assets, liabilities, and deferred items of the P-S group.

(2) Departing member. If an electing member that previously engaged in one or more impairment transactions on a separate entity basis ceases to be a member of a consolidated group (departing member), the cessation is treated as an impairment transaction and the net value acceleration rule under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section is applied to the departing member on a separate entity basis immediately after ceasing to be a member (and taking into account the impairment transaction(s) that occurred on a separate entity basis). If the departing member's gross asset value is below the net value floor, the departing member's remaining deferred COD income is taken into account immediately before the departing member ceases to be a member (unless value is restored under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(C) of this section). If the departing member's deferred COD income is not accelerated, the departing member is subject to the reporting requirements of section 108(i) on a separate entity basis. If the departing member becomes a member of another consolidated group, the cessation is treated as an impairment transaction and the net value acceleration rule under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section is applied by reference to the assets, liabilities, and the tax on deferred items of the members of the acquiring group immediately after the transaction. If the acquiring group's gross asset value is below the net value floor, the departing member's remaining deferred COD income is taken into account immediately before the departing member ceases to be a member (unless value is restored under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(C) of this section). If the departing member's remaining deferred COD income is not accelerated, the common parent of the acquiring group succeeds to the reporting requirements of section 108(i) with respect to the departing member.

(3) Elective acceleration for certain consolidated group members—(i) In general. An electing member (other than the common parent) of a consolidated group may elect at any time to accelerate in full (and not in part) the inclusion of its remaining deferred COD income with respect to all applicable debt instruments by filing a statement described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section. Once made, an election to accelerate deferred COD income under this paragraph (b)(3) is irrevocable.

(ii) Time and manner for making election—(A) In general. The election to accelerate the inclusion of an electing member's remaining deferred COD income with respect to all applicable debt instruments is made on a statement attached to a timely filed tax return (including extensions) for the year in which the deferred COD income is taken into account. The election is made by the common parent on behalf of the electing member. See § 1.1502-77(a).

(B) Additional information. The statement must include—

(1) Label. A label entitled “SECTION 1.108(i)-1 ELECTION AND INFORMATION STATEMENT BY [INSERT NAME AND EMPLOYER IDENTIFICATION NUMBER OF THE ELECTING MEMBER]”; and

(2) Required Information. An identification of each applicable debt instrument to which an election under this paragraph (b)(3) applies and the corresponding amount of—

(i) Deferred COD income that is accelerated under this paragraph (b)(3); and

(ii) Deferred OID deductions that are accelerated under paragraph (b)(4) of this section.

(4) Deferred OID deductions—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section and § 1.108(i)-2(b)(6) (in the case of a C corporation partner), a C corporation issuer's deferred OID deductions are taken into account ratably over the inclusion period.

(ii) OID acceleration events. A C corporation issuer takes into account all of its remaining deferred OID deductions with respect to a debt instrument immediately before the occurrence of any one of the events described in this paragraph (b)(4)(ii), regardless of whether the C corporation issuer is in a title 11 or similar case.

(A) Inclusion of deferred COD income. An electing entity or its owners take into account all of the remaining deferred COD income to which the C corporation issuer's deferred OID deductions relate. If, under § 1.108(i)-2(b) or (c), an electing entity or its owners take into account only a portion of the deferred COD income to which the deferred OID deductions relate, then the C corporation issuer takes into account a proportionate amount of the remaining deferred OID deductions.

(B) Changes in tax status. The C corporation issuer changes its tax status within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.

(C) Cessation of corporate existence—(1) In general. The C corporation issuer ceases to exist for Federal income tax purposes.

(2) Exception for section 381(a) transactions—(i) In general. A C corporation issuer is not treated as ceasing to exist and does not take into account its remaining deferred OID deductions in a transaction to which section 381(a) applies, taking into account the application of § 1.1502-34, as appropriate. See § 1.1502-80(g). This exception does not apply to a transaction that is not treated as one to which section 381(a) applies under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(B)(1) of this section.

(ii) Taxable years. In the case of an intercompany transaction to which section 381(a) applies, the transaction does not cause the transferor or distributor to have a short taxable year for purposes of determining the taxable year of the deferral and inclusion period.

(c) Examples. The application of this section is illustrated by the following examples. Unless otherwise stated, P, S, S1, and X are domestic C corporations, and each files a separate return on a calendar year basis:

Example 1. Net value acceleration rule.

(i) Facts. On January 1, 2009, S reacquires its own note and realizes $400 of COD income. Pursuant to an election under section 108(i), S defers recognition of the entire $400 of COD income. Therefore, absent a mandatory acceleration event, S will take into account $80 of its deferred COD income in each year of the inclusion period. On December 31, 2010, S makes a $25 distribution to its sole shareholder, P, and this is the only distribution made by S in the past four years. Immediately following the distribution, S's gross asset value is $100, S has no liabilities, and the Federal income tax on S's $400 of deferred COD income is $140. Accordingly, S's net value floor is $154 (110% × $140).

(ii) Analysis. Under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, S's distribution is an impairment transaction. Immediately following the distribution, S's gross asset value of $100 is less than the net value floor of $154. Accordingly, under the net value acceleration rule of paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, S takes into account its $400 of deferred COD income immediately before the distribution.

(iii) Corrective action to restore value. The facts are the same as in paragraph (i) of this Example 1, except that P contributes assets with a value of $25 to S before the due date of S's 2010 return (including extensions). Because P restores $25 of value to S (the lesser of the amount of value removed in the distribution ($25) or the amount by which S's net value floor exceeds its gross asset value ($54)), under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(C) of this section, S does not take into account its $400 of deferred COD income.

Example 2. Distributions consistent with historical practice.

(i) Facts. P, a publicly traded corporation, makes a valid section 108(i) election with respect to COD income realized in 2009. On December 31, 2009, P distributes $25 million on its 5 million shares of common stock outstanding. As of January 1, 2006, P has 10 million shares of common stock outstanding, and on March 31, 2006, P distributes $10 million on those 10 million shares. On September 15, 2006, P effects a 2:1 reverse stock split, and on December 31, 2006, P distributes $10 million on its 5 million shares of common stock outstanding. In each of 2007 and 2008, P distributes $5 million on its 5 million shares of common stock outstanding. All of the distributions are described in section 301(c).

(ii) Amount of impairment transaction. Under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(D) of this section, P's 2009 distributions are not treated as impairment transactions (and are not taken into account as a reduction of P's gross asset value when applying the net value acceleration rule to any impairment transaction), to the extent that the aggregate amount distributed in 2009 (the applicable distribution amount) does not exceed the annual average amount of distributions (the average distribution amount) over the preceding three taxable years. Accordingly, P's applicable distribution amount for 2009 is $25 million, and its average distribution amount is $10 million ($20 million (2006) plus $5 million (2007) plus $5 million (2008) divided by 3). The reverse stock split in 2006 is not a transaction requiring an adjustment to the determination of the average distribution amount. Because P's applicable distribution amount of $25 million exceeds its average distribution amount of $10 million, under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(D) of this section, the amount of P's 2009 distribution that is treated as an impairment transaction is $15 million. The balance of the 2009 distribution, $10 million, is not treated as an impairment transaction (and is not taken into account as a reduction in P's gross asset value when applying the net value acceleration rule to any impairment transaction).

(iii) Distribution history. The facts are the same as in paragraph (i) of this Example 2, except that in 2010, P merges into X in a transaction to which section 381(a) applies, with X succeeding to P's deferred COD income, and X makes a distribution to its shareholders. For purposes of determining whether X's distribution is consistent with its historical practice, the average distribution amount is determined solely with respect to X's distribution history.

Example 3. Cessation of corporate existence.

(i) Transaction to which section 381(a) applies. P owns all of the stock of S. In 2009, S reacquires its own note and elects to defer recognition of its $400 of COD income under section 108(i). On December 31, 2010, S liquidates into P in a transaction that qualifies under section 332. Under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, S must take into account all of its remaining deferred COD income upon the occurrence of any one of the mandatory acceleration events. Although S ceases its corporate existence as a result of the liquidation, S is not required to take into account its remaining deferred COD income under the exception in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section because its assets are acquired in a transaction to which section 381(a) applies. However, under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, S's distribution to P is an impairment transaction and the net value acceleration rule is applied with respect to the assets, liabilities, and deferred items of P (S's successor) immediately following the distribution. If S's deferred COD income is not taken into account under the net value acceleration rule of (b)(2)(iii) of this section, P succeeds to S's remaining deferred COD income and to S's reporting requirements as if P were the electing corporation.

(ii) Debt-laden distributee. The facts are the same as in paragraph (i) of this Example 3, except that in the liquidation, S distributes $100 of assets to P, a holding company whose only asset is its stock in S. Assume that immediately following the distribution, P's gross asset value is $100, P has $60 of liabilities, and the Federal income tax on the $400 of deferred COD income is $140. Under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, S must take into account all of its remaining deferred COD income upon the occurrence of any one of the mandatory acceleration events. Although S ceases its corporate existence as a result of the liquidation, S is not required to take into account its remaining deferred COD income under the exception in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section because its assets are acquired in a transaction to which section 381(a) applies. However, under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, S's distribution to P is an impairment transaction and the net value acceleration rule is applied with respect to the assets, liabilities, and deferred items of P (S's successor). Immediately following the distribution, P's gross asset value of $100 is less than the net value floor of $220 [110% × ($60 + $140)]. Accordingly, under the net value acceleration rule of paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, S is required to take into account its $400 of deferred COD income immediately before the distribution, unless value is restored to P pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(C) of this section.

(iii) Foreign acquirer. The facts are the same as in paragraph (i) of this Example 3, except that P is a foreign corporation. Although S's assets are acquired in a transaction to which section 381(a) applies, under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B)(1)(iii) of this section, the exception to accelerated inclusion does not apply and S takes into account its remaining deferred COD income immediately before the liquidation. See also section 367(e)(2) and the regulations thereunder.

(iv) Section 338 transaction. P, the common parent of a consolidated group (P group), owns all the stock of S1, one of the members of the P group. In 2009, S1 reacquires its own indebtedness and realizes $30 of COD income. Pursuant to an election under section 108(i), S1 defers recognition of the entire $30 of COD income. In 2010, P sells all the stock of S1 to X, an unrelated corporation, for $300, and P and X make a timely section 338(h)(10) election with respect to the sale. Under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, an electing corporation takes into account its remaining deferred COD income when it ceases its existence for Federal income tax purposes unless the exception in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section applies. Pursuant to section 338(h)(10) and the regulations, S1 is treated as transferring all of its assets to an unrelated person in exchange for consideration that includes the discharge of its liabilities. This deemed value-for-value exchange is not an impairment transaction. Following the deemed sale, while S1 is still a member of the P group, S1 is treated as distributing all of its assets to P and as ceasing its existence. Under these facts, the distribution of all of S1's assets constitutes a deemed liquidation, and is a transaction to which sections 332 and 381(a) apply. Although S1 ceases its corporate existence as a result of the liquidation, S1 is not required to take into account its remaining deferred COD income under the exception in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section because its assets are acquired in a transaction to which section 381(a) applies. P succeeds to S1's remaining deferred COD income and to S1's reporting requirements as if P were the electing corporation. Under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(F)(1) of this section, the intercompany distribution from S1 to P is not an impairment transaction.

(d) Earnings and profits—(1) In general. Deferred COD income increases earnings and profits in the taxable year that it is realized and not in the taxable year or years that the deferred COD income is includible in gross income. Deferred OID deductions decrease earnings and profits in the taxable year or years in which the deduction would be allowed without regard to section 108(i).

(2) Exceptions—(i) RICs and REITs. Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1) of this section, deferred COD income increases earnings and profits of a RIC or REIT in the taxable year or years in which the deferred COD income is includible in gross income and not in the year that the deferred COD income is realized. Deferred OID deductions decrease earnings and profits of a RIC or REIT in the taxable year or years that the deferred OID deductions are deductible.

(ii) Alternative minimum tax. For purposes of calculating alternative minimum taxable income, any items of deferred COD income or deferred OID deduction increase or decrease, respectively, adjusted current earnings under section 56(g)(4) in the taxable year or years that the item is includible or deductible.

(e) Effective/applicability dates. For effective/applicability dates, see § 1.108(i)-0(b).

[T.D. 9622, 78 FR 39987, July 3, 2013; 78 FR 48607, Aug. 9, 2013]

§ 1.108(i)-2 Application of section 108(i) to partnerships and S corporations.

(a) Overview. Under section 108(i), a partnership or an S corporation may elect to defer COD income arising in connection with a reacquisition of an applicable debt instrument for the deferral period. COD income deferred under section 108(i) is included in gross income ratably over the inclusion period, or earlier upon the occurrence of any acceleration event described in paragraph (b)(6) or (c)(3) of this section. If a debt instrument is issued (or treated as issued under section 108(e)(4)) in a debt-for-debt exchange described in section 108(i)(2)(A) or a deemed debt-for-debt exchange described in § 1.108(i)-3(a), some or all of the deductions for OID with respect to such debt instrument must be deferred during the deferral period. The aggregate amount of OID deductions deferred during the deferral period is generally allowed as a deduction ratably over the inclusion period, or earlier upon the occurrence of any acceleration event described in paragraph (b)(6) or (c)(3) of this section. Paragraph (b) of this section provides rules that apply to partnerships. Paragraph (c) of this section provides rules that apply to S corporations. Paragraph (d) of this section provides general rules that apply to partnerships and S corporations. Paragraph (e) of this section provides election procedures and reporting requirements. Paragraph (f) of this section contains the effective/applicability date. See § 1.108(i)-0(a) for definitions that apply to this section.

(b) Specific rules applicable to partnerships—(1) Allocation of COD income and partner's deferred amounts. An electing partnership that defers any portion of COD income realized from a reacquisition of an applicable debt instrument under section 108(i) must allocate all of the COD income with respect to the applicable debt instrument to its direct partners that are partners in the electing partnership immediately before the reacquisition in the manner in which the income would be included in the distributive shares of the partners under section 704 and the regulations under section 704, including § 1.704-1(b)(2)(iii), without regard to section 108(i). The electing partnership may determine, in any manner, the portion, if any, of a partner's COD income amount with respect to an applicable debt instrument that is the deferred amount, and the portion, if any, that is the included amount. However, no partner's deferred amount with respect to an applicable debt instrument may exceed that partner's COD income amount with respect to such applicable debt instrument, and the aggregate amount of the partners' COD income amounts and deferred amounts with respect to each applicable debt instrument must equal the electing partnership's COD income amount and deferred amount, respectively, with respect to each such applicable debt instrument.

(2) Basis adjustments and capital account maintenance—(i) Basis adjustments. The adjusted basis of a partner's interest in a partnership is not increased under section 705(a)(1) by the partner's deferred amount in the taxable year of the reacquisition. The adjusted basis of a partner's interest in a partnership is not decreased under section 705(a)(2) by the partner's share of any deferred OID deduction in the taxable year in which the deferred OID accrues. The adjusted basis of a partner's interest in a partnership is adjusted under section 705(a) by the partner's share of the electing partnership's deferred items for the taxable year in which the partner takes into account such deferred items under this section.

(ii) Capital account maintenance. For purposes of maintaining a partner's capital account under § 1.704-1(b)(2)(iv) and notwithstanding § 1.704-1(b)(2)(iv)(n), the capital account of a partner of a partnership is adjusted under § 1.704-1(b)(2)(iv) for a partner's share of an electing partnership's deferred items as if no election under section 108(i) were made.

(3) Deferred section 752 amount—(i) In general. An electing partnership shall determine, for each of its direct partners with a deferred amount, the partner's deferred section 752 amount, if any, with respect to an applicable debt instrument. A partner's deferred section 752 amount with respect to an applicable debt instrument equals the decrease in the partner's share of a partnership liability under section 752(b) resulting from the reacquisition of the applicable debt instrument that is not treated as a current distribution of money under section 752(b) by reason of section 108(i)(6) (deferred section 752 amount). A partner's deferred section 752 amount is treated as a distribution of money by the partnership to the partner under section 752(b) at the same time and, to the extent remaining, in the same amount as the partner recognizes the deferred amount with respect to the applicable debt instrument.

(ii) Electing partnership's computation of a partner's deferred section 752 amount. To compute a partner's deferred section 752 amount, the electing partnership must first determine the amount of gain that its direct partner would recognize in the taxable year of a reacquisition under section 731 as a result of the reacquisition of one or more applicable debt instruments during the taxable year absent the deferral provided in the second sentence of section 108(i)(6) (the section 108(i)(6) deferral). If a direct partner of an electing partnership would not recognize any gain under section 731 as a result of the reacquisition of one or more applicable debt instruments during the taxable year absent the section 108(i)(6) deferral, the partner will not have a deferred section 752 amount with respect to any applicable debt instrument that is reacquired during the taxable year. If a direct partner of an electing partnership would recognize gain under section 731 as a result of the reacquisition of one or more applicable debt instruments during the taxable year absent the section 108(i)(6) deferral, the partner's deferred section 752 amount for all applicable debt instruments that are reacquired during the taxable year is equal to the lesser of the partner's aggregate deferred amounts from the electing partnership for all applicable debt instruments reacquired during the taxable year, or the gain that the partner would recognize in the taxable year of the reacquisitions under section 731 as a result of the reacquisitions absent the section 108(i)(6) deferral. In determining the amount of gain that the direct partner would recognize in the taxable year of a reacquisition under section 731 as a result of the reacquisition of one or more applicable debt instruments during the taxable year absent the section 108(i)(6) deferral, the rule under § 1.731-1(a)(1)(ii) applies to any deemed distribution of money under section 752(b) resulting from a decrease in the partner's share of a reacquired applicable debt instrument that is treated as an advance or drawing of money. The amount of any deemed distribution of money under section 752(b) resulting from a decrease in the partner's share of a reacquired applicable debt instrument that is treated as an advance or drawing of money under § 1.731-1(a)(1)(ii) is determined as if no COD income resulting from the reacquisition of the applicable debt instrument is deferred under section 108(i).

(iii) Multiple section 108(i) elections. If a direct partner of an electing partnership has a deferred section 752 amount under paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section for the taxable year of a reacquisition, and the partner has a deferred amount with respect to more than one applicable debt instrument from the electing partnership for which a section 108(i) election is made in that taxable year, the partner's deferred section 752 amount with respect to each such applicable debt instrument equals the partner's deferred section 752 amount as determined under paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, multiplied by a ratio, the numerator of which is the partner's deferred amount with respect to such applicable debt instrument, and the denominator of which is the partner's aggregate deferred amounts from the electing partnership for all applicable debt instruments reacquired during the taxable year.

(iv) Electing partnership's request for information. At the request of an electing partnership, each direct partner of the electing partnership that has a deferred amount with respect to such partnership must provide to the electing partnership a written statement containing information requested by the partnership that is necessary to determine the partner's deferred section 752 amount (such as the partner's adjusted basis in the partner's interest in the electing partnership). The written statement must be signed under penalties of perjury and provided to the requesting partnership within 30 days of the date of the request by the electing partnership.

(v) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules under paragraph (b)(3) of this section:

Example 1.

(i) A and B each hold a 50 percent interest in Partnership, a calendar-year partnership. As of January 1, 2009, A and B each have an adjusted basis of $50 in their partnership interests. Partnership has two applicable debt instruments outstanding, debt one of $300 and debt two of $200. A and B share equally in the debt for section 752(b) purposes. On March 1, 2009, debt one is cancelled and Partnership realizes $300 of COD income. On December 1, 2009, debt two is cancelled and Partnership realizes $200 of COD income. The Partnership has no other income or loss items for 2009. A and B are each allocated $150 of COD income from debt one and $100 of COD income from debt two. Partnership makes an election under section 108(i) to defer $225 of the $300 of COD income realized from the reacquisition of debt one, $150 of which is A's deferred amount, and $75 of which is B's deferred amount. Partnership also makes an election under section 108(i) to defer $125 of the $200 of COD income realized from the reacquisition of debt two, $100 of which is A's deferred amount, and $25 of which is B's deferred amount. A has no included amount for either debt. B has an included amount of $75 with respect to debt one and an included amount of $75 with respect to debt two for 2009.

(ii) Under paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the amount of gain that A would recognize under section 731 as a result of the reacquisitions absent the section 108(i)(6) deferral is $200. Thus, A's deferred section 752 amount with respect to debt one and debt two equals $200 (the lesser of A's aggregate deferred amounts with respect to debt one and debt two of $250, or gain that A would recognize under section 731 in 2009, as a result of the reacquisitions absent the section 108(i)(6) deferral, of $200). Under paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, $120 of A's $200 deferred section 752 amount relates to debt one ($200 × $150/$250) and $80 relates to debt two ($200 × $100/$250).

(iii) Under paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the amount of gain that B would recognize under section 731 as a result of the reacquisitions absent the section 108(i)(6) deferral is $50. Thus, B's deferred section 752 amount with respect to debt one and debt two equals $50 (the lesser of B's aggregate deferred amounts with respect to debt one and debt two of $100, or gain that B would recognize under section 731 in 2009, as a result of the reacquisitions absent the section 108(i)(6) deferral, of $50). Under paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, $37.50 of B's $50 deferred section 752 amount relates to debt one ($50 × $75/$100) and $12.50 relates to debt two ($50 × $25/$100).

(iv) A will recognize $50 of deferred COD income ($30 with respect to debt one and $20 with respect to debt two) in each of the five taxable years of the inclusion period, provided there are no earlier acceleration events under paragraph (b)(6) of this section. Under paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, A will be treated as receiving a $30 deemed distribution under section 752(b) with respect to debt one and a $20 deemed distribution with respect to debt two in each of the first, second, third, and fourth taxable years of the inclusion period. A will not have any remaining deferred section 752 amounts in the fifth taxable year of the inclusion period.

(v) B will recognize $20 of deferred COD income ($15 with respect to debt one and $5 with respect to debt two) in each of the five taxable years of the inclusion period, provided there are no earlier acceleration events under paragraph (b)(6) of this section. Under paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, B will be treated as receiving a $15 deemed distribution under section 752(b) with respect to debt one and a $5 deemed distribution with respect to debt two in the first and second taxable year of the inclusion period, and a $7.50 deemed distribution under section 752(b) with respect to debt one ($10 × $15/$20) and a $2.50 deemed distribution with respect to debt two ($10 × $5/$20) in the third taxable year of the inclusion period. B will not have any remaining deferred section 752 amounts in the fourth and fifth taxable years of the inclusion period.

Example 2.

(i) The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that Partnership has gross income for the year (including the $500 of COD income) of $700 and other separately stated losses of $500. A's and B's distributive share of each item is 50 percent.

(ii) In determining the amount of gain that A would recognize under section 731 as a result of the reacquisitions absent the section 108(i)(6) deferral, Partnership first increases A's $50 adjusted basis in his interest in Partnership by A's distributive share of Partnership income (other than the deferred amounts relating to debt one and debt two) of $100, and then decreases A's adjusted basis in Partnership by deemed distributions under section 752(b) of $250 and, thereafter, by A's distributive share of Partnership losses of $250, but only to the extent that A's basis is not reduced below zero. Under paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the amount of gain that A would recognize under section 731 as a result of the reacquisitions absent section 108(i)(6) deferral is $100. Thus, A's deferred section 752 amount with respect to debt one and debt two equals $100 (the lesser of A's aggregate deferred amounts with respect to debt one and debt two of $250, or gain that A would recognize under section 731 as a result of the reacquisitions absent the deferral section 108(i)(6) deferral of $100). Under paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, A's deferred section 752 amount with respect to debt one is $60 ($100 × $150/$250), and A's deferred section 752 amount with respect to debt two is $40 ($100 × $100/$250). A's $250 of Partnership losses are suspended under section 704(d).

(iii) In determining the amount of gain that B would recognize under section 731 as a result of the reacquisitions absent the section 108(i)(6) deferral, Partnership first increases B's $50 adjusted basis in his interest in Partnership by B's distributive share of Partnership income (other than the deferred amounts relating to debt one and debt two) of $250 ($100 other income plus $150 included amount with respect to debt one and debt two), and then decreases B's adjusted basis in Partnership by deemed distributions under section 752(b) of $250 and, thereafter, by B's distributive share of Partnership losses of $250, but only to the extent that B's basis is not reduced below zero. Under paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, B would not recognize any gain under section 731 as a result of the reacquisitions absent the section 108(i)(6) deferral. Thus, B has no deferred section 752 amount with respect to either debt one or debt two. B may deduct his distributive share of Partnership losses to the extent of $50, with the remaining $200 suspended under section 704(d).

(4) Tiered partnerships—(i) In general. If a partnership (upper-tier partnership) is a direct or indirect partner of an electing partnership and directly or indirectly receives an allocation of a COD income amount from the electing partnership, all or a portion of which is deferred under section 108(i), the upper-tier partnership must allocate its COD income amount to its partners that are partners in the upper-tier partnership immediately before the reacquisition in the manner in which the income would be included in the distributive shares of the partners under section 704 and the regulations under section 704, including § 1.704-1(b)(2)(iii), without regard to section 108(i). The upper-tier partnership may determine, in any manner, the portion, if any, of a partner's COD income amount with respect to an applicable debt instrument that is the deferred amount, and the portion, if any, that is the included amount. However, no partner's deferred amount with respect to an applicable debt instrument may exceed that partner's COD income amount with respect to such applicable debt instrument, and the aggregate amount of the partners' COD income amounts and deferred amounts with respect to each applicable debt instrument must equal the upper-tier partnership's COD income amount and deferred amount, respectively, with respect to each such applicable debt instrument.

(ii) Deferred section 752 amount. The computation of a partner's deferred section 752 amount, as described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, is calculated only for direct partners of the electing partnership. An upper-tier partnership's deferred section 752 amount with respect to an applicable debt instrument of the electing partnership is allocated only to those partners of the upper-tier partnership that have a deferred amount with respect to that applicable debt instrument, and in proportion to such partners' share of the upper-tier partnership's deferred amount with respect to that applicable debt instrument. A partner's share of the upper-tier partnership's deferred section 752 amount with respect to an applicable debt instrument must not exceed that partner's share of the upper-tier partnership's deferred amount with respect to the applicable debt instrument to which the deferred section 752 amount relates. The deferred section 752 amount of a partner of an upper-tier partnership is treated as a distribution of money by the upper-tier partnership to the partner under section 752(b), at the same time and, to the extent remaining, in the same amount as the partner recognizes the deferred amount with respect to the applicable debt instrument.

(iii) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules under paragraph (b)(4) of this section:

Example 1.

(i) PRS, a calendar-year partnership, has two equal partners, A, an individual, and XYZ, a partnership. As of January 1, 2009, A and XYZ each have an adjusted basis of $50 in their partnership interests. PRS has a $500 applicable debt instrument outstanding. On June 1, 2009, the creditor agrees to cancel the $500 indebtedness. PRS realizes $500 of COD income as a result of the reacquisition. PRS has no other income or loss items for 2009. PRS makes an election under section 108(i) to defer $200 of the $500 of COD income. PRS allocates the $500 of COD income equally between its partners ($250 each). PRS determines that, for each partner, $100 of the COD income amount is the deferred amount, and $150 is the included amount. For 2009, each of A's and XYZ's share of the decrease in PRS's reacquired applicable debt instrument is $250.

(ii) XYZ has two equal partners, individuals X and Y. X and Y share equally in XYZ's liabilities. XYZ allocates the $250 COD income amount from PRS equally between X and Y ($125 each). XYZ determines that X has a deferred amount of $100 and an included amount of $25. All $125 of Y's COD income amount is Y's included amount. For 2009, each of X's and Y's share of XYZ's $250 decrease in liability with respect to the reacquired applicable debt instrument of PRS is $125.

(iii) Under paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, PRS determines that XYZ has a deferred section 752 amount of $50. Therefore, for 2009, of XYZ's $250 share of the decrease in PRS's reacquired applicable debt instrument, $200 is treated as a deemed distribution under section 752(b) and $50 is the deferred section 752 amount.

(iv) Under paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, none of XYZ's $50 deferred section 752 amount is allocated to Y because Y does not have a deferred amount with respect to the reacquired applicable debt interest. XYZ's entire $50 of deferred section 752 amount is allocated to X. Therefore, of X's $125 share of the XYZ's decrease in liability with respect to the reacquired applicable debt instrument of PRS, $75 is treated as a deemed distribution under section 752(b) and $50 is X's deferred section 752 amount. Y's $125 share of XYZ's decrease in liability with respect to the reacquired applicable debt instrument of PRS is treated as a deemed distribution under section 752(b) and none is a deferred section 752 amount.

Example 2.

(i) The facts are the same as in Example 1, except for the following: XYZ has three partners, X, Y, and Z. The profits and losses of XYZ are shared 25 percent by X, 25 percent by Y, and 50 percent by Z. XYZ allocates its $250 COD income amount from PRS $62.50 to each of X and Y, and $125 to Z. XYZ determines that X has a deferred amount of $50 and an included amount of $12.50, Y has a deferred amount of $0 and an included amount of $62.50, and Z has a deferred amount of $50 and an included amount of $75 with respect to the applicable debt instrument. X's, Y's, and Z's share of XYZ's decrease in liability with respect to the reacquired applicable debt instrument of PRS is $62.50, $62.50 and $125, respectively.

(ii) Under paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, none of XYZ's $50 deferred section 752 amount is allocated to Y because Y does not have a deferred amount with respect to the reacquired applicable debt instrument. XYZ's $50 deferred section 752 amount is allocated to X and Z in proportion to X's and Z's share of XYZ's deferred amount, or $25 each ($50 × ($50/$100)). Therefore, of X's $62.50 share of XYZ's decrease in liability with respect to the reacquired applicable debt instrument, $37.50 is treated as a deemed distribution under section 752(b) and $25 is X's deferred section 752 amount. All of Y's $62.50 share of XYZ's decrease in liability with respect to the reacquired applicable debt instrument is treated as a deemed distribution under section 752(b). Of Z's $125 share of XYZ's decrease in liability with respect to the reacquired applicable debt instrument, $100 is treated as a deemed distribution under section 752(b) and $25 is Z's deferred section 752 amount.

(5) S corporation partner—(i) In general. If an S corporation partner has a deferred amount with respect to an applicable debt instrument of an electing partnership, such deferred amount is shared pro rata only among those shareholders that are shareholders of the S corporation partner immediately before the reacquisition of the applicable debt instrument.

(ii) Basis adjustments. The adjusted basis of a shareholder's stock in an S corporation partner is not increased under section 1367(a)(1) by the shareholder's share of the S corporation partner's deferred amount in the taxable year of the reacquisition. The adjusted basis of a shareholder's stock in an S corporation partner is not decreased under section 1367(a)(2) by the shareholder's share of the S corporation partner's deferred OID deduction in the taxable year in which the deferred OID accrues. The adjusted basis of a shareholder's stock in an S corporation partner is adjusted under section 1367(a) by the shareholder's share of the S corporation partner's share of the electing partnership's deferred items for the taxable year in which the shareholder takes into account its share of such deferred items under this section.

(iii) Accumulated adjustments account. The accumulated adjustments account (AAA), as defined in section 1368(e)(1), of an S corporation partner that has a deferred amount with respect to an applicable debt instrument of an electing partnership is not increased by its deferred amount in the taxable year of the reacquisition. The AAA of an S corporation partner is not decreased by its share of any deferred OID deduction in the taxable year in which the deferred OID accrues. The AAA of an S corporation partner is adjusted under section 1368(e) by a shareholder's share of the S corporation partner's share of the electing partnership's deferred items for the S period (as defined in section 1368(e)(2)) in which the shareholder of the S corporation partner takes into account its share of the deferred items under this section.

(6) Acceleration of deferred items—(i) Electing partnership-level events

(A) General rules. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(6)(iii) of this section, a direct or indirect partner's share of an electing partnership's deferred items is accelerated and must be taken into account by such partner—

(1) In the taxable year in which the electing partnership liquidates;

(2) In the taxable year in which the electing partnership sells, exchanges, transfers (including contributions and distributions), or gifts substantially all of its assets;

(3) In the taxable year in which the electing partnership ceases doing business; or

(4) In the taxable year that includes the day before the day on which the electing partnership files a petition in a title 11 or similar case.

(B) Substantially all requirement. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(6), substantially all of a partnership's assets means assets representing at least 90 percent of the fair market value of the net assets, and at least 70 percent of the fair market value of the gross assets, held by the partnership immediately prior to the sale, exchange, transfer, or gift. For purposes of applying the rule in paragraph (b)(6)(i)(A)(2) of this section, a sale, exchange, transfer, or gift by any direct or indirect lower-tier partnership of the electing partnership (lower-tier partnership) of all or part of its assets is not treated as a sale, exchange, transfer, or gift of the assets of any partnership that holds, directly or indirectly, an interest in such lower-tier partnership. However, for purposes of applying the rule in paragraph (b)(6)(i)(A)(2) of this section, a sale, exchange, transfer, or gift of substantially all of the assets of a transferee partnership (as described in paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(A)(1) of this section), or of a lower-tier partnership that received assets of the electing partnership from a transferee partnership or another lower-tier partnership in a transaction governed all or in part by section 721, is treated as a sale, exchange, transfer, or gift by the holder of an interest in such transferee partnership or lower-tier partnership of its entire interest in that transferee partnership or lower-tier partnership.

(ii) Direct or indirect partner-level events—(A) General rules. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(6)(iii) of this section, a direct or indirect partner's share of an electing partnership's deferred items with respect to a separate interest is accelerated and must be taken into account by such partner in the taxable year in which—

(1) The partner dies or liquidates;

(2) The partner sells, exchanges (including redemptions treated as exchanges under section 302), transfers (including contributions and distributions), or gifts (including transfers treated as gifts under section 1041) all or a portion of its separate interest;

(3) The partner's separate interest is redeemed within the meaning of paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(B)(2) of this section; or

(4) The partner abandons its separate interest.

(B) Meaning of terms; special rules—(1) Partial transfers. For purposes of paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A)(2) of this section, if a partner sells, exchanges (including redemptions treated as exchanges under section 302), transfers (including contributions and distributions), or gifts (including transfers treated as gifts under section 1041) a portion of its separate interest, such partner's share of the electing partnership's deferred items with respect to the separate interest proportionate to the separate interest sold, exchanged, transferred, or gifted is accelerated and must be taken into account by such partner.

(2) Redemptions. For purposes of paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A)(3) of this section, a partner's separate interest is redeemed if the partner receives a distribution of cash and/or property in complete liquidation of such separate interest.

(3) S corporation partners. In addition to the rules in paragraphs (b)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, an S corporation partner's share of the electing partnership's deferred items is accelerated and the shareholders of the S corporation partner must take into account their respective shares of the S corporation partner's share of the electing partnership's deferred items in the taxable year in which the S corporation partner's election under section 1362(a) terminates.

(4) C corporation partners. In addition to the rules in paragraphs (b)(6)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section, the acceleration rules in § 1.108(i)-1(b) and the earnings and profits rules in § 1.108(i)-1(d) apply to partners that are electing corporations.

(iii) Events not constituting acceleration. Notwithstanding the rules in paragraphs (b)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, a direct or indirect partner's share of an electing partnership's deferred items with respect to a separate interest is not accelerated by any of the events described in this paragraph (b)(6)(iii).

(A) Section 721 contributions—(1) Electing partnership contributions. A direct or indirect partner's share of an electing partnership's deferred items is not accelerated if the electing partnership contributes all or a portion of its assets in a transaction governed all or in part by section 721(a) to another partnership (transferee partnership) in exchange for an interest in the transferee partnership provided that the electing partnership does not terminate under section 708(b)(1)(A) or transfer its assets and liabilities in a transaction described in section 708(b)(2)(A) or section 708(b)(2)(B). See paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(D) of this section for transactions governed by section 708(b)(2)(A). Notwithstanding the rules in this paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(A)(1), the rules in paragraphs (b)(6)(i)(A) and (b)(6)(ii)(A) of this section apply to any part of the transaction to which section 721(a) does not apply.

(2) Partner contributions. A direct or indirect partner's share of an electing partnership's deferred items with respect to a separate interest is not accelerated if the holder of such interest (contributing partner) contributes its entire separate interest (contributed separate interest) in a transaction governed all or in part by section 721(a) to another partnership (transferee partnership) in exchange for an interest in the transferee partnership provided that the partnership in which the separate interest is held does not terminate under section 708(b)(1)(A) or transfer its assets and liabilities in a transaction described in section 708(b)(2)(A) or section 708(b)(2)(B). See paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(D) of this section for transactions governed by section 708(b)(2)(A). The transferee partnership becomes subject to section 108(i), including all reporting requirements under this section, with respect to the contributing partner's share of the electing partnership's deferred items associated with the contributed separate interest. The transferee partnership must allocate and report the share of the electing partnership's deferred items that is associated with the contributed separate interest to the contributing partner to the same extent that such share of the electing partnership's deferred items would have been allocated and reported to the contributing partner in the absence of such contribution. Notwithstanding the rules in this paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(A)(2), the rules in paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A) of this section apply to any part of the transaction to which section 721(a) does not apply.

(B) Section 1031 exchanges. A direct or indirect partner's share of the electing partnership's deferred items is not accelerated if the electing partnership transfers property held for productive use in a trade or business or for investment in exchange for property of like kind which is to be held either for productive use in a trade or business or for investment in a transaction to which section 1031(a)(1) applies. Notwithstanding the rules in this paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(B), to the extent the electing partnership receives money or other property which does not meet the requirements of section 1031(a) (boot) in the exchange, a proportionate amount of the property transferred by the electing partnership equal to the proportion of the boot to the total consideration received in the exchange shall be treated as sold for purposes of paragraph (b)(6)(i)(A)(2) of this section.

(C) Section 708(b)(1)(B) terminations. A direct or indirect partner's share of the deferred items of an electing partnership with respect to a separate interest is not accelerated if the electing partnership or a partnership that is a direct or indirect partner of the electing partnership terminates under section 708(b)(1)(B). Notwithstanding the rules in this paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(C), the rules in paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A) of this section apply to the event that causes the termination under section 708(b)(1)(B) to the extent not otherwise excepted under paragraph (b)(6)(iii) of this section.

(D) Section 708(b)(2)(A) mergers or consolidations. A direct or indirect partner's share of the deferred items of an electing partnership with respect to a separate interest is not accelerated if the partnership in which the separate interest is held (the merger transaction partnership) merges into or consolidates with another partnership in a transaction to which section 708(b)(2)(A) applies. The resulting partnership or new partnership, as determined under § 1.708-1(c)(1), becomes subject to section 108(i), including all reporting requirements under this section, to the same extent that the merger transaction partnership was so subject prior to the transaction, and must allocate and report any merger transaction partnership's deferred items to the same extent and to the same partners that the merger transaction partnership allocated and reported such items prior to such transaction. Notwithstanding the rules in this paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(D), the rules in paragraphs (b)(6)(i)(A)(2) and (b)(6)(ii)(A)(2) of this section apply to that portion of the transaction that is treated as a sale, and the rules of (b)(6)(ii)(A)(3) apply if, as part of the transaction, the partner's separate interest is redeemed and the partner does not receive an interest in the resulting partnership with respect to such separate interest.

(E) Certain distributions of separate interests. If a partnership (upper-tier partnership) that is a direct or indirect partner of an electing partnership distributes its entire separate interest (distributed separate interest) to one or more of its partners (distributee partners) that have a share of the electing partnership's deferred items from upper-tier partnership with respect to the distributed separate interest, the distributee partners' shares of the electing partnership's deferred items with respect to such distributed separate interest are not accelerated. The partnership, the separate interest in which was distributed, must allocate and report the share of the electing partnership's deferred items associated with the distributed separate interest only to such distributee partners that had a share of the electing partnership's deferred items from the upper-tier partnership with respect to the distributed separate interest prior to the distribution. This paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(E) does not apply if the electing partnership terminates under section 708(b)(1)(A).

(F) Section 381 transactions. A C corporation partner's share of an electing partnership's deferred items is not accelerated if, as part of a transaction described in paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A) of this section, the assets of the C corporation partner are acquired by another C corporation (acquiring C corporation) in a transaction that is treated, under § 1.108(i)-1(b)(2)(ii)(B), as a transaction to which section 381(a) applies. An S corporation partner's share of an electing partnership's deferred items is not accelerated if, as part of a transaction described in paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A) of this section, the assets of the S corporation partner are acquired by another S corporation (acquiring S corporation) in a transaction to which section 381(a) applies. In such cases, the acquiring C corporation or acquiring S corporation, as the case may be, succeeds to the C corporation partner's or the S corporation partner's remaining share of the electing partnership's deferred items and becomes subject to section 108(i), including all reporting requirements under this section, as if the acquiring C corporation or acquiring S corporation were the C corporation partner or the S corporation partner, respectively. The acquiring S corporation must allocate and report the S corporation partner's deferred items to the same extent as the S corporation partner would have been required to allocate and report those deferred items, and only to those shareholders of the S corporation partner who had a share of the S corporation partner's deferred items from the electing partnership prior to the transaction. This paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(F) does not apply if the electing partnership terminates under section 708(b)(1)(A).

(G) Intercompany transfers. A C corporation partner's share of an electing partnership's deferred items is not accelerated if, as part of a transaction described in paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A) of this section, the C corporation partner transfers its entire separate interest in an intercompany transaction, as described in § 1.1502-13(b)(1)(i), and the electing partnership does not terminate under section 708(b)(1)(A) as a result of the intercompany transaction.

(H) Retirement of a debt instrument. See § 1.108(i)-3(c)(1) for rules regarding the retirement of a debt instrument that is subject to section 108(i).

(I) Other non-acceleration events. A direct or indirect partner's share of an electing partnership's deferred items is not accelerated with respect to any transaction if the Commissioner makes a determination by published guidance that such transaction is not an acceleration event under the rules of this paragraph (b)(6).

(iv) Related partnerships. A direct or indirect partner's share of a related partnership's deferred OID deduction (as determined in paragraph (d)(2) of this section) that has not previously been taken into account is accelerated and taken into account by the direct or indirect partner in the taxable year in which, and to the extent that, the deferred COD income to which the related partnership's deferred OID deduction relates is taken into account by the electing entity or its owners.

(v) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules under this paragraph (b)(6):

Example 1.

Meaning of “separate interest.”

(i) Electing partnership (EP) has three partners, MT1, MT2, and UT, each of which is a partnership. The partners of MT1 are X and UT. The partners of MT2 are Y, UT, and B. The partners of UT are A, B, and C. In addition to their interests in the partnerships noted, MT1, MT2, and UT own other assets.

(ii) Within the meaning of paragraph (a)(29) of § 1.108(i)-0, A and C each hold one separate interest (their interests in UT), B holds two separate interests (its interests in UT and MT2), UT holds three separate interests (its interests in MT1, MT2, and EP), MT1 and MT2 each hold one separate interest (their interests in EP), and X and Y each hold one separate interest (their interests in MT1 and MT2, respectively) with respect to EP.

Example 2.

Distributions of separate interests in an electing partnership.

(i) The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that A, as a direct partner of UT, has a share of EP's deferred items with respect to UT's interests in MT1 and EP. A does not have a share of EP's deferred items with respect to UT's interest in MT2. B, as a direct partner of UT, has a share of EP's deferred items with respect to UT's interest in MT1 and MT2, but not with respect to UT's interest in EP. B also has a share of EP's deferred items with respect to its separate interest in MT2. C does not have any share of EP's deferred items with respect to UT's interest in MT1, MT2, or EP.

(ii) UT distributes 40 percent of its separate interest in MT1 to A in redemption of A's interest in UT. Under paragraphs (b)(6)(ii)(A)(2) and (b)(6)(ii)(B)(1) of this section, a portion of UT's interest in MT1 has been transferred and a corresponding portion (40 percent) of UT's share of EP's deferred items from MT1 is accelerated. Thus, 40 percent of A's and B's share of EP's deferred items from UT with respect to UT's interest in MT1 is accelerated. Further, because A's interest in UT is redeemed within the meaning of paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(B)(2) of this section, all of A's shares of EP's deferred items from UT are accelerated under paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A)(3) of this section. UT continues to allocate and report to B its remaining share of EP's deferred items from its separate interest in MT1 that was not distributed to A.

(iii) UT distributes its entire separate interest in MT1 to B (other than in redemption of B's interest in UT). Under paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A)(2) of this section, UT's share of EP's deferred items from MT1 would be accelerated. However, because UT distributes its entire separate interest in MT1 to B, B's share of EP's deferred items from UT with respect to UT's separate interest in MT1 is not accelerated under paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(E) of this section. MT1 allocates and reports to B B's share of EP's deferred items from UT's separate interest in MT1 that was distributed to B.

(iv) UT distributes its entire separate interest in MT1 to A and B (other than in redemption of their interests in UT). Under paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(E) of this section, none of A's or B's shares of EP's deferred items from UT with respect to UT's separate interest in MT1 is accelerated, and MT1 allocates and reports to A and B their respective share of EP's deferred items from UT's separate interest in MT1 that was distributed to A and B.

Example 3.

Partial sale of interest by an indirect partner.

(i) Individual A holds a 50 percent partnership interest in UTP, a partnership that holds a 50 percent interest in EP, a partnership that makes an election to defer COD income under section 108(i). A's share of UTP's deferred amount with respect to EP's election under section 108(i) is $100. During a taxable year within the deferral period, A sells 25 percent of his partnership interest in UTP to an unrelated third party.

(ii) Under paragraphs (b)(6)(ii)(A)(2) and (b)(6)(ii)(B)(1) of this section, 25 percent of A's $100 deferred amount is accelerated as a result of A's partial sale of his interest in UTP. Thus, A must recognize $25 of his deferred amount in the taxable year of the sale. A's remaining deferred amount is $75.

Example 4.

Section 708(b)(1)(B) termination of electing partnership.

(i) A and B are equal partners in partnership AB. On January 1, 2009, AB reacquires an applicable debt instrument and makes an election under section 108(i) to defer $400 of COD income. A and B each have a deferred amount with respect to the applicable debt instrument of $200. On January 1, 2010, A sells its entire 50 percent interest in AB to C in a transfer that terminates the partnership under section 708(b)(1)(B).

(ii) Under paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(C) of this section, the technical termination of AB under section 708(b)(1)(B) does not cause A's or B's shares of AB's deferred items to be accelerated. However, A's $200 deferred amount is accelerated under paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A)(2) of this section as a result of the sale.

Example 5.

Section 708(b)(2)(A) mergers.

(i) A, B, and C are equal partners in partnership X, which has made an election under section 108(i) to defer $150 of COD income. The fair market value of each interest in partnership X is $100. A, B, and C each has a deferred amount of $50 with respect to partnership X's election under section 108(i). E, F, and G are partners in partnership Y. Partnership X and partnership Y merge in a taxable year during the deferral period of partnership X's election under section 108(i). Under section 708(b)(2)(A), the resulting partnership is considered a continuation of partnership Y and partnership X is considered terminated. Under state law, partnerships X and Y undertake the assets-over form of § 1.708-1(c)(3)(i) to accomplish the merger. C does not want to become a partner in partnership Y, and partnership X does not have the resources to redeem C's interest before the merger. C, partnership X, and partnership Y enter into a merger agreement that satisfies the requirements of § 1.708-1(c)(4) and specifies that partnership Y will purchase C's interest in partnership X for $100 before the merger, and as part of the agreement, C consents to treat the transaction in a manner that is consistent with the agreement. As part of the merger, partnership X receives from partnership Y $100 (which will be distributed to C immediately before the merger), $100 (which will be distributed equally to A and B ($50 each)), and interests in partnership Y with a value of $100 (which will be distributed equally to A and B) in exchange for partnership X's assets and liabilities.

(ii) Under the general rule of paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(D) of this section, and except as provided below, the deferred items of partnership X are not accelerated as a result of the merger with partnership Y. Partnership Y, the resulting partnership that is considered the continuation of partnership X, becomes subject to section 108(i), including all reporting requirements under section 108(i), to the same extent that partnership X was subject to such rules. Under paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(D) of this section, partnership Y must allocate and report partnership X's deferred items to A and B in the same manner as partnership X had prior to the merger transaction.

(iii) Under § 1.708-1(c)(4), C is treated as selling its interest in partnership X immediately before the merger. As a result, C's $50 deferred amount is accelerated under paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A)(2) of this section.

(iv) Under section 707(a)(2)(B), partnership X is deemed to have sold a portion of its assets to partnership Y. Because partnership X is not treated as selling substantially all of its assets under paragraph (b)(6)(i)(B) of this section, A's and B's deferred amounts are not accelerated under paragraph (b)(6)(i)(A)(2) of this section.

(v) Because A's and B's interests in partnership X are redeemed within the meaning of paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(B)(2) of this section, all of their shares of partnership X's deferred items would be accelerated under paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(A)(3). However, because they receive an interest in partnership Y in the merger, none of A's and B's share of partnership X's deferred items is accelerated.

(7) Withholding under section 1446. See section 1446 regarding withholding by a partnership on a foreign partner's share of income effectively connected with a U.S. trade or business.

(c) Specific rules applicable to S corporations—(1) Deferred COD income. An electing S corporation's COD income deferred under section 108(i) (an S corporation's deferred COD income) is shared pro rata among those shareholders that are shareholders of the electing S corporation immediately before the reacquisition of the applicable debt instrument. Any COD income deferred under section 108(i) is taken into account under section 1366(a) by those shareholders in the inclusion period, or earlier upon the occurrence of an acceleration event described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.

(2) Basis adjustments and accumulated adjustments account—(i) Basis adjustments. The adjusted basis of a shareholder's stock in an electing S corporation is not increased under section 1367(a)(1) by the shareholder's share of the S corporation's deferred COD income in the taxable year of the reacquisition. The adjusted basis of a shareholder's stock in an electing S corporation or a related S corporation is not decreased under section 1367(a)(2) by the shareholder's share of the S corporation's deferred OID deduction in the taxable year in which the deferred OID accrues. The adjusted basis of a shareholder's stock in an electing S corporation or a related S corporation is adjusted under section 1367(a) by the shareholder's share of the S corporation's deferred items for the taxable year in which the shareholder takes into account its share of the deferred items under this section.

(ii) Accumulated adjustments account. The AAA of an electing S corporation is not increased by the S corporation's deferred COD income in the taxable year of a reacquisition. The AAA of an electing S corporation or a related S corporation is not decreased by the S corporation's deferred OID deduction in the taxable year in which the deferred OID accrues. The AAA of an electing S corporation or a related S corporation is adjusted under section 1368(e) by a shareholder's share of the S corporation's deferred items for the S period (as defined in section 1368(e)(2)) in which a shareholder of the S corporation takes into account its share of the deferred items under this section.

(3) Acceleration of deferred items—(i) Electing S corporation-level events—(A) General rules. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section, a shareholder's share of an electing S corporation's deferred items is accelerated and must be taken into account by such shareholder—

(1) In the taxable year in which the electing S corporation liquidates;

(2) In the taxable year in which the electing S corporation sells, exchanges, transfers (including contributions and distributions), or gifts substantially all of its assets;

(3) In the taxable year in which the electing S corporation ceases doing business;

(4) In the taxable year in which the electing S corporation's election under section 1362(a) terminates; or

(5) In the taxable year that includes the day before the day on which the electing S corporation files a petition in a title 11 or similar case.

(B) Substantially all requirement. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3), substantially all of an electing S corporation's or partnership's assets means assets representing at least 90 percent of the fair market value of the net assets, and at least 70 percent of the fair market value of the gross assets, held by the S corporation or partnership immediately prior to the sale, exchange, transfer, or gift. For purposes of applying the rule in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A)(2) of this section, a sale, exchange, transfer, or gift by any direct or indirect lower-tier partnership of the electing S corporation (lower-tier partnership) of all or part of its assets is not treated as a sale, exchange, transfer, or gift of the assets of any person that holds, directly or indirectly, an interest in such lower-tier partnership. However, for purposes of applying the rule in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A)(2) of this section, a sale, exchange, transfer, or gift of substantially all of the assets of a transferee partnership (as described in paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(A) of this section), or of a lower-tier partnership that received assets of the electing S corporation from a transferee partnership of the electing S corporation or another lower-tier partnership in a transaction governed all or in part by section 721, is treated as a sale, exchange, transfer, or gift by the holder of an interest in such transferee partnership or lower-tier partnership of its entire interest in that transferee partnership or lower-tier partnership.

(ii) Shareholder events—(A) General rules. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section, a shareholder's share of an electing S corporation's deferred items is accelerated and must be taken into account by such shareholder in the taxable year in which—

(1) The shareholder dies;

(2) The shareholder sells, exchanges (including redemptions treated as exchanges under section 302), transfers (including contributions and distributions), or gifts (including transfers treated as gifts under section 1041) all or a portion of its interest in the electing S corporation; or

(3) The shareholder abandons its interest in the electing S corporation.

(B) Partial transfers. For purposes of paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A)(2) of this section, if a shareholder of an electing S corporation sells, exchanges (including redemptions treated as exchanges under section 302), transfers (including contributions or distributions), or gifts (including transfers treated as gifts under section 1041) a portion of its interest in the electing S corporation, such shareholder's share of the electing S corporation's deferred items proportionate to the interest that was sold, exchanged, transferred, or gifted is accelerated and must be taken into account by such shareholder.

(iii) Events not constituting acceleration. Notwithstanding the rules in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, a shareholder's share of an electing S corporation's deferred items is not accelerated by any of the events described in this paragraph (c)(3)(iii).

(A) Electing S corporation's contributions. A shareholder's share of an electing S corporation's deferred items is not accelerated if the electing S corporation contributes all or a portion of its assets in a transaction governed all or in part by section 721(a) to a partnership (transferee partnership) in exchange for an interest in the transferee partnership. Notwithstanding the rules in this paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(A), the rules in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A) of this section apply to any part of the transaction to which section 721(a) does not apply.

(B) Section 1031 exchanges. A shareholder's share of an electing S corporation's deferred items is not accelerated if the electing S corporation transfers property held for productive use in a trade or business or for investment in exchange for property of like kind which is to be held either for productive use in a trade or business or for investment in a transaction to which section 1031(a)(1) applies. Notwithstanding the rules in this paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(B), to the extent the electing S corporation receives money or other property which does not meet the requirements of section 1031(a) (boot) in the exchange, a proportionate amount of the property transferred by the electing S corporation equal to the proportion of the boot to the total consideration received in the exchange shall be treated as sold for purposes of paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A)(2) of this section.

(C) Section 381 transactions. A shareholder's share of an electing S corporation's deferred items is not accelerated if, as part of a transaction described in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A) of this section, the electing S corporation's assets are acquired by another S corporation (acquiring S corporation) in a transaction to which section 381(a) applies. In such a case, the acquiring S corporation succeeds to the electing S corporation's remaining deferred items and becomes subject to section 108(i), including all reporting requirements under this section, as if the acquiring S corporation were the electing S corporation. The acquiring S corporation must allocate and report the electing S corporation's deferred items to the same extent that the electing S corporation would have been required to allocate and report those deferred items, and only to those shareholders who had a share of the electing S corporation's deferred items prior to the transaction.

(D) Retirement of a debt instrument. See § 1.108(i)-3(c)(1) for rules regarding the retirement of a debt instrument that is subject to section 108(i).

(E) Other non-acceleration events. A shareholder's share of an electing S corporation's deferred items is not accelerated with respect to any transaction if the Commissioner makes a determination by published guidance that such transaction is not an acceleration event under the rules of this paragraph (c)(3).

(iv) Related S corporations. A shareholder's share of a related S corporation's deferred OID deduction (as determined in paragraph (d)(2) of this section) that has not previously been taken into account is accelerated and taken into account by the shareholder in the taxable year in which, and to the extent that, deferred COD income to which the related S corporation's deferred OID deduction relates is taken into account by the electing entity or its owners.

(d) General rules applicable to partnerships and S corporations—(1) Applicable debt instrument (trade or business requirement). The determination of whether a debt instrument issued by a partnership or an S corporation is treated as a debt instrument issued in connection with the conduct of a trade or business by the partnership or S corporation for purposes of this section is based on all the facts and circumstances. However, a debt instrument issued by a partnership or an S corporation shall be treated as an applicable debt instrument for purposes of this section if the electing partnership or electing S corporation can establish that—

(i) The gross fair market value of the trade or business assets of the partnership or S corporation that issued the debt instrument represented at least 80 percent of the gross fair market value of that partnership's or S corporation's total assets on the date of issuance;

(ii) The trade or business expenditures of the partnership or S corporation that issued the debt instrument represented at least 80 percent of the partnership's or S corporation's total expenditures for the taxable year of issuance;

(iii) At least 95 percent of interest paid or accrued on the debt instrument issued by the partnership or S corporation was allocated to one or more trade or business expenditures under § 1.163-8T for the taxable year of issuance;

(iv) At least 95 percent of the proceeds from the debt instrument issued by the partnership or S corporation were used by the partnership or S corporation to acquire one or more trades or businesses within six months from the date of issuance; or

(v) The partnership or S corporation issued the debt instrument to a seller of a trade or business to acquire the trade or business.

(2) Deferral of OID at entity level—(i) In general. For each taxable year during the deferral period, an issuing entity determines the amount of its deferred OID deduction with respect to a debt instrument, if any. An issuing entity's deferred OID deduction for a taxable year is the lesser of:

(A) The OID that accrues in a current taxable year during the deferral period with respect to the debt instrument (less any of such OID that is allowed as a deduction in the current taxable year as a result of an acceleration event), or

(B) The excess, if any, of the electing entity's deferred COD income (less the aggregate amount of such deferred COD income that has been included in income in the current taxable year and any previous taxable year during the deferral period) over the aggregate amount of OID that accrued in previous taxable years during the deferral period with respect to the debt instrument (less the aggregate amount of such OID that has been allowed as a deduction in the current taxable year and any previous taxable year during the deferral period).

(ii) Excess deferred OID deduction. If, as a result of an acceleration event during a taxable year in the deferral period, an issuing entity's aggregate deferred OID deduction for previous taxable years with respect to a debt instrument (less the aggregate amount of such deferred OID deduction that has been allowed as a deduction in a previous taxable year during the deferral period) exceeds the amount of the electing entity's deferred COD income (less the aggregate amount of such deferred COD income that has been included in income in the current taxable year and any previous taxable year during the deferral period), the excess deferred OID deduction shall be allowed as a deduction in the taxable year in which the acceleration event occurs.

(iii) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules under paragraph (d)(2) of this section:

Example 1. Partner joins partnership during deferral period.

(i) A and B each hold a 50 percent interest in AB partnership, a calendar-year partnership. On January 1, 2009, AB partnership issues a new debt instrument with OID and uses all of the proceeds to reacquire an outstanding applicable debt instrument of AB partnership, realizing $100 of COD income, and makes an election under section 108(i) to defer $50 of the COD income. During the deferral period, a total of $150 of OID accrues on the new debt instrument issued as part of the reacquisition. A and B each have a deferred amount of $25 with respect to the applicable debt instrument reacquired by AB partnership. For 2009, $28 of OID accrues on the new debt instrument and A and B are each allocated $14 of accrued OID with respect to the new debt instrument. On January 1, 2010, C contributes cash to AB partnership in exchange for a 1/3 partnership interest. For 2010, $29 of OID accrues on the new debt instrument, and A, B, and C are each allocated $9.67 of accrued OID.

(ii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, AB partnership's deferred OID deduction for 2009 is the lesser of: $28 of OID that accrues on the new debt instrument in 2009, or the excess of AB partnership's deferred COD income of $50 over the aggregate amount of OID that accrued on the debt instrument in previous taxable years during the deferral period of $0, or $50. Thus, all $28 of the OID that accrues on the debt instrument in 2009 is deferred under section 108(i).

(iii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, AB partnership's deferred OID deduction for 2010 is the lesser of: $29 of OID that accrues on the new debt instrument in 2010, or the excess of AB partnership's deferred COD income of $50 over the aggregate amount of OID that accrued on the debt instrument in previous taxable years during the deferral period of $28, or $22. Thus, $22 of the $29 of OID that accrues in 2010 is deferred under section 108(i). A, B, and C will each defer $7.33 of the $9.67 of accrued OID that was allocated to each of them.

Example 2. Acceleration of deferred items during deferral period.

(i) On January 1, 2009, ABC partnership, a calendar-year partnership with three partners, issues a new debt instrument with OID and uses all of the proceeds to reacquire an outstanding applicable debt instrument of ABC partnership. ABC partnership realizes $150 of COD income and makes an election under section 108(i) to defer the $150 of COD income. A's deferred amount with respect to the applicable debt instrument is $75, while B and C each have a deferred amount of $37.50. In 2009, $28 of OID accrues on the new debt instrument and is allocated $7.00 to A and $10.50 to each of B and C. In 2010, $29 of OID accrues on the new debt instrument and is allocated $7.25 to A and $10.87 to each of B and C. In 2011, $30 of OID accrues on the new debt instrument and is allocated $7.50 to A and $11.25 to each of B and C. In 2012, $31 of OID accrues on the new debt instrument and is allocated $7.75 to A and $11.62 to each of B and C. On December 31, 2012, A's entire share of ABC partnership's deferred items is accelerated under paragraph (b)(6) of this section. For 2012, A includes $75 of COD income in income and is allowed a deduction of $21.75 for A's share of ABC partnership's deferred OID deduction for taxable years 2009 through 2011, and a deduction of $7.75 for A's share of ABC partnership's OID that accrues on the debt instrument in 2012.

(ii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, ABC partnership's deferred OID deduction for 2012 is the lesser of: $23.25 ($31 of OID that accrues on the new debt instrument in 2012 less $7.75 of this OID that is allowed as a deduction to A in 2012) or $9.75 (the excess of $75 (ABC partnership's deferred COD income of $150 less A's share of ABC partnership's deferred COD income that is included in A's income for 2012 of $75) over $65.25 (the aggregate amount of OID that accrued in previous taxable years of $87 less the aggregate amount of such OID that has been allowed as a deduction by A in 2012 of $21.75)). Thus, of the $31 of OID that accrues in 2012, $9.75 is deferred under section 108(i).

(3) Effect of an election under section 108(i) on recapture amounts under section 465(e)—(i) In general. To the extent that a decrease in a partner's or shareholder's amount at risk (as defined in section 465) in an activity as a result of a reacquisition of an applicable debt instrument would cause a partner with a deferred amount or a shareholder with a share of the S corporation's deferred COD income to have income under section 465(e) in the taxable year of the reacquisition, such decrease (not to exceed the partner's deferred amount or the shareholder's share of the S corporation's deferred COD income with respect to that applicable debt instrument) (deferred section 465 amount) shall not be taken into account for purposes of determining the partner's or shareholder's amount at risk in an activity under section 465 as of the close of the taxable year of the reacquisition. A partner's or shareholder's deferred section 465 amount is treated as a decrease in the partner's or shareholder's amount at risk in an activity at the same time, and to the extent remaining in the same amount, as the partner recognizes its deferred amount or the S corporation shareholder recognizes its share of the S corporation's deferred COD income.

(ii) Example. The following example illustrates the rules in paragraph (d)(3) of this section:

Example.

(i) PRS is a calendar-year partnership with two equal partners, individuals A and B. PRS is engaged in an activity described in section 465(c) (Activity). PRS has a $500 recourse applicable debt instrument outstanding. Each partner's amount at risk on January 1, 2009 is $50. On June 1, 2009, the creditor agrees to cancel the $500 indebtedness. PRS realizes $500 of COD income as a result of the reacquisition. The partners' share of the liabilities of PRS decreases by $500 under section 752(b), and each partner's amount at risk is decreased by $250. Other than the $500 of COD income, PRS's income and expenses for 2009 are equal. PRS makes an election under section 108(i) to defer $200 of the $500 COD income realized in connection with the reacquisition. PRS allocates the $500 of COD income equally between its partners, A and B. A and B each have a COD income amount of $250 with respect to the applicable debt instrument. PRS determines that, for both partners A and B, $100 of the $250 COD income amount is the deferred amount, and $150 is the included amount. Beginning in each taxable year 2014 through 2018, A and B each include $20 of the deferred amount in gross income.

(ii) Under paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, $50 of the $250 decrease in A's and B's amount at risk in Activity is the deferred section 465 amount for each of A and B and is not taken into account for purposes of determining A's and B's amount at risk in Activity at the close of 2009. In taxable year 2014, A's and B's amount at risk in Activity is decreased by $20 (deferred section 465 amount that equals the deferred amount included in A's and B's gross income in 2014). In taxable year 2015, A's and B's amount at risk in Activity is decreased by $20 for the deferred section 465 amount that equals the deferred amount included in A's and B's gross income in 2015. In taxable year 2016, A's and B's amount at risk in Activity is decreased by $10 (the remaining amount of the deferred section 465 amount).

(e) Election procedures and reporting requirements—(1) Partnerships—(i) In general. A partnership makes an election under section 108(i) by following procedures outlined in guidance and applicable forms and instructions issued by the Commissioner. An electing partnership (or its successor) must provide to its partners certain information as required by guidance and applicable forms and instructions issued by the Commissioner.

(ii) Tiered passthrough entities. A partnership that is a direct or indirect partner of an electing partnership (or its successor) or a related partnership or an S corporation partner must provide to its partners or shareholders, as the case may be, certain information as required by guidance and applicable forms and instructions issued by the Commissioner.

(iii) Related partnerships. A related partnership must provide to its partners certain information as required by guidance and applicable forms and instructions issued by the Commissioner.

(2) S corporations—(i) In general. An S corporation makes an election under section 108(i) by following procedures outlined in guidance and applicable forms and instructions issued by the Commissioner. An electing S corporation (or its successor) must provide to its shareholders certain information as required by guidance and applicable forms and instructions issued by the Commissioner.

(ii) Related S corporations. A related S corporation must provide to its shareholders certain information as required by guidance and applicable forms and instructions issued by the Commissioner.

(f) Effective/applicability dates. For the applicability dates of this section, see § 1.108(i)-0(b).

[T.D. 9623, 78 FR 39975, July 3, 2013; 78 FR 49366, Aug. 14, 2013]

§ 1.108(i)-3 Rules for the deduction of OID.

(a) Deemed debt-for-debt exchanges—(1) In general. For purposes of section 108(i)(2) (relating to deferred OID deductions that arise in certain debt-for-debt exchanges involving the reacquisition of an applicable debt instrument), if the proceeds of any debt instrument are used directly or indirectly by the issuer or a person related to the issuer (within the meaning of section 108(i)(5)(A)) to reacquire an applicable debt instrument, the debt instrument shall be treated as issued for the applicable debt instrument being reacquired. Therefore, section 108(i)(2) may apply, for example, to a debt instrument issued by a corporation for cash in which some or all of the proceeds are used directly or indirectly by the corporation's related subsidiary in the reacquisition of the subsidiary's applicable debt instrument.

(2) Directly or indirectly. Whether the proceeds of an issuance of a debt instrument are used directly or indirectly to reacquire an applicable debt instrument depends upon all of the facts and circumstances surrounding the issuance and the reacquisition. The proceeds of an issuance of a debt instrument will be treated as being used indirectly to reacquire an applicable debt instrument if—

(i) At the time of the issuance of the debt instrument, the issuer of the debt instrument anticipated that an applicable debt instrument of the issuer or a person related to the issuer would be reacquired by the issuer, and the debt instrument would not have been issued if the issuer had not so anticipated such reacquisition;

(ii) At the time of the issuance of the debt instrument, the issuer of the debt instrument or a person related to the issuer anticipated that an applicable debt instrument would be reacquired by a related person and the related person receives cash or property that it would not have received unless the reacquisition had been so anticipated; or

(iii) At the time of the reacquisition, the issuer or a person related to the issuer foresaw or reasonably should have foreseen that the issuer or a person related to the issuer would be required to issue a debt instrument, which it would not have otherwise been required to issue if the reacquisition had not occurred, in order to meet its future economic needs.

(b) Proportional rule for accruals of OID. For purposes of section 108(i)(2), if only a portion of the proceeds from the issuance of a debt instrument are used directly or indirectly to reacquire an applicable debt instrument, the rules of section 108(i)(2)(A) will apply to the portion of OID on the debt instrument that is equal to the portion of the proceeds from such instrument used to reacquire the outstanding applicable debt instrument. Except as provided in the last sentence of section 108(i)(2)(A), the amount of deferred OID deduction that is subject to section 108(i)(2)(A) for a taxable year is equal to the product of the amount of OID that accrues in the taxable year under section 1272 or section 1275 (and the regulations under those sections), whichever section is applicable, and a fraction, the numerator of which is the portion of the total proceeds from the issuance of the debt instrument used directly or indirectly to reacquire the applicable debt instrument and the denominator of which is the total proceeds from the issuance of the debt instrument.

(c) No acceleration—(1) Retirement. Retirement of a debt instrument subject to section 108(i)(2) does not accelerate deferred OID deductions.

(2) Cross-reference. See § 1.108(i)-1 and § 1.108(i)-2 for rules relating to the acceleration of deferred OID deductions.

(d) Examples. The application of this section is illustrated by the following examples. Unless otherwise stated, all taxpayers in the following examples are calendar-year taxpayers, and P and S each file separate returns:

Example 1.

(i) Facts. P, a domestic corporation, owns all of the stock of S, a domestic corporation. S has a debt instrument outstanding that has an adjusted issue price of $100,000. On January 1, 2010, P issues for $160,000 a four-year debt instrument that has an issue price of $160,000 and a stated redemption price at maturity of $200,000, resulting in $40,000 of OID. In P's discussion with potential lenders/holders, and as described in offering materials provided to potential lenders/holders, P disclosed that it planned to use all or a portion of the proceeds from the issuance of the debt instrument to reacquire outstanding debt of P and its affiliates. Following the issuance, P makes a $70,000 capital contribution to S. S then reacquires its debt instrument from X, a person not related to S within the meaning of section 108(i)(5)(A), for $70,000. At the time of the reacquisition, the adjusted issue price of S's debt instrument is $100,000. Under § 1.61-12(c), S realizes $30,000 of COD income. S makes a section 108(i) election for the $30,000 of COD income.

(ii) Analysis. Under the facts, at the time of P's issuance of its $160,000 debt instrument, P anticipated that the loan proceeds would be used to reacquire the debt of S, and P's debt instrument would not have been issued for an amount greater than $90,000 if P had not anticipated that S would use the proceeds to reacquire its debt. Pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the proceeds from P's issuance of its debt instrument are treated as being used indirectly to reacquire S's applicable debt instrument. Therefore, section 108(i)(2)(B) applies to P's debt instrument and P's OID deductions on its debt instrument are subject to deferral under section 108(i)(2)(A). However, because only a portion of the proceeds from P's debt instrument are used by S to reacquire its applicable debt instrument, only a portion of P's total OID deductions will be deferred under section 108(i)(2)(A). See section 108(i)(2)(B). Accordingly, a maximum of $17,500 ($40,000 × $70,000/$160,000) of P's $40,000 total OID deductions is subject to deferral under section 108(i)(2)(A). Under paragraph (b) of this section, the amount of P's deferred OID deduction each taxable year under section 108(i)(2)(A) is equal to the product of the amount of OID that accrues in the taxable year under section 1272 for the debt instrument and a fraction ($70,000/$160,000). As a result, P's deferred OID deductions are the following amounts: $4,015.99 for 2010 ($9,179.40 × $70,000/$160,000); $4,246.39 for 2011 ($9,706.04 × $70,000/$160,000); $4,490.01 for 2012 ($10,262.88 × $70,000/$160,000); and $4,747.61 for 2013 ($10,851.68 × $70,000/$160,000).

Example 2.

(i) Facts. The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that S makes a section 108(i) election for only $10,000 of the $30,000 of COD income.

(ii) Analysis. The maximum amount of P's deferred OID deductions under section 108(i)(2)(A) is $10,000 rather than $17,500 because S made a section 108(i) election for only $10,000 of the $30,000 of COD income. Under section 108(i)(2)(A), because the amount of OID that accrues prior to 2014 attributable to the portion of the debt instrument issued to indirectly reacquire S's applicable debt instrument under paragraph (b) of this section ($17,500) exceeds the amount of deferred COD income under section 108(i) ($10,000), P's deferred OID deductions are the following amounts: $4,015.99 for 2010; $4,246.39 for 2011; $1,737.62 for 2012; and $0 for 2013.

Example 3.

(i) Facts. The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that P pays $200,000 in cash to the lenders/holders on December 31, 2012, to retire the debt instrument. P did not directly or indirectly obtain the funds to retire the debt instrument from the issuance of another debt instrument with OID.

(ii) Analysis. Under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the retirement of P's debt instrument is not an acceleration event for the deferred OID deductions of $4,015.99 for 2010, $4,246.39 for 2011, and $4,490.01 for 2012. Except as provided in § 1.108(i)-1(b)(4), these amounts will be taken into account during the inclusion period. P, however, paid a repurchase premium of $10,851.68 in 2012 ($200,000 minus the adjusted issue price of $189,148.32) to retire the debt instrument. If otherwise allowable, P may deduct this amount in 2012 under § 1.163-7(c).

(e) Effective/applicability dates. For effective/applicability dates, see § 1.108(i)-0(b).

[T.D. 9622, 78 FR 39991, July 3, 2013]

§ 1.109-1 Exclusion from gross income of lessor of real property of value of improvements erected by lessee.

(a) Income derived by a lessor of real property upon the termination, through forfeiture or otherwise, of the lease of such property and attributable to buildings erected or other improvements made by the lessee upon the leased property is excluded from gross income. However, where the facts disclose that such buildings or improvements represent in whole or in part a liquidation in kind of lease rentals, the exclusion from gross income shall not apply to the extent that such buildings or improvements represent such liquidation. The exclusion applies only with respect to the income realized by the lessor upon the termination of the lease and has no application to income, if any, in the form of rent, which may be derived by a lessor during the period of the lease and attributable to buildings erected or other improvements made by the lessee. It has no application to income which may be realized by the lessor upon the termination of the lease but not attributable to the value of such buildings or improvements. Neither does it apply to income derived by the lessor subsequent to the termination of the lease incident to the ownership of such buildings or improvements.

(b) The provisions of this section may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.

The A Corporation leased in 1945 for a period of 50 years unimproved real property to the B Corporation under a lease providing that the B Corporation erect on the leased premises an office building costing $500,000, in addition to paying the A Corporation a lease rental of $10,000 per annum beginning on the date of completion of the improvements, the sum of $100,000 being placed in escrow for the payment of the rental. The building was completed on January 1, 1950. The lease provided that all improvements made by the lessee on the leased property would become the absolute property of the A Corporation on the termination of the lease by forfeiture or otherwise and that the lessor would become entitled on such termination to the remainder of the sum, if any, remaining in the escrow fund. The B Corporation forfeited its lease on January 1, 1955, when the improvements had a value of $100,000. Under the provisions of section 109, the $100,000 is excluded from gross income. The amount of $50,000 representing the remainder in the escrow fund is forfeited to the A Corporation and is included in the gross income of that taxpayer. As to the basis of the property in the hands of the A Corporation, see § 1.1019-1.

§ 1.110-1 Qualified lessee construction allowances.

(a) Overview. Amounts provided to a lessee by a lessor for property to be constructed and used by the lessee pursuant to a lease are not includible in the lessee's gross income if the amount is a qualified lessee construction allowance under paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) Qualified lessee construction allowance—(1) In general. A qualified lessee construction allowance means any amount received in cash (or treated as a rent reduction) by a lessee from a lessor—

(i) Under a short-term lease of retail space;

(ii) For the purpose of constructing or improving qualified long-term real property for use in the lessee's trade or business at that retail space; and

(iii) To the extent the amount is expended by the lessee in the taxable year received on the construction or improvement of qualified long-term real property for use in the lessee's trade or business at that retail space.

(2) Definitions—(i) Qualified long-term real property is nonresidential real property under section 168(e)(2)(B) that is part of, or otherwise present at, the retail space referred to in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section and which reverts to the lessor at the termination of the lease. Thus, qualified long-term real property does not include property qualifying as section 1245 property under section 1245(a)(3).

(ii) Short-term lease is a lease (or other agreement for occupancy or use) of retail space for 15 years or less (as determined pursuant to section 168(i)(3)).

(iii) Retail space is nonresidential real property under section 168(e)(2)(B) that is leased, occupied, or otherwise used by the lessee in its trade or business of selling tangible personal property or services to the general public. The term retail space includes not only the space where the retail sales are made, but also space where activities supporting the retail activity are performed (such as an administrative office, a storage area, and employee lounge). Examples of services typically sold to the general public include services provided by hair stylists, tailors, shoe repairmen, doctors, lawyers, accountants, insurance agents, stock brokers, securities dealers (including dealers who sell securities out of inventory), financial advisors and bankers. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(iii), a taxpayer is selling to the general public if the products or services for sale are made available to the general public, even if the product or service is targeted to certain customers or clients.

(3) Purpose requirement. An amount will meet the requirement in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section only to the extent that the lease agreement for the retail space expressly provides that the construction allowance is for the purpose of constructing or improving qualified long-term real property for use in the lessee's trade or business at the retail space. An ancillary agreement between the lessor and the lessee providing for a construction allowance, executed contemporaneously with the lease or during the term of the lease, is considered a provision of the lease agreement for purposes of the preceding sentence, provided the agreement is executed before payment of the construction allowance.

(4) Expenditure requirement—(i) In general. Expenditures referred to in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section may be treated as being made first from the lessee's construction allowance. Tracing of the construction allowance to the actual lessee expenditures for the construction or improvement of qualified long-term real property is not required. However, the lessee should maintain accurate records of the amount of the qualified lessee construction allowance received and the expenditures made for qualified long-term real property.

(ii) Time when expenditures deemed made. For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, an amount is deemed to have been expended by a lessee in the taxable year in which the construction allowance was received by the lessee if—

(A) The amount is expended by the lessee within 8 1/2 months after the close of the taxable year in which the amount was received; or

(B) The amount is a reimbursement from the lessor for amounts expended by the lessee in a prior year and for which the lessee has not claimed any depreciation deductions.

(5) Consistent treatment by lessor. Qualified long-term real property constructed or improved with any amount excluded from a lessee's gross income by reason of paragraph (a) of this section must be treated as nonresidential real property owned by the lessor (for purposes of depreciation under 168(e)(2)(B) and determining gain or loss under section 168(i)(8)(B)). For purposes of the preceding sentence, the lessor must treat the construction allowance as fully expended in the manner required by paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section unless the lessor is notified by the lessee in writing to the contrary. General tax principles apply for purposes of determining when the lessor may begin depreciation of its nonresidential real property. The lessee's exclusion from gross income under paragraph (a) of this section, however, is not dependent upon the lessor's treatment of the property as nonresidential real property.

(c) Information required to be furnished—(1) In general. The lessor and the lessee described in paragraph (b) of this section who are paying and receiving a qualified lessee construction allowance, respectively, must furnish the information described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section in the time and manner prescribed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.

(2) Time and manner for furnishing information. The requirement to furnish information under paragraph (c)(1) of this section is met by attaching a statement with the information described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section to the lessor's or the lessee's, as applicable, timely filed (including extensions) Federal income tax return for the taxable year in which the construction allowance was paid by the lessor or received by the lessee (either in cash or treated as a rent reduction), as applicable. A lessor or a lessee may report the required information for several qualified lessee construction allowances on a combined statement. However, a lessor's or a lessee's failure to provide information with respect to each lease will be treated as a separate failure to provide information for purposes of paragraph (c)(4) of this section.

(3) Information required—(i) Lessor. The statement provided by the lessor must contain the lessor's name (and, in the case of a consolidated group, the parent's name), employer identification number, taxable year and the following information for each lease:

(A) The lessee's name (in the case of a consolidated group, the parent's name).

(B) The address of the lessee.

(C) The employer identification number of the lessee.

(D) The location of the retail space (including mall or strip center name, if applicable, and store name).

(E) The amount of the construction allowance.

(F) The amount of the construction allowance treated by the lessor as nonresidential real property owned by the lessor.

(ii) Lessee. The statement provided by the lessee must contain the lessee's name (and, in the case of a consolidated group, the parent's name), employer identification number, taxable year and the following information for each lease:

(A) The lessor's name (in the case of a consolidated group, the parent's name).

(B) The address of the lessor.

(C) The employer identification number of the lessor.

(D) The location of the retail space (including mall or strip center name, if applicable, and store name).

(E) The amount of the construction allowance.

(F) The amount of the construction allowance that is a qualified lessee construction allowance under paragraph (b) of this section.

(4) Failure to furnish information. A lessor or a lessee that fails to furnish the information required in this paragraph (c) may be subject to a penalty under section 6721.

(d) Effective date. This section is applicable to leases entered into on or after October 5, 2000.

[T.D. 8901, 65 FR 53586, Sept. 5, 2000]

§ 1.111-1 Recovery of certain items previously deducted or credited.

(a) General. Section 111 provides that income attributable to the recovery during any taxable year of bad debts, prior taxes, and delinquency amounts shall be excluded from gross income to the extent of the “recovery exclusion” with respect to such items. The rule of exclusion so prescribed by statute applies equally with respect to all other losses, expenditures and accruals made the basis of deductions from gross income for prior taxable years, including war losses referred to in section 127 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1939, but not including deductions with respect to depreciation, depletion, amortization, or amortizable bond premiums. The term “recovery exclusion” as used in this section means an amount equal to the portion of the bad debts, prior taxes, and delinquency amounts (the items specifically referred to in section 111), and of all other items subject to the rule of exclusion which, when deducted or credited for a prior taxable year, did not result in a reduction of any tax of the taxpayer under subtitle A (other than the accumulated earnings tax imposed by section 531 or the personal holding company tax imposed by section 541) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 or corresponding provisions of prior income tax laws (other than the World War II excess profits tax imposed under subchapter E, chapter 2 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1939).

(1) Section 111 items. The term “section 111 items” as used in this section means bad debts, prior taxes, delinquency amounts, and all other items subject to the rule of exclusion, for which a deduction or credit was allowed for a prior taxable year. If a bad debt was previously charged against a reserve by a taxpayer on the reserve method of treating bad debts, it was not deducted, and it is therefore not considered a section 111 item. Bad debts, prior taxes, and delinquency amounts are defined in section 111(b) (1), (2), and (3), respectively. An example of a delinquency amount is interest on delinquent taxes. An example of the other items not expressly referred to in section 111 but nevertheless subject to the rule of exclusion is a loss sustained upon the sale of stock and later recovered, in whole or in part, through an action against the party from whom such stock had been purchased.

(2) Definition of “recovery”. Recoveries result from the receipt of amounts in respect of the previously deducted or credited section 111 items, such as from the collection or sale of a bad debt, refund or credit of taxes paid, or cancellation of taxes accrued. Care should be taken in the case of bad debts which were treated as only partially worthless in prior years to distinguish between the item described in section 111, that is, the part of such debt which was deducted, and the part not previously deducted, which is not a section 111 item and is considered the first part collected. The collection of the part not deducted is not considered a “recovery”. Furthermore, the term “recovery” does not include the gain resulting from the receipt of an amount on account of a section 111 item which, together with previous such receipts, exceeds the deduction or credit previously allowed for such item. For instance, a $100 corporate bond purchased for $40 and later deducted as worthless is subsequently collected to the extent of $50. The $10 gain (excess of $50 collection over $40 cost) is not a recovery of a section 111 item. Such gain is in no case excluded from gross income under section 111, regardless of whether the $40 recovery is or is not excluded.

(3) Treatment of debt deducted in more than one year by reason of partial worthlessness. In the case of a bad debt deducted in part for two or more prior years, each such deduction of a part of the debt is considered a separate section 111 item. A recovery with respect to such debt is considered first a recovery of those items (or portions thereof), resulting from such debt, for which there are recovery exclusions. If there are recovery exclusions for two or more items resulting from the same bad debt, such items are considered recovered in the order of the taxable years for which they were deducted, beginning with the latest. The recovery exclusion for any such item is determined by considering the recovery exclusion with respect to the prior year for which such item was deducted as being first used to offset all other applicable recoveries in the year in which the bad debt is recovered.

(4) Special provisions as to worthless bonds, etc., which are treated as capital losses. Certain bad debts arising from the worthlessness of securities and certain nonbusiness bad debts are treated as losses from the sale or exchange of capital assets. See sections 165(g) and 166(d). The amounts of the deductions allowed for any year under section 1211 on account of such losses for such year are considered to be section 111 items. Any part of such losses which, under section 1211, is a deduction for a subsequent year through the capital loss carryover (any later receipt of an amount with respect to such deducted loss is a recovery) is considered a section 111 item for the year in which such loss was sustained.

(b) Computation of recovery exclusion—(1) Amount of recovery exclusion allowable for year of recovery. For the year of any recovery, the section 111 items which were deducted or credited for one prior year are considered as a group and the recovery thereon is considered separately from recoveries of any items which were deducted or credited for other years. This recovery is excluded from gross income to the extent of the recovery exclusion with respect to this group of items as (i) determined for the original year for which such items were deducted or credited (see subparagraph (2) of this paragraph) and (ii) reduced by the excludable recoveries in intervening years on account of all section 111 items for such original year. A taxpayer claiming a recovery exclusion shall submit, at the time the exclusion is claimed, the computation of the recovery exclusion claimed for the original year for which the items were deducted or credited, and computations showing the amount recovered in intervening years on account of the section 111 items deducted or credited for the original year.

(2) Determination of recovery exclusion for original year for which items were deducted or credited. (i) The recovery exclusion for the taxable year for which section 111 items were deducted or credited (that is, the “original taxable year”) is the portion of the aggregate amount of such deductions and credits which could be disallowed without causing an increase in any tax of the taxpayer imposed under subtitle A (other than the accumulated earnings tax imposed by section 531 or the personal holding company tax imposed by section 541) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 or corresponding provisions of prior income tax laws (other than the World War II excess profits tax imposed under subchapter E, chapter 2 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1939). For the purpose of such recovery exclusion, consideration must be given to the effect of net operating loss carryovers and carrybacks or capital loss carryovers.

(ii) This rule shall be applied by determining the recovery exclusion as the aggregate amount of the section 111 items for the original year for which such items were deducted or credited reduced by whichever of the following amounts is the greater:

(a) The difference between (1) the taxable income for such original year and (2) the taxable income computed without regard to the section 111 items for such original year.

(b) In the case of a taxpayer subject to any income tax in lieu of normal tax or surtax or both (except the alternative tax on capital gains imposed by section 1201, which is disregarded), the difference between (1) the income subject to such tax for such original year and (2) the income subject to such tax computed without regard to the section 111 items for such original year.

(Neither the amount determined under (1) nor the amount under (2) of (a) or (b) of this subdivision shall in any case be considered less than zero.) For this determination of the recovery exclusion, the aggregate of the section 111 items must be further decreased by the portion thereof which caused a reduction in tax in preceding or succeeding taxable years through any net operating loss carryovers or carrybacks or capital loss carryovers affected by such items. This decrease is the aggregate of the largest amount determined for each of such preceding and succeeding years under (a) and (b) of this subdivision, the computation of each carryover or carryback to the preceding or succeeding year being made under (1) of (a) and (b) of this subdivision with regard to the section 111 items for the original year and such computation being made under (2) of (a) and (b) of this subdivision without regard to such items. For the purpose of the preceding sentence, the computations under both (1) and (2) of (a) and (b) of this subdivision shall be made without regard to any section 111 items for such preceding or succeeding year and the carryovers and carrybacks to such year shall be determined without regard to any section 111 items for years subsequent to the original year.

(iii) The determination of the recovery exclusion for original taxable years subject to the provisions of the Internal Revenue Code of 1939 shall be made under 26 CFR (1939) 39.22(b)(12)-1(b)(2) (Regulations 118).

(3) Example. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.

A single individual with no dependents has for his 1954 taxable year the following income and deductions:

With deduction of section 111 items Without deduction of section 111 items
Gross income $25,000 $25,000
Less deductions:
Depreciation 20,000 20,000
Business bad debts and taxes 6,300
Personal exemption 600 600
26,900 20,600
Taxable income or (loss) (1,900) 4,400
Adjustment under section 172(d)(3) 600
Net operating loss (1,300)

The full amount of the net operating loss of $1,300 is carried back and allowed as a deduction for 1952. The aggregate of the section 111 items for 1954 is $6,300 (bad debts and taxes). The recovery exclusion on account of section 111 items for 1954 is $600, determined by reducing the $6,300 aggregate of the section 111 items by $5,700, i.e., the sum of (1) the difference between the amount of the taxable income for 1954 computed without regard to the section 111 items ($4,400) and the amount of the taxable income for 1954 (not less than zero) computed by taking such items into account, and (2) the amount of the net operating loss ($1,300) which caused the reduction in tax for 1952 by reason of the carryback provisions. If in 1956 the taxpayer recovers $400 of the bad debts, all of the recovery is excluded from the income by reason of the recovery exclusion of $600 determined for the original year 1954. If in 1957 the taxpayer recovers an additional $300 of the bad debts, only $200 is excluded from gross income. That is, the recovery exclusion of $600 determined for the original year 1954 is reduced by the $400 recovered in 1956, leaving a balance of $200 which is used in 1957. The balance of the amount recovered in 1957, $100 ($300 less $200), is included in gross income for 1957.

(c) Provisions as to taxes imposed by section 531 (relating to the accumulated earnings tax) and section 541 (relating to the tax on personal holding companies). A recovery exclusion allowed for purposes of subtitle A (other than section 531 or section 541) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 shall also be allowed for the purpose of determining the accumulated earnings tax under section 531 or the personal holding company tax under section 541 regardless of whether or not the section 111 items on which such recovery exclusion is based resulted in a reduction of the tax under section 531 or section 541 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 (or corresponding provisions of prior income tax laws) for the prior taxable year. Furthermore, if there is recovery of a section 111 item which was not allowable as a deduction or credit for the prior taxable year for purposes of Subtitle A (not including section 531 or section 541) or corresponding provisions of prior income tax laws (other than Subchapter E, Chapter 2 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1939, relating to World War II excess profits tax), but was allowable for such prior taxable year in determining the tax under section 531 or section 541 (or corresponding provisions of prior income tax laws) then for the purpose of determining the tax under section 531 or section 541 a recovery exclusion shall be allowable with respect to such recovery if the section 111 item did not result in a reduction of the tax under section 531 or section 541 (or corresponding provisions of prior income tax laws).

§ 1.112-1 Combat zone compensation of members of the Armed Forces.

(a) Combat zone compensation exclusion—(1) Amount excluded. In addition to the exemptions and credits otherwise applicable, section 112 excludes from gross income the following compensation of members of the Armed Forces:

(i) Enlisted personnel. Compensation received for active service as a member below the grade of commissioned officer in the Armed Forces of the United States for any month during any part of which the member served in a combat zone or was hospitalized at any place as a result of wounds, disease, or injury incurred while serving in the combat zone.

(ii) Commissioned officers. Compensation not exceeding the monthly dollar limit received for active service as a commissioned officer in the Armed Forces of the United States for any month during any part of which the officer served in a combat zone or was hospitalized at any place as a result of wounds, disease, or injury incurred while serving in the combat zone. The monthly dollar limit is the monthly amount excludable from the officer's income under section 112(b) as amended. Beginning in 1966, the monthly dollar limit for periods of active service after 1965 became $500. As of September 10, 1993, the monthly dollar limit continues to be $500.

(2) Time limits on exclusion during hospitalization. Compensation received for service for any month of hospitalization that begins more than 2 years after the date specified by the President in an Executive Order as the date of the termination of combatant activities in the combat zone cannot be excluded under section 112. Furthermore, compensation received while hospitalized after January 1978 for wounds, disease, or injury incurred in the Vietnam combat zone designated by Executive Order 11216 cannot be excluded under section 112.

(3) Special terms. A commissioned warrant officer is not a commissioned officer under section 112(b) and is entitled to the exclusion allowed to enlisted personnel under section 112(a). Compensation, for the purpose of section 112, does not include pensions and retirement pay. Armed Forces of the United States is defined (and members of the Armed Forces are described) in section 7701(a)(15).

(4) Military compensation only. Only compensation paid by the Armed Forces of the United States to members of the Armed Forces can be excluded under section 112, except for compensation paid by an agency or instrumentality of the United States or by an international organization to a member of the Armed Forces whose military active duty status continues during the member's assignment to the agency or instrumentality or organization on official detail. Compensation paid by other employers (whether private enterprises or governmental entities) to members of the Armed Forces cannot be excluded under section 112 even if the payment is made to supplement the member's military compensation or is labeled by the employer as compensation for active service in the Armed Forces of the United States. Compensation paid to civilian employees of the federal government, including civilian employees of the Armed Forces, cannot be excluded under section 112, except as provided in section 112(d)(2) (which extends the exclusion to compensation of civilian employees of the federal government in missing status due to the Vietnam conflict).

(b) Service in combat zone—(1) Active service. The exclusion under section 112 applies only if active service is performed in a combat zone. A member of the Armed Forces is in active service if the member is actually serving in the Armed Forces of the United States. Periods during which a member of the Armed Forces is absent from duty on account of sickness, wounds, leave, internment by the enemy, or other lawful cause are periods of active service. A member of the Armed Forces in active service in a combat zone who becomes a prisoner of war or missing in action in the combat zone is deemed, for the purpose of section 112, to continue in active service in the combat zone for the period for which the member is treated as a prisoner of war or as missing in action for military pay purposes.

(2) Combat zone status. Except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, service is performed in a combat zone only if it is performed in an area which the President of the United States has designated by Executive Order, for the purpose of section 112, as an area in which Armed Forces of the United States are or have been engaged in combat, and only if it is performed on or after the date designated by the President by Executive Order as the date of the commencing of combatant activities in that zone and on or before the date designated by the President by Executive Order as the date of the termination of combatant activities in that zone.

(3) Partial month service. If a member of the Armed Forces serves in a combat zone for any part of a month, the member is entitled to the exclusion for that month to the same extent as if the member has served in that zone for the entire month. If a member of the Armed Forces is hospitalized for a part of a month as a result of wounds, disease, or injury incurred while serving in that zone, the member is entitled to the exclusion for the entire month.

(4) Payment time and place. The time and place of payment are irrelevant in considering whether compensation is excludable under section 112; rather, the time and place of the entitlement to compensation determine whether the compensation is excludable under section 112. Thus, compensation can be excluded under section 112 whether or not it is received outside a combat zone, or while the recipient is hospitalized, or in a year different from that in which the service was rendered for which the compensation is paid, provided that the member's entitlement to the compensation fully accrued in a month during which the member served in the combat zone or was hospitalized as a result of wounds, disease, or injury incurred while serving in the combat zone. For this purpose, entitlement to compensation fully accrues upon the completion of all actions required of the member to receive the compensation. Compensation received by a member of the Armed Forces for services rendered while in active service can be excluded under section 112 even though payment is received subsequent to discharge or release from active service. Compensation credited to a deceased member's account for a period subsequent to the established date of the member's death and received by the member's estate can be excluded from the gross income of the estate under section 112 to the same extent that it would have been excluded from the gross income of the member had the member lived and received the compensation.

(5) Examples of combat zone compensation. The rules of this section are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

On January 5, outside of a combat zone, an enlisted member received basic pay for active duty services performed from the preceding December 1 through December 31. On December 4 (and no other date), the member performed services within a combat zone. The member may exclude from income the entire payment received on January 5, although the member served in the combat zone only one day during December, received the payment outside of the combat zone, and received the payment in a year other than the year in which the combat zone services were performed.

Example 2.

From March through December, an enlisted member became entitled to 25 days of annual leave while serving in a combat zone. The member used all 25 days of leave in the following year. The member may exclude from income the compensation received for those 25 days, even if the member performs no services in the combat zone in the year the compensation is received.

Example 3.

From March through December, a commissioned officer became entitled to 25 days of annual leave while serving in a combat zone. During that period the officer also received basic pay of $1,000 per month from which the officer excluded from income $500 per month (exhausting the monthly dollar limit under section 112 for that period). The officer used all 25 days of leave in the following year. The officer may not exclude from income any compensation received in the following year related to those 25 days of leave, since the officer had already excluded from income the maximum amount of combat zone compensation for the period in which the leave was earned.

Example 4.

In November, while serving in a combat zone, an enlisted member competing for a cash award submitted an employee suggestion. After November, the member neither served in a combat zone nor was hospitalized for wounds incurred in the combat zone. In June of the following year, the member's suggestion was selected as the winner of the competition and the award was paid. The award can be excluded from income as combat zone compensation although granted and received outside of the combat zone, since the member completed the necessary action to win the award (submission of the suggestion) in a month during which the member served in the combat zone.

Example 5.

In July, while serving in a combat zone, an enlisted member voluntarily reenlisted. After July, the member neither served in a combat zone nor was hospitalized for wounds incurred in the combat zone. In February of the following year, the member received a bonus as a result of the July reenlistment. The reenlistment bonus can be excluded from income as combat zone compensation although received outside of the combat zone, since the member completed the necessary action for entitlement to the reenlistment bonus in a month during which the member served in the combat zone.

Example 6.

In July, while serving outside a combat zone, an enlisted member voluntarily reenlisted. In February of the following year, the member, while performing services in a combat zone, received a bonus as a result of the July reenlistment. The reenlistment bonus cannot be excluded from income as combat zone compensation although received while serving in the combat zone, since the member completed the necessary action for entitlement to the reenlistment bonus in a month during which the member had neither served in the combat zone nor was hospitalized for wounds incurred while serving in a combat zone.

(c) Hospitalization—(1) Presumption of combat zone injury. If an individual is hospitalized for wound, disease, or injury while serving in a combat zone, the wound, disease, or injury will be presumed to have been incurred while serving in a combat zone, unless the contrary clearly appears. In certain cases, however, a wound, disease, or injury may have been incurred while serving in a combat zone even though the individual was not hospitalized for it while so serving. In exceptional cases, a wound, disease, or injury will not have been incurred while serving in a combat zone even though the individual was hospitalized for it while so serving.

(2) Length of hospitalization. An individual is hospitalized only until the date the individual is discharged from the hospital.

(3) Examples of combat zone injury. The rules of this paragraph (c) are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

An individual is hospitalized for a disease in the combat zone where the individual has been serving for three weeks. The incubation period of the disease is two to four weeks. The disease is incurred while serving in the combat zone.

Example 2.

The facts are the same as in Example 1 except that the incubation period of the disease is one year. The disease is not incurred while serving in the combat zone.

Example 3.

A member of the Air Force, stationed outside the combat zone, is shot while participating in aerial combat over the combat zone, but is not hospitalized until returning to the home base. The injury is incurred while serving in a combat zone.

Example 4.

An individual is hospitalized for a disease three weeks after having departed from a combat zone. The incubation period of the disease is two to four weeks. The disease is incurred while serving in a combat zone.

(d) Married members. The exclusion under section 112 applies without regard to the marital status of the recipient of the compensation. If both spouses meet the requirements of the statute, then each spouse is entitled to the benefit of an exclusion. In the case of a husband and wife domiciled in a State recognized for Federal income tax purposes as a community property State, any exclusion from gross income under section 112 operates before apportionment of the gross income of the spouses under community property law. For example, a husband and wife are domiciled in a community property State and the member spouse is entitled, as a commissioned officer, to the benefit of the exclusion under section 112(b) of $500 for each month. The member receives $7,899 as compensation for active service for 3 months in a combat zone. Of that amount, $1,500 is excluded from gross income under section 112(b) and $6,399 is taken into account in determining the gross income of both spouses.

(e) Service in area outside combat zone—(1) Combat zone treatment. For purposes of section 112, a member of the Armed Forces who performs military service in an area outside the area designated by Executive Order as a combat zone is deemed to serve in that combat zone while the member's service is in direct support of military operations in that zone and qualifies the member for the special pay for duty subject to hostile fire or imminent danger authorized under section 310 of title 37 of the United States Code, as amended (37 U.S.C. 310) (hostile fire/imminent danger pay).

(2) Examples of combat zone treatment. The examples in this paragraph (e)(2) are based on the following circumstances: Certain areas, airspace, and adjacent waters are designated as a combat zone for purposes of section 112 as of May 1. Some members of the Armed Forces are stationed in the combat zone; others are stationed in two foreign countries outside the combat zone, named Nearby Country and Destination Country.

Example 1.

B is a member of an Armed Forces ground unit stationed in the combat zone. On May 31, B's unit crosses into Nearby Country. B performs military service in Nearby Country in direct support of the military operations in the combat zone from June 1 through June 8 that qualifies B for hostile fire/imminent danger pay. B does not return to the combat zone during June. B is deemed to serve in the combat zone from June 1 through June 8. Accordingly, B is entitled to the exclusion under section 112 for June. Of course, B is also entitled to the exclusion for any month (May, in this example) in which B actually served in the combat zone.

Example 2.

B is a member of an Armed Forces ground unit stationed in the combat zone. On May 31, B's unit crosses into Nearby Country. On June 1, B is wounded while performing military service in Nearby Country in direct support of the military operations in the combat zone that qualifies B for hostile fire/imminent danger pay. On June 2, B is transferred for treatment to a hospital in the United States. B is hospitalized from June through October for those wounds. B is deemed to have incurred the wounds while serving in the combat zone on June 1. Accordingly, B is entitled to the exclusion under section 112 for June through October. Of course, B is also entitled to the exclusion for any month (May, in this example) in which B actually served in the combat zone.

Example 3.

B is stationed in Nearby Country for the entire month of June as a member of a ground crew servicing combat aircraft operating in the combat zone. B's service in Nearby Country during June does not qualify B for hostile fire/imminent danger pay. Accordingly, B is not deemed to serve in the combat zone during June and is not entitled to the exclusion under section 112 for that month.

Example 4.

B is assigned to an air unit stationed in Nearby Country for the entire month of June. In June, members of air units of the Armed Forces stationed in Nearby Country fly combat and supply missions into and over Destination Country in direct support of military operations in the combat zone. B flies combat missions over Destination Country from Nearby Country from June 1 through June 8. B's service qualifies B for hostile fire/imminent danger pay. Accordingly, B is deemed to serve in the combat zone during June and is entitled to the exclusion under section 112. The result would be the same if B were to fly supply missions into Destination Country from Nearby Country in direct support of operations in the combat zone qualifying B for hostile fire/imminent danger pay.

Example 5.

Assigned to an air unit stationed in Nearby Country, B was killed in June when B's plane crashed on returning to the airbase in Nearby Country. B was performing military service in direct support of the military operations in the combat zone at the time of B's death. B's service also qualified B for hostile fire/imminent danger pay. B is deemed to have died while serving in the combat zone or to have died as a result of wounds, disease, or injury incurred while serving in the combat zone for purposes of section 692(a) and section 692(b) (providing relief from certain income taxes for members of the Armed Forces dying in a combat zone or as a result of wounds, disease, or injury incurred while serving in a combat zone) and section 2201 (providing relief from certain estate taxes for members of the Armed Forces dying in a combat zone or by reason of combat-zone-incurred wounds). The result would be the same if B's mission had been a supply mission instead of a combat mission.

Example 6.

In June, B was killed as a result of an off-duty automobile accident while leaving the airbase in Nearby Country shortly after returning from a mission over Destination Country. At the time of B's death, B was not performing military duty qualifying B for hostile fire/imminent danger pay. B is not deemed to have died while serving in the combat zone or to have died as the result of wounds, disease, or injury incurred while serving in the combat zone. Accordingly, B does not qualify for the benefits of section 692(a), section 692(b), or section 2201.

Example 7.

B performs military service in Nearby Country from June 1 through June 8 in direct support of the military operations in the combat zone. Nearby Country is designated as an area in which members of the Armed Forces qualify for hostile fire/imminent danger pay due to imminent danger, even though members in Nearby Country are not subject to hostile fire. B is deemed to serve in the combat zone from June 1 through June 8. Accordingly, B is entitled to the exclusion under section 112 for June.

(f) Nonqualifying presence in combat zone—(1) Inapplicability of exclusion. The following members of the Armed Forces are not deemed to serve in a combat zone within the meaning of section 112(a)(1) or section 112(b)(1) or to be hospitalized as a result of wounds, disease, or injury incurred while serving in a combat zone within the meaning of section 112(a)(2) or section 112(b)(2)—

(i) Members present in a combat zone while on leave from a duty station located outside a combat zone;

(ii) Members who pass over or through a combat zone during the course of a trip between two points both of which lie outside a combat zone; or

(iii) Members present in a combat zone solely for their own personal convenience.

(2) Exceptions for temporary duty or special pay. Paragraph (f)(1) of this section does not apply to members of the Armed Forces who—

(i) Are assigned on official temporary duty to a combat zone (including official temporary duty to the airspace of a combat zone); or

(ii) Qualify for hostile fire/imminent danger pay.

(3) Examples of nonqualifying presence and its exceptions. The examples in this paragraph (f)(3) are based on the following circumstances: Certain areas, airspace, and adjacent waters are designated as a combat zone for purposes of section 112 as of May 1. Some members of the Armed Forces are stationed in the combat zone; others are stationed in two foreign countries outside the combat zone, named Nearby Country and Destination Country.

Example 1.

B is a member of the Armed Forces assigned to a unit stationed in Nearby Country. On June 1, B voluntarily visits a city within the combat zone while on leave. B is not deemed to serve in a combat zone since B is present in a combat zone while on leave from a duty station located outside a combat zone.

Example 2.

B is a member of the Armed Forces assigned to a unit stationed in Nearby Country. During June, B takes authorized leave and elects to spend the leave period by visiting a city in the combat zone. While on leave in the combat zone, B is subject to hostile fire qualifying B for hostile fire/imminent danger pay. Although B is present in the combat zone while on leave from a duty station outside the combat zone, B qualifies for the exclusion under section 112 because B qualifies for hostile fire/imminent danger pay while in the combat zone.

Example 3.

B is a member of the Armed Forces assigned to a ground unit stationed in the combat zone. During June, B takes authorized leave and elects to spend the leave period in the combat zone. B is not on leave from a duty station located outside a combat zone, nor is B present in a combat zone solely for B's own personal convenience. Accordingly, B's combat zone tax benefits continue while B is on leave in the combat zone.

Example 4.

B is assigned as a navigator to an air unit stationed in Nearby Country. On June 4, during the course of a flight between B's home base in Nearby Country and another base in Destination Country, the aircraft on which B serves as a navigator flies over the combat zone. B is not on official temporary duty to the airspace of the combat zone and does not qualify for hostile fire/imminent danger pay as a result of the flight. Accordingly, B is not deemed to serve in a combat zone since B passes over the combat zone during the course of a trip between two points both of which lie outside the combat zone without either being on official temporary duty to the combat zone or qualifying for hostile fire/imminent danger pay.

Example 5.

B is a member of the Armed Forces assigned to a unit stationed in Nearby Country. B enters the combat zone on a 3-day pass. B is not on official temporary duty and does not qualify for hostile fire/imminent danger pay while present in the combat zone. Accordingly, B is not deemed to serve in a combat zone since B is present in the combat zone solely for B's own personal convenience.

Example 6.

B, stationed in Nearby Country, is a military courier assigned on official temporary duty to deliver military pouches in the combat zone and in Destination Country. On June 1, B arrives in the combat zone from Nearby Country, and on June 2, B departs for Destination Country. Although B passes through the combat zone during the course of a trip between two points outside the combat zone, B is nevertheless deemed to serve in a combat zone while in the combat zone because B is assigned to the combat zone on official temporary duty.

Example 7.

B is a member of an Armed Forces ground unit stationed in Nearby Country. On June 1, B took authorized leave and elected to spend the leave period by visiting a city in the combat zone. On June 2, while on leave in the combat zone, B was wounded by hostile fire qualifying B for hostile fire/imminent danger pay. On June 3, B was transferred for treatment to a hospital in the United States. B is hospitalized from June through October for those wounds. Although B was present in the combat zone while on leave from a duty station outside the combat zone, B is deemed to have incurred the wounds while serving in the combat zone on June 2, because B qualified for hostile fire/imminent danger pay while in the combat zone. Accordingly, B is entitled to the exclusion under section 112 for June through October.

Example 8.

The facts are the same as in Example 7 except that B dies on September 1 as a result of the wounds incurred in the combat zone. B is deemed to have died as a result of wounds, disease, or injury incurred while serving in the combat zone for purposes of section 692(a) and section 692(b) (providing relief from certain income taxes for members of the Armed Forces dying in a combat zone or as a result of wounds, disease, or injury incurred while serving in a combat zone) and section 2201 (providing relief from certain estate taxes for members of the Armed Forces dying in a combat zone or by reason of combat-zone-incurred wounds).

[T.D. 8489, 58 FR 47640, Sept. 10, 1993]

§ 1.113-1 Mustering-out payments for members of the Armed Forces.

For the purposes of the exclusion from gross income under section 113 of mustering-out payments with respect to service in the Armed Forces, mustering-out payments are payments made to any recipients pursuant to the provisions of 38 U.S.C. 2105 (formerly section 5 of the Mustering-out Payment Act of 1944 and section 505 of the Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act of 1952).

§ 1.117-1 Exclusion of amounts received as a scholarship or fellowship grant.

(a) In general. Any amount received by an individual as a scholarship at an educational institution or as a fellowship grant, including the value of contributed services and accommodations, shall be excluded from the gross income of the recipient, subject to the limitations set forth in section 117(b) and § 1.117-2. The exclusion from gross income of an amount which is a scholarship or fellowship grant is controlled solely by section 117. Accordingly, to the extent that a scholarship or a fellowship grant exceeds the limitations of section 117(b) and § 1.117-2, it is includible in the gross income of the recipient notwithstanding the provisions of section 102 relating to exclusion from gross income of gifts, or section 74(b) relating to exclusion from gross income of certain prizes and awards. For definitions, see § 1.117-3.

(b) Exclusion of amounts received to cover expenses. (1) Subject to the limitations provided in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, any amount received by an individual to cover expenses for travel (including meals and lodging while traveling and an allowance for travel of the individual's family), research, clerical help, or equipment is excludable from gross income provided that such expenses are incident to a scholarship or fellowship grant which is excludable from gross income under section 117(a)(1). If, however, only a portion of a scholarship or fellowship grant is excludable from gross income under section 117(a)(1) because of the part-time employment limitation contained in section 117(b)(1) or because of the expiration of the 36-month period described in section 117(b)(2)(B), only the amount received to cover expenses incident to such excludable portion is excludable from gross income. The requirement that these expenses be incident to the scholarship or the fellowship grant means that the expenses of travel, research, clerical help, or equipment must be incurred by the individual in order to effectuate the purpose for which the scholarship or the fellowship grant was awarded.

(2)(i) In the case of a scholarship or fellowship grant which is awarded after July 28, 1956, the exclusion provided under subparagraph (1) of this paragraph is not applicable unless the amount received by the individual is specifically designated to cover expenses for travel, research, clerical help, or equipment.

(ii) In the case of a scholarship or fellowship grant awarded before July 29, 1956, the exclusion provided under subparagraph (1) of this paragraph is not applicable unless the recipient establishes, by competent evidence, that the amount was received to cover expenses for travel, research, clerical help, or equipment, but such amount need not be specifically designated. The fact that the recipient actually incurred expenses for travel, research, clerical help, or equipment is not sufficient to establish that the amount was received to cover such expenses.

(iii) The exclusion provided under subparagraph (1) of this paragraph is applicable only to the extent that the amount received for travel, research, clerical help, or equipment is actually expended for such expenses by the recipient during the term of the scholarship or fellowship grant and within a reasonable time before and after such term.

(3) The portion of any amount received to cover the expenses described in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph which is not actually expended for such expenses within the exclusion period described in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph shall, if not returned to the grantor within this period, be included in the gross income of the recipient for the taxable year in which such exclusion period expires.

§ 1.117-2 Limitations.

(a) Individuals who are candidates for degrees—(1) In general. Under the limitations provided by section 117(b)(1) in the case of an individual who is a candidate for a degree at an educational institution, the exclusion from gross income shall not apply (except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph) to that portion of any amount received as payment for teaching, research, or other services in the nature of parttime employment required as a condition to receiving the scholarship or fellowship grant. Payments for such part-time employment shall be included in the gross income of the recipient in an amount determined by reference to the rate of compensation ordinarily paid for similar services performed by an individual who is not the recipient of a scholarship or a fellowship grant. A typical example of employment under this subparagraph is the case of an individual who is required, as a condition to receiving the scholarship or the fellowship grant, to perform part-time teaching services. A requirement that the individual shall furnish periodic reports to the grantor of the scholarship or the fellowship grant for the purpose of keeping the grantor informed as to the general progress of the individual shall not be deemed to constitute the performance of services in the nature of part-time employment.

(2) Exception. If teaching, research, or other services are required of all candidates (whether or not recipients of scholarships or fellowship grants) for a particular degree as a condition to receiving the degree, such teaching, research, or other services on the part of the recipient of a scholarship or fellowship grant who is a candidate for such degree shall not be regarded as part-time employment within the meaning of this paragraph. Thus, if all candidates for a particular education degree are required, as part of their regular course of study or curriculum, to perform part-time practice teaching services, such services are not to be regarded as part-time employment within the meaning of this paragraph.

(b) Individuals who are not candidates for degrees—(1) Conditions for exclusion. In the case of an individual who is not a candidate for a degree at an educational institution, the exclusion from gross income of an amount received as a scholarship or a fellowship grant shall apply (to the extent provided in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph) only if the grantor of the scholarship or fellowship grant is—

(i) An organization described in section 501(c)(3) which is exempt from tax under section 501(a),

(ii) The United States or an instrumentality or agency thereof, or a State, a territory, or a possession of the United States, or any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia, or

(iii) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 1961, a foreign government, an international organization, or a binational or multinational educational and cultural foundation or commission created or continued pursuant to section 103 of the Mutual Educational and Cultural Exchange Act of 1961 (22 U.S.C. 2453).

(2) Extent of exclusion. (i) In the case of an individual who is not a candidate for a degree, the amount received as a scholarship or a fellowship grant which is excludable from gross income under section 117(a)(1) shall not exceed an amount equal to $300 times the number of months for which the recipient received amounts under the scholarship or fellowship grant during the taxable year. In determining the number of months during the period for which the recipient received amounts under a scholarship or fellowship grant, computation shall be made on the basis of whole calendar months. A whole calendar month means a period of time terminating with the day of the succeeding month numerically corresponding to the day of the month of its beginning, less one, except that if there be no corresponding day of the succeeding month the period terminates with the last day of the succeeding month. For purposes of this computation a fractional part of a calendar month consisting of a period of time including 15 days or more shall be considered to be a whole calendar month and a fractional part of a calendar month consisting of a period of time including 14 days or less shall be disregarded. For example, if an individual receives a fellowship grant on September 13 which is to expire on June 12 of the following year, the grant shall be considered to have extended for a period of 9 months. If in the preceding example the grant expired on June 27, instead of June 12, the grant shall be considered to have extended for a period of 10 months.

(ii) No exclusion shall be allowed under section 117(a)(1) to an individual who is not a candidate for a degree after the recipient has, as an individual who is not a candidate for a degree, been entitled to an exclusion under that section for a period of 36 months. This limitation applies if the individual has received any amount which was either excluded or excludable from his gross income under section 117(a)(1) for any prior 36 months, whether or not consecutive. For example, if the individual received a fellowship grant of $7,200 for 3 years (which he elected to receive in 36 monthly installments of $200), his exclusion period would be exhausted even though he did not in any of the 36 months make use of the maximum exclusion. Accordingly, such individual would be entitled to no further exclusion from gross income with respect to any additional grants which he may receive as an individual who is not a candidate for a degree.

(iii) If an individual who is not a candidate for a degree receives amounts from more than one scholarship or fellowship grant during the taxable year, the total amounts received in the taxable year shall be aggregated for the purpose of computing the amount which may be excludable from gross income for such taxable year. If amounts are received from more than one scholarship or fellowship grant during the same month or months within the taxable year, such month or months shall be counted only once for the purpose of determining the number of months for which the individual received such amounts under the scholarships or fellowship grants during the taxable year. For example, if an individual receives a fellowship grant from one source for the months of January to June of the taxable year and also receives a fellowship grant from another source for the months of March through December of the same taxable year, he shall be considered to have received amounts for 12 months of the taxable year. See example (4) in subparagraph (3) of this paragraph for further illustration.

(3) Examples. The application of this paragraph may be further illustrated by the following examples, it being assumed that in each example the grantor is a grantor who is described in section 117(b)(2)(A) and subparagraph (1) of this paragraph:

Example 1.

B, an individual who files his return on the calendar year basis, is awarded a post-doctorate fellowship grant in March 1955. The grant is to commence on September 1, 1955, and is to end on May 31, 1956, so that it will extend over a period of 9 months. The amount of the fellowship grant is $4,500 and B receives this amount in monthly installments of $500 on the first day of each month commencing September 1, 1955. During the taxable year 1955, B receives a total of $2,000 with respect to the 4-month period September through December, inclusive. He may exclude $1,200 from gross income in the taxable year 1955 ($300 × 4) and must include the remaining $800 in gross income for that year. For the year 1956, he will exclude $1,500 ($300 × 5) from gross income with respect to the $2,500 which he receives in that year and must include in gross income $1,000.

Example 2.

Assume the same facts as in example (1) except that B receives the full amount of the grant ($4,500) on September 1, 1955. Since the amount received in the taxable year 1955 is for the full term of the fellowship grant (9 months), B may exclude $2,700 ($300 × 9) from gross income for the taxable year 1955. The remaining $1,800 must be included in gross income for that year.

Example 3.

C, an individual who files his return on the calendar year basis, is awarded a post-doctorate fellowship grant in March 1955. The amount of the grant is $4,500 for a period commencing on September 1, 1955, and ending 24 months thereafter. C receives the full amount of the grant on September 1, 1955. C may exclude from gross income for the taxable year 1955, the full amount of the grant ($4,500) since this amount does not exceed an amount equal to $300 times the number of months (24) for which he received the amount of the grant during that taxable year.

Example 4.

(i) F, an individual who files his return on the calendar year basis, is awarded a post-doctorate fellowship grant (Grant A) for two years commencing June 1, 1955, in the amount of $4,800. He elects to receive his grant in monthly installments of $200 commencing June 1, 1955. On March 1, 1956, F is awarded another post-doctorate fellowship grant (Grant B) for two years commencing September 1, 1956, in the amount of $7,200. He elects to receive this grant in monthly installments of $300 commencing September 1, 1956.

(ii) For the calendar year 1955, F receives $1,400 from Grant A which he is entitled to exclude from gross income since it does not exceed an amount equal to $300 times the number of months (7) for which he received amounts under the grant in the taxable year.

(iii) For the calendar year 1956, F receives $3,600 as the aggregate of amounts received under fellowship grants ($2,400 from Grant A and $1,200 from Grant B). F will be entitled to exclude the entire amount of $3,600 from gross income for the calendar year 1956 since such amount does not exceed an amount equal to $300 times the number of months (12) for which he received amounts under the grants in the taxable year.

(iv) For the calendar year 1957, F receives $4,600 as the aggregate of amounts received under fellowship grants ($1,000 from Grant A and $3,600 from Grant B). F will be entitled to exclude $3,600 ($300 × 12) from gross income for the calendar year 1957 and he will have to include $1,000 in gross income.

(v) For the calendar year 1958, F receives $2,400 from Grant B. F is entitled to exclude $1,500 ($300 × 5) from gross income for the calendar year 1958 and he will have to include $900 in gross income. While F receives amounts under fellowship Grant B for 8 months during the calendar year 1958, he is limited to an amount equal to $300 times 5 (months) because of the fact that he has already been entitled to exclude (and has in fact excluded) amounts received as a fellowship grant for a period of 31 months. Accordingly, he can only exclude amounts received under the fellowship grant for 5 months during the calendar year 1958, because of the 36-month limitation period. The fact that he was entitled to exclude only $1,400 ($200 a month for 7 months) instead of the maximum amount of $2,100 ($300 × 7) in 1955, is immaterial and the limitation period of 36 months is applicable.

(vi) The following chart illustrates the computation of the number of months for which F received amounts under the fellowship grants during the respective taxable years and the computation of the total amounts received under the fellowship grants during each taxable year:

Period for which received and source Number of months Amounts received
1955:
June 1 to December 31 7
Grant A $1,400
Grant B None
Aggregate 7 1,400
1956:
January 1 to August 31 8
Grant A 1,600
Grant B None
September 1 to December 31 4
Grant A 800
Grant B 1,200
Aggregate 12 3,600
1957:
January 1 to May 31 5
Grant A 1,000
Grant B 1,500
June 1 to December 31 7
Grant A None
Grant B 2,100
Aggregate 12 4,600
1958:
January 1 to August 31 8
Grant A None
Grant B 2,400
Aggregate 2,400

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960, as amended by T.D. 6782, 29 FR 18355, Dec. 24, 1964]

§ 1.117-3 Definitions.

(a) Scholarship. A scholarship generally means an amount paid or allowed to, or for the benefit of, a student, whether an undergraduate or a graduate, to aid such individual in pursuing his studies. The term includes the value of contributed services and accommodations (see paragraph (d) of this section) and the amount of tuition, matriculation, and other fees which are furnished or remitted to a student to aid him in pursuing his studies. The term also includes any amount received in the nature of a family allowance as a part of a scholarship. However, the term does not include any amount provided by an individual to aid a relative, friend, or other individual in pursuing his studies where the grantor is motivated by family or philanthropic considerations. If an educational institution maintains or participates in a plan whereby the tuition of a child of a faculty member of such institution is remitted by any other participating educational institution attended by such child, the amount of the tuition so remitted shall be considered to be an amount received as a scholarship.

(b) Educational organization. For definition of “educational organization” paragraphs (a) and (b) of section 117 adopt the definition of that term which is prescribed in section 151(e)(4). Accordingly, for purposes of section 117 the term “educational organization” means only an educational organization which normally maintains a regular faculty and curriculum and normally has a regularly organized body of students in attendance at the place where its educational activities are carried on. See section 151(e)(4) and regulations thereunder.

(c) Fellowship grant. A fellowship grant generally means an amount paid or allowed to, or for the benefit of, an individual to aid him in the pursuit of study or research. The term includes the value of contributed services and accommodations (see paragraph (d) of this section) and the amount of tuition, matriculation, and other fees which are furnished or remitted to an individual to aid him in the pursuit of study or research. The term also includes any amount received in the nature of a family allowance as a part of a fellowship grant. However, the term does not include any amount provided by an individual to aid a relative, friend, or other individual in the pursuit of study or research where the grantor is motivated by family or philanthropic considerations.

(d) Contributed services and accommodations. The term “contributed services and accommodations” means such services and accommodations as room, board, laundry service, and similar services or accommodations which are received by an individual as a part of a scholarship or fellowship grant.

(e) Candidate for a degree. The term “candidate for a degree” means an individual, whether an undergraduate or a graduate, who is pursuing studies or conducting research to meet the requirements for an academic or professional degree conferred by colleges or universities. It is not essential that such study or research be pursued or conducted at an educational institution which confers such degrees if the purpose thereof is to meet the requirements for a degree of a college or university which does confer such degrees. A student who receives a scholarship for study at a secondary school or other educational institution is considered to be a “candidate for a degree.”

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960; 25 FR 14021, Dec. 21, 1960, as amended by T.D. 8032, 50 FR 27232, July 2, 1985]

§ 1.117-4 Items not considered as scholarships or fellowship grants.

The following payments or allowances shall not be considered to be amounts received as a scholarship or a fellowship grant for the purpose of section 117:

(a) Educational and training allowances to veterans. Educational and training allowances to a veteran pursuant to section 400 of the Servicemen's Readjustment Act of 1944 (58 Stat. 287) or pursuant to 38 U.S.C. 1631 (formerly section 231 of the Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act of 1952).

(b) Allowances to members of the Armed Forces of the United States. Tuition and subsistence allowances to members of the Armed Forces of the United States who are students at an educational institution operated by the United States or approved by the United States for their education and training, such as the United States Naval Academy and the United States Military Academy.

(c) Amounts paid as compensation for services or primarily for the benefit of the grantor. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of §§ 1.117-2 and 1.117-5, any amount paid or allowed to, or on behalf of, an individual to enable him to pursue studies or research, if such amount represents either compensation for past, present, or future employment services or represents payment for services which are subject to the direction or supervision of the grantor.

(2) Any amount paid or allowed to, or on behalf of, an individual to enable him to pursue studies or research primarily for the benefit of the grantor.

However, amounts paid or allowed to, or on behalf of, an individual to enable him to pursue studies or research are considered to be amounts received as a scholarship or fellowship grant for the purpose of section 117 if the primary purpose of the studies or research is to further the education and training of the recipient in his individual capacity and the amount provided by the grantor for such purpose does not represent compensation or payment for the services described in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph. Neither the fact that the recipient is required to furnish reports of his progress to the grantor, nor the fact that the results of his studies or research may be of some incidental benefits to the grantor shall, of itself, be considered to destroy the essential character of such amount as a scholarship or fellowship grant.

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960; 25 FR 14021, Dec. 21, 1960, as amended by T.D. 8032, 50 FR 27232, July 2, 1985]

§ 1.117-5 Federal grants requiring future service as a Federal employee.

(a) In general. Under section 117(c), amounts received by an individual under a Federal program as a scholarship or grant for qualified tuition and expenses at an institution of higher education are excluded from the gross income of the recipient even though the recipient is required to perform future service as a Federal employee. See paragraph (c) of this section for the definitions of the terms “qualified tuition and expenses” and “institution of higher education.”

(b) Exception for uniformed services scholarship programs. The requirements of this section do not apply to amounts received before 1985 by a member of a uniformed service who entered training before 1981 under the Armed Forces Health Professions Scholarship Program, National Public Health Service Corps Scholarship Training Program, or other substantially similar Federal programs requiring the recipient to work for a uniformed Federal service after completion of studies. These awards are governed by section 4 of Pub. L. 93-483 as amended by Pub. L. 95-171, Pub. L. 95-600 and Pub. L. 96-167. See section 101(3) of title 37, United States Code for the definition of the term “uniformed service.”

(c) Definitions—(1) Qualified tuition and related expenses. For purposes of section 117(c) and this section, qualified tuition and related expenses are those amounts which under the terms of the Federal program are required to be used and in fact are used for payment of:

(i) Tuition and fees that are required for the recipient's enrollment or attendance at an institution of higher education; and

(ii) Those amounts used for payment of fees, books, supplies and equipment required for courses of instruction at such an institution.

Incidental expenses are not considered related expenses and thus are not excludable from gross income under section 117(c). Incidental expenses include room and board at an institution of higher education, expenses for travel (including expenses for meals and lodging incurred during travel and allowances for travel of the recipient's family), research, clerical help, equipment and other expenses which are not required for enrollment at the institution or in a course of instruction at such institution.

(2) Institution of higher education. To qualify as an institution of higher education under this section, the institution must be a public or other nonprofit institution in any state which—

(i) Admits as regular students only individuals who have a certificate of graduation from a high school or the recognized equivalent of such a certificate;

(ii) Is legally authorized within the state to provide a program of education beyond high school; and

(iii) Provides an education program for which it awards a bachelor's or higher degree or which is acceptable for full credit towards such a degree, or which trains and prepares students for gainful employment in a recognized health profession. For purposes of this section, recognized health professions are those health professions which are supervised or monitored by appropriate state or Federal agencies or governing professional associations and which require members to be currently licensed or certified in order to practice.

(3) Service as a Federal employee—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, service as a Federal employee refers to employment of the recipient by the Federal government to work directly for the Federal government. Thus, Federal grants or scholarships which do not require the recipient to work directly for the Federal government are not governed by the rules of this section.

(ii) Service in a health manpower shortage area. For purposes of this section an obligation under a grant for the recipient to serve in a health related field in a health manpower shortage area as designated by the Secretary of Health and Human Services according to the criteria of the Public Health Services Act (42 U.S.C. 254(e)) and the regulations promulgated thereunder (42 CFR 5.1-5.4) will be considered an obligation to serve as a Federal employee.

(d) Records required for exclusion from gross income. To exclude amounts received under Federal programs requiring future services as a Federal employee, the recipient must maintain records that establish that the amounts received under such programs were used for qualified tuition and related expenses as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. Qualifying uses may be established by providing to the Service, upon request, copies of relevant bills, receipts, cancelled checks or other convenient documentation or records which clearly reflect the use of the money received under the grant. The recipient must also submit, upon request, documentation establishing receipt of the grant and setting out the terms and requirements of the particular grant.

(e) Applicability of rules of §§ 117(a) and 117(b). Except where a different rule has been expressly provided in this section, amounts received under Federal grants requiring future service as a Federal employee, and which meet the requirements for exclusion from gross income under this section, are subject to the rules, limitations and definitions specified in §§ 117 (a) and (b) of the Code and §§ 1.117-1 through 1.117-4.

(f) Effective date. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section will apply to amounts received after December 31, 1980 under Federal programs which meet the requirements of this section.

[T.D. 8032, 50 FR 27232, July 2, 1985]

§ 1.118-1 Contributions to the capital of a corporation.

In the case of a corporation, section 118 provides an exclusion from gross income with respect to any contribution of money or property to the capital of the taxpayer. Thus, if a corporation requires additional funds for conducting its business and obtains such funds through voluntary pro rata payments by its shareholders, the amounts so received being credited to its surplus account or to a special account, such amounts do not constitute income, although there is no increase in the outstanding shares of stock of the corporation. In such a case the payments are in the nature of assessments upon, and represent an additional price paid for, the shares of stock held by the individual shareholders, and will be treated as an addition to and as a part of the operating capital of the company. Section 118 also applies to contributions to capital made by persons other than shareholders. For example, the exclusion applies to the value of land or other property contributed to a corporation by a governmental unit or by a civic group for the purpose of inducing the corporation to locate its business in a particular community, or for the purpose of enabling the corporation to expand its operating facilities. However, the exclusion does not apply to any money or property transferred to the corporation in consideration for goods or services rendered, or to subsidies paid for the purpose of inducing the taxpayer to limit production. See section 362 for the basis of property acquired by a corporation through a contribution to its capital by its stockholders or by nonstockholders.

§ 1.118-2 Contribution in aid of construction.

(a) Special rule for water and sewerage disposal utilities—(1) In general. For purposes of section 118, the term contribution to the capital of the taxpayer includes any amount of money or other property received from any person (whether or not a shareholder) by a regulated public utility that provides water or sewerage disposal services if—

(i) The amount is a contribution in aid of construction under paragraph (b) of this section;

(ii) In the case of a contribution of property other than water or sewerage disposal facilities, the amount satisfies the expenditure rule under paragraph (c) of this section; and

(iii) The amount (or any property acquired or constructed with the amount) is not included in the taxpayer's rate base for ratemaking purposes.

(2) Definitions—(i) Regulated public utility has the meaning given such term by section 7701(a)(33), except that such term does not include any utility which is not required to provide water or sewerage disposal services to members of the general public in its service area.

(ii) Water or sewerage disposal facility is defined as tangible property described in section 1231(b) that is used predominately (80% or more) in the trade or business of furnishing water or sewerage disposal services.

(b) Contribution in aid of construction—(1) In general. For purposes of section 118(c) and this section, the term contribution in aid of construction means any amount of money or other property contributed to a regulated public utility that provides water or sewerage disposal services to the extent that the purpose of the contribution is to provide for the expansion, improvement, or replacement of the utility's water or sewerage disposal facilities.

(2) Advances. A contribution in aid of construction may include an amount of money or other property contributed to a regulated public utility for a water or sewerage disposal facility subject to a contingent obligation to repay the amount, in whole or in part, to the contributor (commonly referred to as an advance). For example, an amount received by a utility from a developer to construct a water facility pursuant to an agreement under which the utility will pay the developer a percentage of the receipts from the facility over a fixed period may constitute a contribution in aid of construction. Whether an advance is a contribution or a loan is determined under general principles of federal tax law based on all the facts and circumstances. For the treatment of any amount of a contribution in aid of construction that is repaid by the utility to the contributor, see paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) and (d)(2) of this section.

(3) Customer connection fee—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, a customer connection fee is not a contribution in aid of construction under this paragraph (b) and generally is includible in income. The term customer connection fee includes any amount of money or other property transferred to the utility representing the cost of installing a connection or service line (including the cost of meters and piping) from the utility's main water or sewer lines to the line owned by the customer or potential customer. A customer connection fee also includes any amount paid as a service charge for starting or stopping service.

(ii) Exceptions—(A) Multiple customers. Money or other property contributed for a connection or service line from the utility's main line to the customer's or the potential customer's line is not a customer connection fee if the connection or service line serves, or is designed to serve, more than one customer. For example, a contribution for a split service line that is designed to serve two customers is not a customer connection fee. On the other hand, if a water or sewerage disposal utility treats an apartment or office building as one utility customer, then the cost of installing a connection or service line from the utility's main water or sewer lines serving that single customer is a customer connection fee.

(B) Fire protection services. Money or other property contributed for public and private fire protection services is not a customer connection fee.

(4) Reimbursement for a facility previously placed in service—(i) In general. If a water or sewerage disposal facility is placed in service by the utility before an amount is contributed to the utility, the contribution is not a contribution in aid of construction under this paragraph (b) with respect to the cost of the facility unless, no later than 8 1/2 months after the close of the taxable year in which the facility was placed in service, there is an agreement, binding under local law, that the utility is to receive the amount as reimbursement for the cost of acquiring or constructing the facility. An order or tariff, binding under local law, that is issued or approved by the applicable public utility commission requiring current or prospective utility customers to reimburse the utility for the cost of acquiring or constructing the facility, is a binding agreement for purposes of the preceding sentence. If an agreement exists, the basis of the facility must be reduced by the amount of the expected contributions. Appropriate adjustments must be made if actual contributions differ from expected contributions.

(ii) Example. The application of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section is illustrated by the following example:

Example.

M, a calendar year regulated public utility that provides water services, spent $1,000,000 for the construction of a water facility that can serve 200 customers. M placed the facility in service in 2000. In June 2001, the public utility commission that regulates M approves a tariff requiring new customers to reimburse M for the cost of constructing the facility by paying a service availability charge of $5,000 per lot. Pursuant to the tariff, M expects to receive reimbursements for the cost of the facility of $100,000 per year for the years 2001 through 2010. The reimbursements are contributions in aid of construction under paragraph (b) of this section because no later than 8 1/2 months after the close of the taxable year in which the facility was placed in service there was a tariff, binding under local law, approved by the public utility commission requiring new customers to reimburse the utility for the cost of constructing the facility. The basis of the $1,000,000 facility is zero because the expected contributions equal the cost of the facility.

(5) Classification by ratemaking authority. The fact that the applicable ratemaking authority classifies any money or other property received by a utility as a contribution in aid of construction is not conclusive as to its treatment under this paragraph (b).

(c) Expenditure rule—(1) In general. An amount satisfies the expenditure rule of section 118(c)(2) if the amount is expended for the acquisition or construction of property described in section 118(c)(2)(A), the amount is paid or incurred before the end of the second taxable year after the taxable year in which the amount was received as required by section 118(c)(2)(B), and accurate records are kept of contributions and expenditures as provided in section 118(c)(2)(C).

(2) Excess amount—(i) Includible in the utility's income. An amount received by a utility as a contribution in aid of construction that is not expended for the acquisition or construction of water or sewerage disposal facilities as required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section (the excess amount) is not a contribution to the capital of the taxpayer under paragraph (a) of this section. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, such excess amount is includible in the utility's income in the taxable year in which the amount was received.

(ii) Repayment of excess amount. If the excess amount described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section is repaid, in whole or in part, either—

(A) Before the end of the time period described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the repayment amount is not includible in the utility's income; or

(B) After the end of the time period described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the repayment amount may be deducted by the utility in the taxable year in which it is paid or incurred to the extent such amount was included in income.

(3) Example. The application of this paragraph (c) is illustrated by the following example:

Example.

M, a calendar year regulated public utility that provides water services, received a $1,000,000 contribution in aid of construction in 2000 for the purpose of constructing a water facility. To the extent that the $1,000,000 exceeded the actual cost of the facility, the contribution was subject to being returned. In 2001, M built the facility at a cost of $700,000 and returned $200,000 to the contributor. As of the end of 2002, M had not returned the remaining $100,000. Assuming accurate records are kept, the requirement under section 118(c)(2) is satisfied for $700,000 of the contribution. Because $200,000 of the contribution was returned within the time period during which qualifying expenditures could be made, this amount is not includible in M's income. However, the remaining $100,000 is includible in M's income for its 2000 taxable year (the taxable year in which the amount was received) because the amount was neither spent nor repaid during the prescribed time period. To the extent M repays the remaining $100,000 after year 2002, M would be entitled to a deduction in the year such repayment is paid or incurred.

(d) Adjusted basis—(1) Exclusion from basis. Except for a repayment described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, to the extent that a water or sewerage disposal facility is acquired or constructed with an amount received as a contribution to the capital of the taxpayer under paragraph (a) of this section, the basis of the facility is reduced by the amount of the contribution. To the extent the water or sewerage disposal facility is acquired as a contribution to the capital of the taxpayer under paragraph (a) of this section, the basis of the contributed facility is zero.

(2) Repayment of contribution. If a contribution to the capital of the taxpayer under paragraph (a) of this section is repaid to the contributor, either in whole or in part, then the repayment amount is a capital expenditure in the taxable year in which it is paid or incurred, resulting in an increase in the property's adjusted basis in such year. Capital expenditures allocated to depreciable property under paragraph (d)(3) of this section may be depreciated over the remaining recovery period for that property.

(3) Allocation of contributions. An amount treated as a capital expenditure under this paragraph (d) is to be allocated proportionately to the adjusted basis of each property acquired or constructed with the contribution based on the relative cost of such property.

(4) Example. The application of this paragraph (d) is illustrated by the following example:

Example.

A, a calendar year regulated public utility that provides water services, received a $1,000,000 contribution in aid of construction in 2000 as an advance from B, a developer, for the purpose of constructing a water facility. To the extent that the $1,000,000 exceeds the actual cost of the facility, the contribution is subject to being returned. Under the terms of the advance, A agrees to pay to B a percentage of the receipts from the facility over a fixed period, but limited to the cost of the facility. In 2001, A builds the facility at a cost of $700,000 and returns $300,000 to B. In 2002, A pays $20,000 to B out of the receipts from the facility. Assuming accurate records are kept, the $700,000 advance is a contribution to the capital of A under paragraph (a) of this section and is excludable from A's income. The basis of the $700,000 facility constructed with this contribution to capital is zero. The $300,000 excess amount is not a contribution to the capital of A under paragraph (a) of this section because it does not meet the expenditure rule described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. However, this excess amount is not includible in A's income pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section since the amount is repaid to B within the required time period. The repayment of the $300,000 excess amount to B in 2001 is not treated as a capital expenditure by A. The $20,000 payment to B in 2002 is treated as a capital expenditure by A in 2002 resulting in an increase in the adjusted basis of the water facility from zero to $20,000.

(e) Statute of limitations—(1) Extension of statute of limitations. Under section 118(d)(1), the statutory period for assessment of any deficiency attributable to a contribution to capital under paragraph (a) of this section does not expire before the expiration of 3 years after the date the taxpayer notifies the Secretary in the time and manner prescribed in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.

(2) Time and manner of notification. Notification is made by attaching a statement to the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year in which any of the reportable items in paragraphs (e)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section occur. The statement must contain the taxpayer's name, address, employer identification number, taxable year, and the following information with respect to contributions of property other than water or sewerage disposal facilities that are subject to the expenditure rule described in paragraph (c) of this section—

(i) The amount of contributions in aid of construction expended during the taxable year for property described in section 118(c)(2)(A) (qualified property) as required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, identified by taxable year in which the contributions were received;

(ii) The amount of contributions in aid of construction that the taxpayer does not intend to expend for qualified property as required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, identified by taxable year in which the contributions were received; and

(iii) The amount of contributions in aid of construction that the taxpayer failed to expend for qualified property as required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, identified by taxable year in which the contributions were received.

(f) Effective date. This section is applicable for any money or other property received by a regulated public utility that provides water or sewerage disposal services on or after January 11, 2001.

[T.D. 8936, 66 FR 2254, Jan. 11, 2001]

§ 1.119-1 Meals and lodging furnished for the convenience of the employer.

(a) Meals—(1) In general. The value of meals furnished to an employee by his employer shall be excluded from the employee's gross income if two tests are met: (i) The meals are furnished on the business premises of the employer, and (ii) the meals are furnished for the convenience of the employer. The question of whether meals are furnished for the convenience of the employer is one of fact to be determined by analysis of all the facts and circumstances in each case. If the tests described in subdivisions (i) and (ii) of this subparagraph are met, the exclusion shall apply irrespective of whether under an employment contract or a statute fixing the terms of employment such meals are furnished as compensation.

(2) Meals furnished without a charge. (i) Meals furnished by an employer without charge to the employee will be regarded as furnished for the convenience of the employer if such meals are furnished for a substantial noncompensatory business reason of the employer. If an employer furnishes meals as a means of providing additional compensation to his employee (and not for a substantial noncompensatory business reason of the employer), the meals so furnished will not be regarded as furnished for the convenience of the employer. Conversely, if the employer furnishes meals to his employee for a substantial noncompensatory business reason, the meals so furnished will be regarded as furnished for the convenience of the employer, even though such meals are also furnished for a compensatory reason. In determining the reason of an employer for furnishing meals, the mere declaration that meals are furnished for a noncompensatory business reason is not sufficient to prove that meals are furnished for the convenience of the employer, but such determination will be based upon an examination of all the surrounding facts and circumstances. In subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph, there are set forth some of the substantial noncompensatory business reasons which occur frequently and which justify the conclusion that meals furnished for such a reason are furnished for the convenience of the employer. In subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph, there are set forth some of the business reasons which are considered to be compensatory and which, in the absence of a substantial noncompensatory business reason, justify the conclusion that meals furnished for such a reason are not furnished for the convenience of the employer. Generally, meals furnished before or after the working hours of the employee will not be regarded as furnished for the convenience of the employer, but see subdivision (ii) (d) and (f) of this subparagraph for some exceptions to this general rule. Meals furnished on nonworking days do not qualify for the exclusion under section 119. If the employee is required to occupy living quarters on the business premises of his employer as a condition of his employment (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section), the exclusion applies to the value of any meal furnished without charge to the employee on such premises.

(ii)(a) Meals will be regarded as furnished for a substantial noncompensatory business reason of the employer when the meals are furnished to the employee during his working hours to have the employee available for emergency call during his meal period. In order to demonstrate that meals are furnished to the employee to have the employee available for emergency call during the meal period, it must be shown that emergencies have actually occurred, or can reasonably be expected to occur, in the employer's business which have resulted, or will result, in the employer calling on the employee to perform his job during his meal period.

(b) Meals will be regarded as furnished for a substantial noncompensatory business reason of the employer when the meals are furnished to the employee during his working hours because the employer's business is such that the employee must be restricted to a short meal period, such as 30 or 45 minutes, and because the employee could not be expected to eat elsewhere in such a short meal period. For example, meals may qualify under this subdivision when the employer is engaged in a business in which the peak work load occurs during the normal lunch hours. However, meals cannot qualify under this subdivision (b) when the reason for restricting the time of the meal period is so that the employee can be let off earlier in the day.

(c) Meals will be regarded as furnished for a substantial noncompensatory business reason of the employer when the meals are furnished to the employee during his working hours because the employee could not otherwise secure proper meals within a reasonable meal period. For example, meals may qualify under this subdivision (c) when there are insufficient eating facilities in the vicinity of the employer's premises.

(d) A meal furnished to a restaurant employee or other food service employee for each meal period in which the employee works will be regarded as furnished for a substantial noncompensatory business reason of the employer, irrespective of whether the meal is furnished during, immediately before, or immediately after the working hours of the employee.

(e) If the employer furnishes meals to employees at a place of business and the reason for furnishing the meals to each of substantially all of the employees who are furnished the meals is a substantial noncompensatory business reason of the employer, the meals furnished to each other employee will also be regarded as furnished for a substantial noncompensatory business reason of the employer.

(f) If an employer would have furnished a meal to an employee during his working hours for a substantial noncompensatory business reason, a meal furnished to such an employee immediately after his working hours because his duties prevented him from obtaining a meal during his working hours will be regarded as furnished for a substantial noncompensatory business reason.

(iii) Meals will be regarded as furnished for a compensatory business reason of the employer when the meals are furnished to the employee to promote the morale or goodwill of the employee, or to attract prospective employees.

(3) Meals furnished with a charge. (i) If an employer provides meals which an employee may or may not purchase, the meals will not be regarded as furnished for the convenience of the employer. Thus, meals for which a charge is made by the employer will not be regarded as furnished for the convenience of the employer if the employee has a choice of accepting the meals and paying for them or of not paying for them and providing his meals in another manner.

(ii) If an employer furnishes an employee meals for which the employee is charged an unvarying amount (for example, by subtraction from his stated compensation) irrespective of whether he accepts the meals, the amount of such flat charge made by the employer for such meals is not, as such, part of the compensation includible in the gross income of the employee; whether the value of the meals so furnished is excludable under section 119 is determined by applying the rules of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph. If meals furnished for an unvarying amount are not furnished for the convenience of the employer in accordance with the rules of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, the employee shall include in gross income the value of the meals regardless of whether the value exceeds or is less than the amount charged for such meals. In the absence of evidence to the contrary, the value of the meals may be deemed to be equal to the amount charged for them.

(b) Lodging. The value of lodging furnished to an employee by the employer shall be excluded from the employee's gross income if three tests are met:

(1) The lodging is furnished on the business premises of the employer,

(2) The lodging is furnished for the convenience of the employer, and

(3) The employee is required to accept such lodging as a condition of his employment.

The requirement of subparagraph (3) of this paragraph that the employee is required to accept such lodging as a condition of his employment means that he be required to accept the lodging in order to enable him properly to perform the duties of his employment. Lodging will be regarded as furnished to enable the employee properly to perform the duties of his employment when, for example, the lodging is furnished because the employee is required to be available for duty at all times or because the employee could not perform the services required of him unless he is furnished such lodging. If the tests described in subparagraphs (1), (2), and (3) of this paragraph are met, the exclusion shall apply irrespective of whether a charge is made, or whether, under an employment contract or statute fixing the terms of employment, such lodging is furnished as compensation. If the employer furnishes the employee lodging for which the employee is charged an unvarying amount irrespective of whether he accepts the lodging, the amount of the charge made by the employer for such lodging is not, as such, part of the compensation includible in the gross income of the employee; whether the value of the lodging is excludable from gross income under section 119 is determined by applying the other rules of this paragraph. If the tests described in subparagraph (1), (2), and (3) of this paragraph are not met, the employee shall include in gross income the value of the lodging regardless of whether it exceeds or is less than the amount charged. In the absence of evidence to the contrary, the value of the lodging may be deemed to be equal to the amount charged.

(c) Business premises of the employer—(1) In general. For purposes of this section, the term “business premises of the employer” generally means the place of employment of the employee. For example, meals and lodging furnished in the employer's home to a domestic servant would constitute meals and lodging furnished on the business premises of the employer. Similarly, meals furnished to cowhands while herding their employer's cattle on leased land would be regarded as furnished on the business premises of the employer.

(2) Certain camps. For taxable years beginning after December 31, 1981, in the case of an individual who is furnished lodging by or on behalf of his employer in a camp (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section) in a foreign country (as defined in § 1.911-2(h)), the camp shall be considered to be part of the business premises of the employer.

(d) Camp defined—(1) In general. For the purposes of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a camp is lodging that is all of the following:

(i) Provided by or on behalf of the employer for the convenience of the employer because the place at which the employee renders services is in a remote area where satisfactory housing is not available to the employee on the open market within a reasonable commuting distance of that place;

(ii) Located, as near as practicable, in the vicinity of the place at which the employee renders services; and

(iii) Furnished in a common area or enclave which is not available to the general public for lodging or accommodations and which normally accommodates ten or more employees.

(2) Satisfactory housing. For purposes of paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, facts and circumstances that may be relevant in determining whether housing available to the employee is satisfactory include, but are not limited to, the size and condition of living space and the availability and quality of utilities such as water, sewers or other waste disposal facilities, electricity, or heat. The general environment in which housing is located (e.g., climate, prevalence of insects, etc.) does not of itself make housing unsatisfactory. The general environment is relevant, however, if housing is inadequate to protect the occupants from environmental conditions. The individual employee's income level is not relevant in determining whether housing is satisfactory; it may, however, be relevant in determining whether satisfactory housing is available to the employee (see paragraph (d)(3)(i)(B) of this section).

(3) Availability of satisfactory housing—(i) Facts and circumstances. For purposes of paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, facts and circumstances to be considered in determining whether satisfactory housing is available to the employee on the open market include but are not limited to:

(A) The number of housing units available on the open market in relation to the number of housing units required for the employer's employees;

(B) The cost of housing available on the open market;

(C) The quality of housing available on the open market; and

(D) The presence of warfare or civil insurrection within the area where housing would be available which would subject U.S. citizens to unusual risk of personal harm or property loss.

(ii) Presumptions. Satisfactory housing will generally be considered to be unavailable to the employee on the open market if either of the following conditions is satisfied:

(A) The foreign government requires the employer to provide housing for its employees other than housing available on the open market; or

(B) An unrelated person awarding work to the employer requires that the employer's employees occupy housing specified by such unrelated person.

The condition of either paragraph (d)(3)(ii) (A) or (B) of this section is not satisfied if the requirement described therein and imposed either by a foreign government or unrelated person applies primarily to U.S. employers and not to a significant number of third country employers or applies primarily to employers of U.S. employees and not to a significant number of employers of third country employees.

(4) Reasonable commuting distance. For purposes of paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, in determining whether a commuting distance is reasonable, the accessibility of the place at which the employee renders services due to geographic factors, the quality of the roads, the customarily available transportation, and the usual travel time (at the time of day such travel would be required) to the place at which the employee renders services shall be taken into account.

(5) Common area or enclave. A cluster of housing units does not satisfy paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section if it is adjacent to or surrounded by substantially similar housing available to the general public. Two or more common areas or enclaves that house employees who work on the same project (for example, a highway project) are considered to be one common area or enclave in determining whether they normally accommodate ten or more employees.

(e) Rules. The exclusion provided by section 119 applies only to meals and lodging furnished in kind by or on behalf of an employer to his employee. If the employee has an option to receive additional compensation in lieu of meals or lodging in kind, the value of such meals and lodging is not excludable from gross income under section 119. However, the mere fact that an employee, at his option, may decline to accept meals tendered in kind will not of itself require inclusion of the value thereof in gross income. Cash allowances for meals or lodging received by an employee are includible in gross income to the extent that such allowances constitute compensation.

(f) Examples. The provisions of section 119 may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

A waitress who works from 7 a.m. to 4 p.m. is furnished without charge two meals a work day. The employer encourages the waitress to have her breakfast on his business premises before starting work, but does not require her to have breakfast there. She is required, however, to have her lunch on such premises. Since the waitress is a food service employee and works during the normal breakfast and lunch periods, the waitress is permitted to exclude from her gross income both the value of the breakfast and the value of the lunch.

Example 2.

The waitress in example (1) is allowed to have meals on the employer's premises without charge on her days off. The waitress is not permitted to exclude the value of such meals from her gross income.

Example 3.

A bank teller who works from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. is furnished his lunch without charge in a cafeteria which the bank maintains on its premises. The bank furnishes the teller such meals in order to limit his lunch period to 30 minutes since the bank's peak work load occurs during the normal lunch period. If the teller had to obtain his lunch elsewhere, it would take him considerably longer than 30 minutes for lunch, and the bank strictly enforces the 30-minute time limit. The bank teller may exclude from his gross income the value of such meals obtained in the bank cafeteria.

Example 4.

Assume the same facts as in example (3), except that the bank charges the bank teller an unvarying rate per meal regardless of whether he eats in the cafeteria. The bank teller is not required to include in gross income such flat amount charged as part of his compensation, and he is entitled to exclude from his gross income the value of the meals he receives for such flat charge.

Example 5.

A Civil Service employee of a State is employed at an institution and is required by his employer to be available for duty at all times. The employer furnishes the employee with meals and lodging at the institution without charge. Under the applicable State statute, his meals and lodging are regarded as part of the employee's compensation. The employee would nevertheless be entitled to exclude the value of such meals and lodging from his gross income.

Example 6.

An employee of an institution is given the choice of residing at the institution free of charge, or of residing elsewhere and receiving a cash allowance in addition to his regular salary. If he elects to reside at the institution, the value to the employee of the lodging furnished by the employer will be includible in the employee's gross income because his residence at the institution is not required in order for him to perform properly the duties of his employment.

Example 7.

A construction worker is employed at a construction project at a remote job site in Alaska. Due to the inaccessibility of facilities for the employees who are working at the job site to obtain food and lodging and the prevailing weather conditions, the employer is required to furnish meals and lodging to the employee at the camp site in order to carry on the construction project. The employee is required to pay $40 a week for the meals and lodging. The weekly charge of $40 is not, as such, part of the compensation includible in the gross income of the employee, and under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section the value of the meals and lodging is excludable from his gross income.

Example 8.

A manufacturing company provides a cafeteria on its premises at which its employees can purchase their lunch. There is no other eating facility located near the company's premises, but the employee can furnish his own meal by bringing his lunch. The amount of compensation which any employee is required to include in gross income is not reduced by the amount charged for the meals, and the meals are not considered to be furnished for the convenience of the employer.

Example 9.

A hospital maintains a cafeteria on its premises where all of its 230 employees may obtain a meal during their working hours. No charge is made for these meals. The hospital furnishes such meals in order to have each of 210 of the employees available for any emergencies that may occur, and it is shown that each such employee is at times called upon to perform services during his meal period. Although the hospital does not require such employees to remain on the premises during meal periods, they rarely leave the hospital during their meal period. Since the hospital furnishes meals to each of substantially all of its employees in order to have each of them available for emergency call during his meal period, all of the hospital employees who obtain their meals in the hospital cafeteria may exclude from their gross income the value of such meals.

[T.D. 6745, 29 FR 9380, July 9, 1964, as amended by T.D. 8006, 50 FR 2964, Jan. 23, 1985]

§ 1.120-1 Statutory subsistence allowance received by police.

(a) Section 120 excludes from the gross income of an individual employed as a police official by a State, Territory, or possession of the United States, by any of their political subdivisions, or by the District of Columbia, any amount received as a statutory subsistence allowance to the extent that such allowance does not exceed $5 per day. For purposes of this section, the term “statutory subsistence allowance” means an amount which is designated as a subsistence allowance under the laws of a State, a Territory, or a possession of the United States, any political subdivision of any of the foregoing, or the District of Columbia and which is paid to an individual who is employed as a police official of such governmental unit. A subsistence allowance paid to a police official by any of the foregoing governmental units which is not so provided by statute may not be excluded from gross income under the provisions of section 120. The term “police official” includes an employee of any of the foregoing governmental units who has police duties, such as a sheriff, a detective, a policeman, or a State police trooper, however designated.

(b) The exclusion provided by section 120 is to be computed on a daily basis, that is, for each day for which the statutory allowance is paid. If the statute providing the allowance does not specify the daily amount of such allowance, the allowance shall be converted to a daily basis for the purpose of applying the limitation provided herein. For example, if a State statute provides for a weekly subsistence allowance, the daily amount is to be determined by dividing the weekly amount by the number of days for which the allowance is paid. Thus, if a State trooper receives a weekly statutory subsistence allowance of $40 would be $8, that is, $40 divided by 5 for 5 days of the week, the daily amount would be $8, that is, $40 divided by 5. However, for purposes of this section, only $5 per day may be excluded, or $25 on a weekly basis.

(c) Expenses in respect of which the allowance under section 120 is paid may not be deducted under any provision of the income tax laws except to the extent that (1) such expenses exceed the amount of the exclusion, and (2) the excess is otherwise allowable as a deduction. For example, if a State statute provides a subsistence allowance of $3 per day and the taxpayer, a state trooper, incurs expenditures of $4.50 for meals while away from home overnight on official police duties only $3 would be excludable under this section. Expenses relating to such exclusion ($3) may not be deducted under any provision of the income tax laws. However, the remaining $1.50 may be an allowable deduction under section 162 as traveling expenses while away from home in the performance of official duties. See § 1.162-2.

(d) In the case of taxable years ending after September 30, 1958, section 120 and this section do not apply to amounts received as a statutory subsistence allowance for any day after September 30, 1958.

§ 1.120-3 Notice of application for recognition of status of qualified group legal services plan.

(a) In general. In order for a plan to be a qualified group legal services plan for purposes of the exclusion from gross income provided by section 120(a), the plan must give notice to the Internal Revenue Service that it is applying for recognition of its status as a qualified plan. Paragraph (b) of this section describes how the notice is to be filed for the plan. Paragraph (c) of this section describes the action that the Internal Revenue Service will take in response to the notice submitted for the plan. Paragraph (d) of this section describes the period of plan qualification.

(b) Filing of notice—(1) In general. A notice of application for recognition of the status of a qualified group legal services plan must be filed with the key district director of internal revenue as described in § 601.201(n). The notice must be filed on Form 1024, Application for Recognition of Exemption Under section 501(a) or for Determination Under section 120, with the accompanying Schedule L, and must contain the information required by the form and any accompanying instructions. The form may be filed by either the employer adopting the plan or the person administering the plan. No Form 1024 and Schedule L may be filed for a plan before an employer adopts the plan, or proposes to adopt the plan contingent only upon the recognition of the plan as a qualified plan.

(2) Plans to which more than one employer contributes. In general, for purposes of section 120 the adoption of a plan by an employer constitutes the adoption of a separate plan to which that employer alone contributes, notwithstanding that, in form, the employer purports to adopt a plan with respect to which the employer is one of two or more contributing employers. Accordingly, a separate Schedule L must be filed pursuant to the instructions accompanying Form 1024 for each employer adopting a plan.

(3) Certain collectively bargained plans. Notwithstanding subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, if a plan to which more than one employer contributes is a plan to which this subparagraph (3) applies, the plan is treated as a single plan for purposes of section 120. Accordingly, only one Form 1024 and Schedule L is required to be filed for the plan, regardless of the number of employers originally adopting the plan. In addition, once a Form 1024 and Schedule L is filed, no additional filing is required with respect to an employer who thereafter adopts the plan. In general, this subparagraph (3) applies to any plan that is maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement between employee representatives and more than one employer who is required by the plan instrument or other agreement to contribute to the plan with respect to employees (or their spouses or dependents) participating in the plan. This subparagraph does not apply, however, if all employers required to contribute to the plan are corporations which are members of a controlled group of corporations within the meaning of section 1563(a), determined without regard to section 1563(e)(3)(C). If all employers required to contribute to the plan are corporations which are members of such a controlled group, the filing requirements described in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph apply, notwithstanding that the plan is maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement.

(c) Internal Revenue Service action on notice of application for recognition. The Internal Revenue Service will issue to the person submitting Form 1024 and Schedule L a ruling or determination letter stating that the plan is or is not a qualified group legal services plan. For general procedural rules, see § 601.201 (a) through (n), as that section relates to rulings and determination letters.

(d) Period of plan qualification—(1) In general. In the case of a favorable determination, the plan will be considered a qualified group legal services plan. If a Form 1024 and Schedule L required to be filed by or on behalf of an employer is filed before—

(i) The end of the first plan year (as determined under the plan),

(ii) The end of the plan year within which the employer adopts the plan, or

(iii) July 29, 1980,

the period of plan qualification with respect to the employer will begin on the date the plan is adopted by the employer (or, if later, January 1, 1977). If the form and schedule are not filed before the latest of the dates described in subdivisions (i), (ii) and (iii), the period of plan qualification with respect to the employer will begin on the date of filing. In any case in which either the Form 1024 or Schedule L filed by or on behalf of an employer is incomplete, the date of filing is the date on which the incomplete form or schedule is filed, if the necessary additional information is provided at the request of the Commissioner within the additional time period allowed by the Commissioner. If the additional information is not provided within the additional time period, allowed, the date of filing is the date on which the additional information is filed. If no separate Form 1024 and Schedule L are required to be filed by or on behalf of an employer (see paragraph (b)(3) of this section), the period of plan qualification with respect to the employer will begin on the date the plan is adopted by the employer (or, if later, January 1, 1977). In any case in which a plan is materially modified to conform to the requirements of section 120, either before or after a Form 1024 and Schedule L are filed, the period of plan qualification will not include any period before the effective date of the modification.

(2) Plans in existence on June 4, 1976. (i) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a written group legal services plan providing for employer contributions which was in existence on June 4, 1976, will be considered a qualified group legal services plan for the period January 1, 1977, through April 2, 1977. However, if the plan is maintained pursuant to one or more agreements which were in effect on October 4, 1976, and which the Secretary of Labor finds to be collective bargaining agreements, the period of deemed qualification will extend beyond April 2, 1977, and end on the date on which the last of the collective bargaining agreements relating to the plan terminates. Extensions of a bargaining agreement which are agreed to after October 4, 1976, are to be disregarded. The period of deemed qualification for a plan maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement will not, however, extend beyond December 31, 1981.

(ii) A written group legal services plan will be considered to have been in existence on June 4, 1976, if on or before that date the plan was reduced to writing and adopted by one or more employers. No amounts need have been contributed under the plan as of June 4, 1976.

(iii) Notwithstanding that a plan is a qualified plan for the period of deemed qualification described in this paragraph (d)(2), the rules of paragraphs (c) and (d)(1) of this section still apply with respect to a Form 1024 and Schedule L filed for the plan. For example, if a Form 1024 and Schedule L filed by or on behalf of an employer are filed before the latest of the 3 dates described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, in the case of a favorable determination the plan will be a qualified plan from the date the plan is adopted by the employer (or, if later, January 1, 1977), and any period of deemed qualification and the period of qualification based upon the favorable determination will overlap. However, in the case of a plan to which this paragraph (d)(2) applies, if a Form 1024 and Schedule L required to be filed by or on behalf of an employer is not filed before the latest of the 3 dates described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the following rules shall apply. In general, if Form 1024 and Schedule L are filed before the end of the plan year following the plan year with or within which the plan's period of deemed qualification expires, in the event of a favorable determination the plan will be a qualified plan with respect to the employer beginning on the earlier of the day following the date on which the period of deemed qualification expires or the date on which the Form 1024 and Schedule L are filed. The period of plan qualification with respect to an employer cannot, however, include any period before the employer adopts the plan. If the Form 1024 and Schedule L are not filed before the end of the plan year following the plan year with or within which the plan's period of deemed qualification expires, in the case of a favorable determination the plan will be a qualified plan with respect to an employer from the later of the date of filing or adoption of the plan by the employer. The rules described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section relating to incomplete filings and plan modifications apply with respect to a filing described in this paragraph (d)(2).

(e) Effective date. This section is effective for notices of application for recognition of the status of a qualified group legal services plan filed after May 29, 1980.

(Secs. 120(c)(4) and 7805 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, 90 Stat. 1926, 68A Stat. 917; (26 U.S.C. 120(c)(4), 7805))

[T.D. 7696, 45 FR 28320, Apr. 29, 1980]

§ 1.121-1 Exclusion of gain from sale or exchange of a principal residence.

(a) In general. Section 121 provides that, under certain circumstances, gross income does not include gain realized on the sale or exchange of property that was owned and used by a taxpayer as the taxpayer's principal residence. Subject to the other provisions of section 121, a taxpayer may exclude gain only if, during the 5-year period ending on the date of the sale or exchange, the taxpayer owned and used the property as the taxpayer's principal residence for periods aggregating 2 years or more.

(b) Residence—(1) In general. Whether property is used by the taxpayer as the taxpayer's residence depends upon all the facts and circumstances. A property used by the taxpayer as the taxpayer's residence may include a houseboat, a house trailer, or the house or apartment that the taxpayer is entitled to occupy as a tenant-stockholder in a cooperative housing corporation (as those terms are defined in section 216(b)(1) and (2)). Property used by the taxpayer as the taxpayer's residence does not include personal property that is not a fixture under local law.

(2) Principal residence. In the case of a taxpayer using more than one property as a residence, whether property is used by the taxpayer as the taxpayer's principal residence depends upon all the facts and circumstances. If a taxpayer alternates between 2 properties, using each as a residence for successive periods of time, the property that the taxpayer uses a majority of the time during the year ordinarily will be considered the taxpayer's principal residence. In addition to the taxpayer's use of the property, relevant factors in determining a taxpayer's principal residence, include, but are not limited to—

(i) The taxpayer's place of employment;

(ii) The principal place of abode of the taxpayer's family members;

(iii) The address listed on the taxpayer's federal and state tax returns, driver's license, automobile registration, and voter registration card;

(iv) The taxpayer's mailing address for bills and correspondence;

(v) The location of the taxpayer's banks; and

(vi) The location of religious organizations and recreational clubs with which the taxpayer is affiliated.

(3) Vacant land—(i) In general. The sale or exchange of vacant land is not a sale or exchange of the taxpayer's principal residence unless—

(A) The vacant land is adjacent to land containing the dwelling unit of the taxpayer's principal residence;

(B) The taxpayer owned and used the vacant land as part of the taxpayer's principal residence;

(C) The taxpayer sells or exchanges the dwelling unit in a sale or exchange that meets the requirements of section 121 within 2 years before or 2 years after the date of the sale or exchange of the vacant land; and

(D) The requirements of section 121 have otherwise been met with respect to the vacant land.

(ii) Limitations—(A) Maximum limitation amount. For purposes of section 121(b)(1) and (2) (relating to the maximum limitation amount of the section 121 exclusion), the sale or exchange of the dwelling unit and the vacant land are treated as one sale or exchange. Therefore, only one maximum limitation amount of $250,000 ($500,000 for certain joint returns) applies to the combined sales or exchanges of vacant land and the dwelling unit. In applying the maximum limitation amount to sales or exchanges that occur in different taxable years, gain from the sale or exchange of the dwelling unit, up to the maximum limitation amount under section 121(b)(1) or (2), is excluded first and each spouse is treated as excluding one-half of the gain from a sale or exchange to which section 121(b)(2)(A) and § 1.121-2(a)(3)(i) (relating to the limitation for certain joint returns) apply.

(B) Sale or exchange of more than one principal residence in 2-year period. If a dwelling unit and vacant land are sold or exchanged in separate transactions that qualify for the section 121 exclusion under this paragraph (b)(3), each of the transactions is disregarded in applying section 121(b)(3) (restricting the application of section 121 to only 1 sale or exchange every 2 years) to the other transactions but is taken into account as a sale or exchange of a principal residence on the date of the transaction in applying section 121(b)(3) to that transaction and the sale or exchange of any other principal residence.

(C) Sale or exchange of vacant land before dwelling unit. If the sale or exchange of the dwelling unit occurs in a later taxable year than the sale or exchange of the vacant land and after the date prescribed by law (including extensions) for the filing of the return for the taxable year of the sale or exchange of the vacant land, any gain from the sale or exchange of the vacant land must be treated as taxable on the taxpayer's return for the taxable year of the sale or exchange of the vacant land. If the taxpayer has reported gain from the sale or exchange of the vacant land as taxable, after satisfying the requirements of this paragraph (b)(3) the taxpayer may claim the section 121 exclusion with regard to the sale or exchange of the vacant land (for any period for which the period of limitation under section 6511 has not expired) by filing an amended return.

(4) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph (b) are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

Taxpayer A owns 2 residences, one in New York and one in Florida. From 1999 through 2004, he lives in the New York residence for 7 months and the Florida residence for 5 months of each year. In the absence of facts and circumstances indicating otherwise, the New York residence is A's principal residence. A would be eligible for the section 121 exclusion of gain from the sale or exchange of the New York residence, but not the Florida residence.

Example 2.

Taxpayer B owns 2 residences, one in Virginia and one in Maine. During 1999 and 2000, she lives in the Virginia residence. During 2001 and 2002, she lives in the Maine residence. During 2003, she lives in the Virginia residence. B's principal residence during 1999, 2000, and 2003 is the Virginia residence. B's principal residence during 2001 and 2002 is the Maine residence. B would be eligible for the 121 exclusion of gain from the sale or exchange of either residence (but not both) during 2003.

Example 3.

In 1991 Taxpayer C buys property consisting of a house and 10 acres that she uses as her principal residence. In May 2005 C sells 8 acres of the land and realizes a gain of $110,000. C does not sell the dwelling unit before the due date for filing C's 2005 return, therefore C is not eligible to exclude the $110,000 of gain. In March 2007 C sells the house and remaining 2 acres realizing a gain of $180,000 from the sale of the house. C may exclude the $180,000 of gain. Because the sale of the 8 acres occurred within 2 years from the date of the sale of the dwelling unit, the sale of the 8 acres is treated as a sale of the taxpayer's principal residence under paragraph (b)(3) of this section. C may file an amended return for 2005 to claim an exclusion for $70,000 ($250,000-$180,000 gain previously excluded) of the $110,000 gain from the sale of the 8 acres.

Example 4.

In 1998 Taxpayer D buys a house and 1 acre that he uses as his principal residence. In 1999 D buys 29 acres adjacent to his house and uses the vacant land as part of his principal residence. In 2003 D sells the house and 1 acre and the 29 acres in 2 separate transactions. D sells the house and 1 acre at a loss of $25,000. D realizes $270,000 of gain from the sale of the 29 acres. D may exclude the $245,000 gain from the 2 sales.

(c) Ownership and use requirements—(1) In general. The requirements of ownership and use for periods aggregating 2 years or more may be satisfied by establishing ownership and use for 24 full months or for 730 days (365 × 2). The requirements of ownership and use may be satisfied during nonconcurrent periods if both the ownership and use tests are met during the 5-year period ending on the date of the sale or exchange.

(2) Use. (i) In establishing whether a taxpayer has satisfied the 2-year use requirement, occupancy of the residence is required. However, short temporary absences, such as for vacation or other seasonal absence (although accompanied with rental of the residence), are counted as periods of use.

(ii) Determination of use during periods of out-of-residence care. If a taxpayer has become physically or mentally incapable of self-care and the taxpayer sells or exchanges property that the taxpayer owned and used as the taxpayer's principal residence for periods aggregating at least 1 year during the 5-year period preceding the sale or exchange, the taxpayer is treated as using the property as the taxpayer's principal residence for any period of time during the 5-year period in which the taxpayer owns the property and resides in any facility (including a nursing home) licensed by a State or political subdivision to care for an individual in the taxpayer's condition.

(3) Ownership—(i) Trusts. If a residence is owned by a trust, for the period that a taxpayer is treated under sections 671 through 679 (relating to the treatment of grantors and others as substantial owners) as the owner of the trust or the portion of the trust that includes the residence, the taxpayer will be treated as owning the residence for purposes of satisfying the 2-year ownership requirement of section 121, and the sale or exchange by the trust will be treated as if made by the taxpayer.

(ii) Certain single owner entities. If a residence is owned by an eligible entity (within the meaning of § 301.7701-3(a) of this chapter) that has a single owner and is disregarded for federal tax purposes as an entity separate from its owner under § 301.7701-3 of this chapter, the owner will be treated as owning the residence for purposes of satisfying the 2-year ownership requirement of section 121, and the sale or exchange by the entity will be treated as if made by the owner.

(4) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph (c) are illustrated by the following examples. The examples assume that § 1.121-3 (relating to the reduced maximum exclusion) does not apply to the sale of the property. The examples are as follows:

Example 1.

Taxpayer A has owned and used his house as his principal residence since 1986. On January 31, 1998, A moves to another state. A rents his house to tenants from that date until April 18, 2000, when he sells it. A is eligible for the section 121 exclusion because he has owned and used the house as his principal residence for at least 2 of the 5 years preceding the sale.

Example 2.

Taxpayer B owns and uses a house as her principal residence from 1986 to the end of 1997. On January 4, 1998, B moves to another state and ceases to use the house. B's son moves into the house in March 1999 and uses the residence until it is sold on July 1, 2001. B may not exclude gain from the sale under section 121 because she did not use the property as her principal residence for at least 2 years out of the 5 years preceding the sale.

Example 3.

Taxpayer C lives in a townhouse that he rents from 1993 through 1996. On January 18, 1997, he purchases the townhouse. On February 1, 1998, C moves into his daughter's home. On May 25, 2000, while still living in his daughter's home, C sells his townhouse. The section 121 exclusion will apply to gain from the sale because C owned the townhouse for at least 2 years out of the 5 years preceding the sale (from January 19, 1997 until May 25, 2000) and he used the townhouse as his principal residence for at least 2 years during the 5-year period preceding the sale (from May 25, 1995 until February 1, 1998).

Example 4.

Taxpayer D, a college professor, purchases and moves into a house on May 1, 1997. He uses the house as his principal residence continuously until September 1, 1998, when he goes abroad for a 1-year sabbatical leave. On October 1, 1999, 1 month after returning from the leave, D sells the house. Because his leave is not considered to be a short temporary absence under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the period of the sabbatical leave may not be included in determining whether D used the house for periods aggregating 2 years during the 5-year period ending on the date of the sale. Consequently, D is not entitled to exclude gain under section 121 because he did not use the residence for the requisite period.

Example 5.

Taxpayer E purchases a house on February 1, 1998, that he uses as his principal residence. During 1998 and 1999, E leaves his residence for a 2-month summer vacation. E sells the house on March 1, 2000. Although, in the 5-year period preceding the date of sale, the total time E used his residence is less than 2 years (21 months), the section 121 exclusion will apply to gain from the sale of the residence because, under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the 2-month vacations are short temporary absences and are counted as periods of use in determining whether E used the residence for the requisite period.

(d) Depreciation taken after May 6, 1997—(1) In general. The section 121 exclusion does not apply to so much of the gain from the sale or exchange of property as does not exceed the portion of the depreciation adjustments (as defined in section 1250(b)(3)) attributable to the property for periods after May 6, 1997. Depreciation adjustments allocable to any portion of the property to which the section 121 exclusion does not apply under paragraph (e) of this section are not taken into account for this purpose.

(2) Example. The provisions of this paragraph (d) are illustrated by the following example:

Example.

On July 1, 1999, Taxpayer A moves into a house that he owns and had rented to tenants since July 1, 1997. A took depreciation deductions totaling $14,000 for the period that he rented the property. After using the residence as his principal residence for 2 full years, A sells the property on August 1, 2001. A's gain realized from the sale is $40,000. A has no other section 1231 or capital gains or losses for 2001. Only $26,000 ($40,000 gain realized—$14,000 depreciation deductions) may be excluded under section 121. Under section 121(d)(6) and paragraph (d)(1) of this section, A must recognize $14,000 of the gain as unrecaptured section 1250 gain within the meaning of section 1(h).

(e) Property used in part as a principal residence—(1) Allocation required. Section 121 will not apply to the gain allocable to any portion (separate from the dwelling unit) of property sold or exchanged with respect to which a taxpayer does not satisfy the use requirement. Thus, if a portion of the property was used for residential purposes and a portion of the property (separate from the dwelling unit) was used for non-residential purposes, only the gain allocable to the residential portion is excludable under section 121. No allocation is required if both the residential and non-residential portions of the property are within the same dwelling unit. However, section 121 does not apply to the gain allocable to the residential portion of the property to the extent provided by paragraph (d) of this section.

(2) Dwelling unit. For purposes of this paragraph (e), the term dwelling unit has the same meaning as in section 280A(f)(1), but does not include appurtenant structures or other property.

(3) Method of allocation. For purposes of determining the amount of gain allocable to the residential and non-residential portions of the property, the taxpayer must allocate the basis and the amount realized between the residential and the non-residential portions of the property using the same method of allocation that the taxpayer used to determine depreciation adjustments (as defined in section 1250(b)(3)), if applicable.

(4) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph (e) are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1 Non-residential use of property not within the dwelling unit.

(i) Taxpayer A owns a property that consists of a house, a stable and 35 acres. A uses the stable and 28 acres for non-residential purposes for more than 3 years during the 5-year period preceding the sale. A uses the entire house and the remaining 7 acres as his principal residence for at least 2 years during the 5-year period preceding the sale. For periods after May 6, 1997, A claims depreciation deductions of $9,000 for the non-residential use of the stable. A sells the entire property in 2004, realizing a gain of $24,000. A has no other section 1231 or capital gains or losses for 2004.

(ii) Because the stable and the 28 acres used in the business are separate from the dwelling unit, the allocation rules under this paragraph (e) apply and A must allocate the basis and amount realized between the portion of the property that he used as his principal residence and the portion of the property that he used for non-residential purposes. A determines that $14,000 of the gain is allocable to the non-residential-use portion of the property and that $10,000 of the gain is allocable to the portion of the property used as his residence. A must recognize the $14,000 of gain allocable to the non-residential-use portion of the property ($9,000 of which is unrecaptured section 1250 gain within the meaning of section 1(h), and $5,000 of which is adjusted net capital gain). A may exclude $10,000 of the gain from the sale of the property.

Example 2 Non-residential use of property not within the dwelling unit and rental of the entire property.

(i) In 1998 Taxpayer B buys a property that includes a house, a barn, and 2 acres. B uses the house and 2 acres as her principal residence and the barn for an antiques business. In 2002, B moves out of the house and rents it to tenants. B sells the property in 2004, realizing a gain of $21,000. Between 1998 and 2004 B claims depreciation deductions of $4,800 attributable to the antiques business. Between 2002 and 2004 B claims depreciation deductions of $3,000 attributable to the house. B has no other section 1231 or capital gains or losses for 2004.

(ii) Because the portion of the property used in the antiques business is separate from the dwelling unit, the allocation rules under this paragraph (e) apply. B must allocate basis and amount realized between the portion of the property that she used as her principal residence and the portion of the property that she used for non-residential purposes. B determines that $4,000 of the gain is allocable to the non-residential portion of the property and that $17,000 of the gain is allocable to the portion of the property that she used as her principal residence.

(iii) B must recognize the $4,000 of gain allocable to the non-residential portion of the property (all of which is unrecaptured section 1250 gain within the meaning of section 1(h)). In addition, the section 121 exclusion does not apply to the gain allocable to the residential portion of the property to the extent of the depreciation adjustments attributable to the residential portion of the property for periods after May 6, 1997 ($3,000). Therefore, B may exclude $14,000 of the gain from the sale of the property.

Example 3 Non-residential use of a separate dwelling unit.

(i) In 2002 Taxpayer C buys a 3-story townhouse and converts the basement level, which has a separate entrance, into a separate apartment by installing a kitchen and bathroom and removing the interior stairway that leads from the basement to the upper floors. After the conversion, the property constitutes 2 dwelling units within the meaning of paragraph (e)(2) of this section. C uses the first and second floors of the townhouse as his principal residence and rents the basement level to tenants from 2003 to 2007. C claims depreciation deductions of $2,000 for that period with respect to the basement apartment. C sells the entire property in 2007, realizing gain of $18,000. C has no other section 1231 or capital gains or losses for 2007.

(ii) Because the basement apartment and the upper floors of the townhouse are separate dwelling units, C must allocate the gain between the portion of the property that he used as his principal residence and the portion of the property that he used for non-residential purposes under paragraph (e) of this section. After allocating the basis and the amount realized between the residential and non-residential portions of the property, C determines that $6,000 of the gain is allocable to the non-residential portion of the property and that $12,000 of the gain is allocable to the portion of the property used as his residence. C must recognize the $6,000 of gain allocable to the non-residential portion of the property ($2,000 of which is unrecaptured section 1250 gain within the meaning of section 1(h), and $4,000 of which is adjusted net capital gain). C may exclude $12,000 of the gain from the sale of the property.

Example 4 Separate dwelling unit converted to residential use.

The facts are the same as in Example 3 except that in 2007 C incorporates the basement of the townhouse into his principal residence by eliminating the kitchen and building a new interior stairway to the upper floors. C uses all 3 floors of the townhouse as his principal residence for 2 full years and sells the townhouse in 2010, realizing a gain of $20,000. Under section 121(d)(6) and paragraph (d) of this section, C must recognize $2,000 of the gain as unrecaptured section 1250 gain within the meaning of section 1(h). Because C used the entire 3 floors of the townhouse as his principal residence for 2 of the 5 years preceding the sale of the property, C may exclude the remaining $18,000 of the gain from the sale of the house.

Example 5 Non-residential use within the dwelling unit, property depreciated.

Taxpayer D, an attorney, buys a house in 2003. The house constitutes a single dwelling unit but D uses a portion of the house as a law office. D claims depreciation deductions of $2,000 during the period that she owns the house. D sells the house in 2006, realizing a gain of $13,000. D has no other section 1231 or capital gains or losses for 2006. Under section 121(d)(6) and paragraph (d) of this section, D must recognize $2,000 of the gain as unrecaptured section 1250 gain within the meaning of section 1(h). D may exclude the remaining $11,000 of the gain from the sale of her house because, under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, she is not required to allocate gain to the business use within the dwelling unit.

Example 6 Non-residential use within the dwelling unit, property not depreciated.

The facts are the same as in Example 5, except that D is not entitled to claim any depreciation deductions with respect to her business use of the house. D may exclude $13,000 of the gain from the sale of her house because, under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, she is not required to allocate gain to the business use within the dwelling unit.

(f) Effective date. This section is applicable for sales and exchanges on or after Decmeber 24, 2002. For rules on electing to apply the provisions of this section retroactively, see § 1.121-4(j).

[T.D. 9030, 67 FR 78361, Dec. 24, 2002]

§ 1.121-2 Limitations.

(a) Dollar limitations—(1) In general. A taxpayer may exclude from gross income up to $250,000 of gain from the sale or exchange of the taxpayer's principal residence. A taxpayer is eligible for only one maximum exclusion per principal residence.

(2) Joint owners. If taxpayers jointly own a principal residence but file separate returns, each taxpayer may exclude from gross income up to $250,000 of gain that is attributable to each taxpayer's interest in the property, if the requirements of section 121 have otherwise been met.

(3) Special rules for joint returns—(i) In general. A husband and wife who make a joint return for the year of the sale or exchange of a principal residence may exclude up to $500,000 of gain if—

(A) Either spouse meets the 2-year ownership requirements of § 1.121-1(a) and (c);

(B) Both spouses meet the 2-year use requirements of § 1.121-1(a) and (c); and

(C) Neither spouse excluded gain from a prior sale or exchange of property under section 121 within the last 2 years (as determined under paragraph (b) of this section).

(ii) Other joint returns. For taxpayers filing jointly, if either spouse fails to meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, the maximum limitation amount to be claimed by the couple is the sum of each spouse's limitation amount determined on a separate basis as if they had not been married. For this purpose, each spouse is treated as owning the property during the period that either spouse owned the property.

(4) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph (a) are illustrated by the following examples. The examples assume that § 1.121-3 (relating to the reduced maximum exclusion) does not apply to the sale of the property. The examples are as follows:

Example 1.

Unmarried Taxpayers A and B own a house as joint owners, each owning a 50 percent interest in the house. They sell the house after owning and using it as their principal residence for 2 full years. The gain realized from the sale is $256,000. A and B are each eligible to exclude $128,000 of gain because the amount of realized gain allocable to each of them from the sale does not exceed each taxpayer's available limitation amount of $250,000.

Example 2.

The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that A and B are married taxpayers who file a joint return for the taxable year of the sale. A and B are eligible to exclude the entire amount of realized gain ($256,000) from gross income because the gain realized from the sale does not exceed the limitation amount of $500,000 available to A and B as taxpayers filing a joint return.

Example 3.

During 1999, married Taxpayers H and W each sell a residence that each had separately owned and used as a principal residence before their marriage. Each spouse meets the ownership and use tests for his or her respective residence. Neither spouse meets the use requirement for the other spouse's residence. H and W file a joint return for the year of the sales. The gain realized from the sale of H's residence is $200,000. The gain realized from the sale of W's residence is $300,000. Because the ownership and use requirements are met for each residence by each respective spouse, H and W are each eligible to exclude up to $250,000 of gain from the sale of their individual residences. However, W may not use H's unused exclusion to exclude gain in excess of her limitation amount. Therefore, H and W must recognize $50,000 of the gain realized on the sale of W's residence.

Example 4.

Married Taxpayers H and W sell their residence and file a joint return for the year of the sale. W, but not H, satisfies the requirements of section 121. They are eligible to exclude up to $250,000 of the gain from the sale of the residence because that is the sum of each spouse's dollar limitation amount determined on a separate basis as if they had not been married ($0 for H, $250,000 for W).

Example 5.

Married Taxpayers H and W have owned and used their principal residence since 1998. On February 16, 2001, H dies. On September 24, 2001, W sells the residence and realizes a gain of $350,000. Pursuant to section 6013(a)(3), W and H's executor make a joint return for 2001. All $350,000 of the gain from the sale of the residence may be excluded.

Example 6.

Assume the same facts as Example 5, except that W does not sell the residence until January 31, 2002. Because W's filing status for the taxable year of the sale is single, the special rules for joint returns under paragraph (a)(3) of this section do not apply and W may exclude only $250,000 of the gain.

(b) Application of section 121 to only 1 sale or exchange every 2 years—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in § 1.121-3 (relating to the reduced maximum exclusion), a taxpayer may not exclude from gross income gain from the sale or exchange of a principal residence if, during the 2-year period ending on the date of the sale or exchange, the taxpayer sold or exchanged other property for which gain was excluded under section 121. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1), any sale or exchange before May 7, 1997, is disregarded.

(2) Example. The following example illustrates the rules of this paragraph (b). The example assumes that § 1.121-3 (relating to the reduced maximum exclusion) does not apply to the sale of the property. The example is as follows:

Example.

Taxpayer A owns a townhouse that he uses as his principal residence for 2 full years, 1998 and 1999. A buys a house in 2000 that he owns and uses as his principal residence. A sells the townhouse in 2002 and excludes gain realized on its sale under section 121. A sells the house in 2003. Although A meets the 2-year ownership and use requirements of section 121, A is not eligible to exclude gain from the sale of the house because A excluded gain within the last 2 years under section 121 from the sale of the townhouse.

(c) Effective date. This section is applicable for sales and exchanges on or after December 24, 2002. For rules on electing to apply the provisions of this section retroactively, see § 1.121-4(j).

[T.D. 9030, 67 FR 78361, Dec. 24, 2002]

§ 1.121-3 Reduced maximum exclusion for taxpayers failing to meet certain requirements.

(a) In general. In lieu of the limitation under section 121(b) and § 1.121-2, a reduced maximum exclusion limitation may be available for a taxpayer who sells or exchanges property used as the taxpayer's principal residence but fails to satisfy the ownership and use requirements described in § 1.121-1(a) and (c) or the 2-year limitation described in § 1.121-2(b).

(b) Primary reason for sale or exchange. In order for a taxpayer to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c), the sale or exchange must be by reason of a change in place of employment, health, or unforeseen circumstances. If a safe harbor described in this section applies, a sale or exchange is deemed to be by reason of a change in place of employment, health, or unforeseen circumstances. If a safe harbor described in this section does not apply, a sale or exchange is by reason of a change in place of employment, health, or unforeseen circumstances only if the primary reason for the sale or exchange is a change in place of employment (within the meaning of paragraph (c) of this section), health (within the meaning of paragraph (d) of this section), or unforeseen circumstances (within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section). Whether the requirements of this section are satisfied depends upon all the facts and circumstances. Factors that may be relevant in determining the taxpayer's primary reason for the sale or exchange include (but are not limited to) the extent to which—

(1) The sale or exchange and the circumstances giving rise to the sale or exchange are proximate in time;

(2) The suitability of the property as the taxpayer's principal residence materially changes;

(3) The taxpayer's financial ability to maintain the property is materially impaired;

(4) The taxpayer uses the property as the taxpayer's residence during the period of the taxpayer's ownership of the property;

(5) The circumstances giving rise to the sale or exchange are not reasonably foreseeable when the taxpayer begins using the property as the taxpayer's principal residence; and

(6) The circumstances giving rise to the sale or exchange occur during the period of the taxpayer's ownership and use of the property as the taxpayer's principal residence.

(c) Sale or exchange by reason of a change in place of employment—(1) In general. A sale or exchange is by reason of a change in place of employment if, in the case of a qualified individual described in paragraph (f) of this section, the primary reason for the sale or exchange is a change in the location of the individual's employment.

(2) Distance safe harbor. A sale or exchange is deemed to be by reason of a change in place of employment (within the meaning of paragraph (c)(1) of this section) if—

(i) The change in place of employment occurs during the period of the taxpayer's ownership and use of the property as the taxpayer's principal residence; and

(ii) The qualified individual's new place of employment is at least 50 miles farther from the residence sold or exchanged than was the former place of employment, or, if there was no former place of employment, the distance between the qualified individual's new place of employment and the residence sold or exchanged is at least 50 miles.

(3) Employment. For purposes of this paragraph (c), employment includes the commencement of employment with a new employer, the continuation of employment with the same employer, and the commencement or continuation of self-employment.

(4) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this paragraph (c):

Example 1.

A is unemployed and owns a townhouse that she has owned and used as her principal residence since 2003. In 2004 A obtains a job that is 54 miles from her townhouse, and she sells the townhouse. Because the distance between A's new place of employment and the townhouse is at least 50 miles, the sale is within the safe harbor of paragraph (c)(2) of this section and A is entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

Example 2.

B is an officer in the United States Air Force stationed in Florida. B purchases a house in Florida in 2002. In May 2003 B moves out of his house to take a 3-year assignment in Germany. B sells his house in January 2004. Because B's new place of employment in Germany is at least 50 miles farther from the residence sold than is B's former place of employment in Florida, the sale is within the safe harbor of paragraph (c)(2) of this section and B is entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

Example 3.

C is employed by Employer R at R's Philadelphia office. C purchases a house in February 2002 that is 35 miles from R's Philadelphia office. In May 2003 C begins a temporary assignment at R's Wilmington office that is 72 miles from C's house, and moves out of the house. In June 2005 C is assigned to work in R's London office. C sells her house in August 2005 as a result of the assignment to London. The sale of the house is not within the safe harbor of paragraph (c)(2) of this section by reason of the change in place of employment from Philadelphia to Wilmington because the Wilmington office is not 50 miles farther from C's house than is the Philadelphia office. Furthermore, the sale is not within the safe harbor by reason of the change in place of employment to London because C is not using the house as her principal residence when she moves to London. However, C is entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2) because, under the facts and circumstances, the primary reason for the sale is the change in C's place of employment.

Example 4.

In July 2003 D, who works as an emergency medicine physician, buys a condominium that is 5 miles from her place of employment and uses it as her principal residence. In February 2004, D obtains a job that is located 51 miles from D's condominium. D may be called in to work unscheduled hours and, when called, must be able to arrive at work quickly. Because of the demands of the new job, D sells her condominium and buys a townhouse that is 4 miles from her new place of employment. Because D's new place of employment is only 46 miles farther from the condominium than is D's former place of employment, the sale is not within the safe harbor of paragraph (c)(2) of this section. However, D is entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2) because, under the facts and circumstances, the primary reason for the sale is the change in D's place of employment.

(d) Sale or exchange by reason of health—(1) In general. A sale or exchange is by reason of health if the primary reason for the sale or exchange is to obtain, provide, or facilitate the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, or treatment of disease, illness, or injury of a qualified individual described in paragraph (f) of this section, or to obtain or provide medical or personal care for a qualified individual suffering from a disease, illness, or injury. A sale or exchange that is merely beneficial to the general health or well-being of an individual is not a sale or exchange by reason of health.

(2) Physician's recommendation safe harbor. A sale or exchange is deemed to be by reason of health if a physician (as defined in section 213(d)(4)) recommends a change of residence for reasons of health (as defined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section).

(3) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this paragraph (d):

Example 1.

In 2003 A buys a house that she uses as her principal residence. A is injured in an accident and is unable to care for herself. A sells her house in 2004 and moves in with her daughter so that the daughter can provide the care that A requires as a result of her injury. Because, under the facts and circumstances, the primary reason for the sale of A's house is A's health, A is entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

Example 2.

H's father has a chronic disease. In 2003 H and W purchase a house that they use as their principal residence. In 2004 H and W sell their house in order to move into the house of H's father so that they can provide the care he requires as a result of his disease. Because, under the facts and circumstances, the primary reason for the sale of their house is the health of H's father, H and W are entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

Example 3.

H and W purchase a house in 2003 that they use as their principal residence. Their son suffers from a chronic illness that requires regular medical care. Later that year their son begins a new treatment that is available at a hospital 100 miles away from their residence. In 2004 H and W sell their house so that they can be closer to the hospital to facilitate their son's treatment. Because, under the facts and circumstances, the primary reason for the sale is to facilitate the treatment of their son's chronic illness, H and W are entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

Example 4.

B, who has chronic asthma, purchases a house in Minnesota in 2003 that he uses as his principal residence. B's doctor tells B that moving to a warm, dry climate would mitigate B's asthma symptoms. In 2004 B sells his house and moves to Arizona to relieve his asthma symptoms. The sale is within the safe harbor of paragraph (d)(2) of this section and B is entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

Example 5.

In 2003 H and W purchase a house in Michigan that they use as their principal residence. H's doctor tells H that he should get more outdoor exercise, but H is not suffering from any disease that can be treated or mitigated by outdoor exercise. In 2004 H and W sell their house and move to Florida so that H can increase his general level of exercise by playing golf year-round. Because the sale of the house is merely beneficial to H's general health, the sale of the house is not by reason of H's health. H and W are not entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

(e) Sale or exchange by reason of unforeseen circumstances—(1) In general. A sale or exchange is by reason of unforeseen circumstances if the primary reason for the sale or exchange is the occurrence of an event that the taxpayer could not reasonably have anticipated before purchasing and occupying the residence. A sale or exchange by reason of unforeseen circumstances (other than a sale or exchange deemed to be by reason of unforeseen circumstances under paragraph (e)(2) or (3) of this section) does not qualify for the reduced maximum exclusion if the primary reason for the sale or exchange is a preference for a different residence or an improvement in financial circumstances.

(2) Specific event safe harbors. A sale or exchange is deemed to be by reason of unforeseen circumstances (within the meaning of paragraph (e)(1) of this section) if any of the events specified in paragraphs (e)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section occur during the period of the taxpayer's ownership and use of the residence as the taxpayer's principal residence:

(i) The involuntary conversion of the residence.

(ii) Natural or man-made disasters or acts of war or terrorism resulting in a casualty to the residence (without regard to deductibility under section 165(h)).

(iii) In the case of a qualified individual described in paragraph (f) of this section—

(A) Death;

(B) The cessation of employment as a result of which the qualified individual is eligible for unemployment compensation (as defined in section 85(b));

(C) A change in employment or self-employment status that results in the taxpayer's inability to pay housing costs and reasonable basic living expenses for the taxpayer's household (including amounts for food, clothing, medical expenses, taxes, transportation, court-ordered payments, and expenses reasonably necessary to the production of income, but not for the maintenance of an affluent or luxurious standard of living);

(D) Divorce or legal separation under a decree of divorce or separate maintenance; or

(E) Multiple births resulting from the same pregnancy.

(3) Designation of additional events as unforeseen circumstances. The Commissioner may designate other events or situations as unforeseen circumstances in published guidance of general applicability and may issue rulings addressed to specific taxpayers identifying other events or situations as unforeseen circumstances with regard to those taxpayers (see § 601.601(d)(2) of this chapter).

(4) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this paragraph (e):

Example 1.

In 2003 A buys a house in California. After A begins to use the house as her principal residence, an earthquake causes damage to A's house. A sells the house in 2004. The sale is within the safe harbor of paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section and A is entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

Example 2.

H works as a teacher and W works as a pilot. In 2003 H and W buy a house that they use as their principal residence. Later that year W is furloughed from her job for six months. H and W are unable to pay their mortgage and reasonable basic living expenses for their household during the period W is furloughed. H and W sell their house in 2004. The sale is within the safe harbor of paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(C) of this section and H and W are entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

Example 3.

In 2003 H and W buy a two-bedroom condominium that they use as their principal residence. In 2004 W gives birth to twins and H and W sell their condominium and buy a four-bedroom house. The sale is within the safe harbor of paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(E) of this section, and H and W are entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

Example 4.

In 2003 B buys a condominium in a high-rise building and uses it as his principal residence. B's monthly condominium fee is $X. Three months after B moves into the condominium, the condominium association replaces the building's roof and heating system. Six months later, B's monthly condominium fee doubles in order to pay for the repairs. B sells the condominium in 2004 because he is unable to afford the new condominium fee along with a monthly mortgage payment. The safe harbors of paragraph (e)(2) of this section do not apply. However, under the facts and circumstances, the primary reason for the sale, the doubling of the condominium fee, is an unforeseen circumstance because B could not reasonably have anticipated that the condominium fee would double at the time he purchased and occupied the property. Consequently, the sale of the condominium is by reason of unforeseen circumstances and B is entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

Example 5.

In 2003 C buys a house that he uses as his principal residence. The property is located on a heavily traveled road. C sells the property in 2004 because C is disturbed by the traffic. The safe harbors of paragraph (e)(2) of this section do not apply. Under the facts and circumstances, the primary reason for the sale, the traffic, is not an unforeseen circumstance because C could reasonably have anticipated the traffic at the time he purchased and occupied the house. Consequently, the sale of the house is not by reason of unforeseen circumstances and C is not entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

Example 6.

In 2003 D and her fiance E buy a house and live in it as their principal residence. In 2004 D and E cancel their wedding plans and E moves out of the house. Because D cannot afford to make the monthly mortgage payments alone, D and E sell the house in 2004. The safe harbors of paragraph (e)(2) of this section do not apply. However, under the facts and circumstances, the primary reason for the sale, the broken engagement, is an unforeseen circumstance because D and E could not reasonably have anticipated the broken engagement at the time they purchased and occupied the house. Consequently, the sale is by reason of unforeseen circumstances and D and E are each entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

Example 7.

In 2003 F buys a small condominium that she uses as her principal residence. In 2005 F receives a promotion and a large increase in her salary. F sells the condominium in 2004 and purchases a house because she can now afford the house. The safe harbors of paragraph (e)(2) of this section do not apply. Under the facts and circumstances, the primary reason for the sale of the house, F's salary increase, is an improvement in F's financial circumstances. Under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, an improvement in financial circumstances, even if the result of unforeseen circumstances, does not qualify for the reduced maximum exclusion by reason of unforeseen circumstances under section 121(c)(2).

Example 8.

In April 2003 G buys a house that he uses as his principal residence. G sells his house in October 2004 because the house has greatly appreciated in value, mortgage rates have substantially decreased, and G can afford a bigger house. The safe harbors of paragraph (e)(2) of this section do not apply. Under the facts and circumstances, the primary reasons for the sale of the house, the changes in G's house value and in the mortgage rates, are an improvement in G's financial circumstances. Under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, an improvement in financial circumstances, even if the result of unforeseen circumstances, does not qualify for the reduced maximum exclusion by reason of unforeseen circumstances under section 121(c)(2).

Example 9.

H works as a police officer for City X. In 2003 H buys a condominium that he uses as his principal residence. In 2004 H is assigned to City X's K-9 unit and is required to care for the police service dog at his home. Because H's condominium association does not permit H to have a dog in his condominium, in 2004 he sells the condominium and buys a house. The safe harbors of paragraph (e)(2) of this section do not apply. However, under the facts and circumstances, the primary reason for the sale, H's assignment to the K-9 unit, is an unforeseen circumstance because H could not reasonably have anticipated his assignment to the K-9 unit at the time he purchased and occupied the condominium. Consequently, the sale of the condominium is by reason of unforeseen circumstances and H is entitled to claim a reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

Example 10.

In 2003, J buys a small house that she uses as her principal residence. After J wins the lottery, she sells the small house in 2004 and buys a bigger, more expensive house. The safe harbors of paragraph (e)(2) of this section do not apply. Under the facts and circumstances, the primary reason for the sale of the house, winning the lottery, is an improvement in J's financial circumstances. Under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, an improvement in financial circumstances, even if the result of unforeseen circumstances, does not qualify for the reduced maximum exclusion under section 121(c)(2).

(f) Qualified individual. For purposes of this section, qualified individual means—

(1) The taxpayer;

(2) The taxpayer's spouse;

(3) A co-owner of the residence;

(4) A person whose principal place of abode is in the same household as the taxpayer; or

(5) For purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, a person bearing a relationship specified in sections 152(a)(1) through 152(a)(8) (without regard to qualification as a dependent) to a qualified individual described in paragraphs (f)(1) through (4) of this section, or a descendant of the taxpayer's grandparent.

(g) Computation of reduced maximum exclusion. (1) The reduced maximum exclusion is computed by multiplying the maximum dollar limitation of $250,000 ($500,000 for certain joint filers) by a fraction. The numerator of the fraction is the shortest of the period of time that the taxpayer owned the property during the 5-year period ending on the date of the sale or exchange; the period of time that the taxpayer used the property as the taxpayer's principal residence during the 5-year period ending on the date of the sale or exchange; or the period of time between the date of a prior sale or exchange of property for which the taxpayer excluded gain under section 121 and the date of the current sale or exchange. The numerator of the fraction may be expressed in days or months. The denominator of the fraction is 730 days or 24 months (depending on the measure of time used in the numerator).

(2) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this paragraph (g):

Example 1.

Taxpayer A purchases a house that she uses as her principal residence. Twelve months after the purchase, A sells the house due to a change in place of her employment. A has not excluded gain under section 121 on a prior sale or exchange of property within the last 2 years. A is eligible to exclude up to $125,000 of the gain from the sale of her house (12/24 × $250,000).

Example 2.

(i) Taxpayer H owns a house that he has used as his principal residence since 1996. On January 15, 1999, H and W marry and W begins to use H's house as her principal residence. On January 15, 2000, H sells the house due to a change in W's place of employment. Neither H nor W has excluded gain under section 121 on a prior sale or exchange of property within the last 2 years.

(ii) Because H and W have not each used the house as their principal residence for at least 2 years during the 5-year period preceding its sale, the maximum dollar limitation amount that may be claimed by H and W will not be $500,000, but the sum of each spouse's limitation amount determined on a separate basis as if they had not been married. (See § 1.121-2(a)(3)(ii).)

(iii) H is eligible to exclude up to $250,000 of gain because he meets the requirements of section 121. W is not eligible to exclude the maximum dollar limitation amount. Instead, because the sale of the house is due to a change in place of employment, W is eligible to claim a reduced maximum exclusion of up to $125,000 of the gain (365/730 × $250,000). Therefore, H and W are eligible to exclude up to $375,000 of gain ($250,000 + $125,000) from the sale of the house.

(h) Effective dates. Paragraphs (a) and (g) of this section are applicable for sales and exchanges on or after December 24, 2002. Paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section are applicable for sales and exchanges on or after August 13, 2004.

[T.D. 9030, 67 FR 78361, Dec. 24, 2002, as amended by T.D. 9152, 69 FR 50304, Aug. 16, 2004]

§ 1.121-4 Special rules.

(a) Property of deceased spouse—(1) In general. For purposes of satisfying the ownership and use requirements of section 121, a taxpayer is treated as owning and using property as the taxpayer's principal residence during any period that the taxpayer's deceased spouse owned and used the property as a principal residence before death if—

(i) The taxpayer's spouse is deceased on the date of the sale or exchange of the property; and

(ii) The taxpayer has not remarried at the time of the sale or exchange of the property.

(2) Example. The provisions of this paragraph (a) are illustrated by the following example. The example assumes that § 1.121-3 (relating to the reduced maximum exclusion) does not apply to the sale of the property. The example is as follows:

Example.

Taxpayer H has owned and used a house as his principal residence since 1987. H and W marry on July 1, 1999 and from that date they use H's house as their principal residence. H dies on August 15, 2000, and W inherits the property. W sells the property on September 1, 2000, at which time she has not remarried. Although W has owned and used the house for less than 2 years, W will be considered to have satisfied the ownership and use requirements of section 121 because W's period of ownership and use includes the period that H owned and used the property before death.

(b) Property owned by spouse or former spouse—(1) Property transferred to individual from spouse or former spouse. If a taxpayer obtains property from a spouse or former spouse in a transaction described in section 1041(a), the period that the taxpayer owns the property will include the period that the spouse or former spouse owned the property.

(2) Property used by spouse or former spouse. A taxpayer is treated as using property as the taxpayer's principal residence for any period that the taxpayer has an ownership interest in the property and the taxpayer's spouse or former spouse is granted use of the property under a divorce or separation instrument (as defined in section 71(b)(2)), provided that the spouse or former spouse uses the property as his or her principal residence.

(c) Tenant-stockholder in cooperative housing corporation. A taxpayer who holds stock as a tenant-stockholder in a cooperative housing corporation (as those terms are defined in section 216(b)(1) and (2)) may be eligible to exclude gain under section 121 on the sale or exchange of the stock. In determining whether the taxpayer meets the requirements of section 121, the ownership requirements are applied to the holding of the stock and the use requirements are applied to the house or apartment that the taxpayer is entitled to occupy by reason of the taxpayer's stock ownership.

(d) Involuntary conversions—(1) In general. For purposes of section 121, the destruction, theft, seizure, requisition, or condemnation of property is treated as a sale of the property.

(2) Application of section 1033. In applying section 1033 (relating to involuntary conversions), the amount realized from the sale or exchange of property used as the taxpayer's principal residence is treated as being the amount determined without regard to section 121, reduced by the amount of gain excluded from the taxpayer's gross income under section 121.

(3) Property acquired after involuntary conversion. If the basis of the property acquired as a result of an involuntary conversion is determined (in whole or in part) under section 1033(b) (relating to the basis of property acquired through an involuntary conversion), then for purposes of satisfying the requirements of section 121, the taxpayer will be treated as owning and using the acquired property as the taxpayer's principal residence during any period of time that the taxpayer owned and used the converted property as the taxpayer's principal residence.

(4) Example. The provisions of this paragraph (d) are illustrated by the following example:

Example.

(i) On February 18, 1999, fire destroys Taxpayer A's house which has an adjusted basis of $80,000. A had owned and used this property as her principal residence for 20 years prior to its destruction. A's insurance company pays A $400,000 for the house. A realizes a gain of $320,000 ($400,000—$80,000). On August 27, 1999, A purchases a new house at a cost of $100,000.

(ii) Because the destruction of the house is treated as a sale for purposes of section 121, A will exclude $250,000 of the realized gain from A's gross income. For purposes of section 1033, the amount realized is then treated as being $150,000 ($400,000—$250,000) and the gain realized is $70,000 ($150,000 amount realized—$80,000 basis). A elects under section 1033 to recognize only $50,000 of the gain ($150,000 amount realized—$100,000 cost of new house). The remaining $20,000 of gain is deferred and A's basis in the new house is $80,000 ($100,000 cost—$20,000 gain not recognized).

(iii) A will be treated as owning and using the new house as A's principal residence during the 20-year period that A owned and used the destroyed house.

(e) Sales or exchanges of partial interests—(1) Partial interests other than remainder interests—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section (relating to sales or exchanges of remainder interests), a taxpayer may apply the section 121 exclusion to gain from the sale or exchange of an interest in the taxpayer's principal residence that is less than the taxpayer's entire interest if the interest sold or exchanged includes an interest in the dwelling unit. For rules relating to the sale or exchange of vacant land, see § 1.121-1(b)(3).

(ii) Limitations—(A) Maximum limitation amount. For purposes of section 121(b)(1) and (2) (relating to the maximum limitation amount of the section 121 exclusion), sales or exchanges of partial interests in the same principal residence are treated as one sale or exchange. Therefore, only one maximum limitation amount of $250,000 ($500,000 for certain joint returns) applies to the combined sales or exchanges of the partial interests. In applying the maximum limitation amount to sales or exchanges that occur in different taxable years, a taxpayer may exclude gain from the first sale or exchange of a partial interest up to the taxpayer's full maximum limitation amount and may exclude gain from the sale or exchange of any other partial interest in the same principal residence to the extent of any remaining maximum limitation amount, and each spouse is treated as excluding one-half of the gain from a sale or exchange to which section 121(b)(2)(A) and § 1.121-2(a)(3)(i)(relating to the limitation for certain joint returns) apply.

(B) Sale or exchange of more than one principal residence in 2-year period. For purposes of applying section 121(b)(3) (restricting the application of section 121 to only 1 sale or exchange every 2 years), each sale or exchange of a partial interest is disregarded with respect to other sales or exchanges of partial interests in the same principal residence, but is taken into account as of the date of the sale or exchange in applying section 121(b)(3) to that sale or exchange and the sale or exchange of any other principal residence.

(2) Sales or exchanges of remainder interests—(i) In general. A taxpayer may elect to apply the section 121 exclusion to gain from the sale or exchange of a remainder interest in the taxpayer's principal residence.

(ii) Limitations—(A) Sale or exchange of any other interest. If a taxpayer elects to exclude gain from the sale or exchange of a remainder interest in the taxpayer's principal residence, the section 121 exclusion will not apply to a sale or exchange of any other interest in the residence that is sold or exchanged separately.

(B) Sales or exchanges to related parties. This paragraph (e)(2) will not apply to a sale or exchange to any person that bears a relationship to the taxpayer that is described in section 267(b) or 707(b).

(iii) Election. The taxpayer makes the election under this paragraph (e)(2) by filing a return for the taxable year of the sale or exchange that does not include the gain from the sale or exchange of the remainder interest in the taxpayer's gross income. A taxpayer may make or revoke the election at any time before the expiration of a 3-year period beginning on the last date prescribed by law (determined without regard to extensions) for the filing of the return for the taxable year in which the sale or exchange occurred.

(3) Example. The provisions of this paragraph (e) are illustrated by the following example:

Example.

In 1991 Taxpayer A buys a house that A uses as his principal residence. In 2004 A's friend B moves into A's house and A sells B a 50% interest in the house realizing a gain of $136,000. A may exclude the $136,000 of gain. In 2005 A sells his remaining 50% interest in the home to B realizing a gain of $138,000. A may exclude $114,000 ($250,000—$136,000 gain previously excluded) of the $138,000 gain from the sale of the remaining interest.

(f) No exclusion for expatriates. The section 121 exclusion will not apply to any sale or exchange by an individual if the provisions of section 877(a) (relating to the treatment of expatriates) applies to the individual.

(g) Election to have section not apply. A taxpayer may elect to have the section 121 exclusion not apply to a sale or exchange of property. The taxpayer makes the election by filing a return for the taxable year of the sale or exchange that includes the gain from the sale or exchange of the taxpayer's principal residence in the taxpayer's gross income. A taxpayer may make an election under this paragraph (g) to have section 121 not apply (or revoke an election to have section 121 not apply) at any time before the expiration of a 3-year period beginning on the last date prescribed by law (determined without regard to extensions) for the filing of the return for the taxable year in which the sale or exchange occurred.

(h) Residences acquired in rollovers under section 1034. If a taxpayer acquires property in a transaction that qualifies under section 1034 (section 1034 property) for the nonrecognition of gain realized on the sale or exchange of another property and later sells or exchanges such property, in determining the period of the taxpayer's ownership and use of the property under section 121 the taxpayer may include the periods that the taxpayer owned and used the section 1034 property as the taxpayer's principal residence (and each prior residence taken into account under section 1223(7) in determining the holding period of the section 1034 property).

(i) [Reserved]

(j) Election to apply regulations retroactively. Taxpayers who would otherwise qualify under §§ 1.121-1 through 1.121-4 to exclude gain from a sale or exchange of a principal residence before December 24, 2002 but on or after May 7, 1997, may elect to apply §§ 1.121-1 through 1.121-4 for any years for which the period of limitation under section 6511 has not expired. The taxpayer makes the election under this paragraph (j) by filing a return for the taxable year of the sale or exchange that does not include the gain from the sale or exchange of the taxpayer's principal residence in the taxpayer's gross income. Taxpayers who have filed a return for the taxable year of the sale or exchange may elect to apply the provisions of these regulations for any years for which the period of limitation under section 6511 has not expired by filing an amended return.

(k) Audit protection. The Internal Revenue Service will not challenge a taxpayer's position that a sale or exchange of a principal residence occurring before December 24, 2002 but on or after May 7, 1997, qualifies for the section 121 exclusion if the taxpayer has made a reasonable, good faith effort to comply with the requirements of section 121. Compliance with the provisions of the regulations project under section 121 (REG-105235-99 (2000-2 C.B. 447)) generally will be considered a reasonable, good faith effort to comply with the requirements of section 121.

(l) Effective date. This section is applicable for sales and exchanges on or after December 24, 2002. For rules on electing to apply the provisions retroactively, see paragraph (j) of this section.

[T.D. 9030, 67 FR 78361, Dec. 24, 2002; 68 FR 6350, Feb. 7, 2003]

§ 1.121-5 Suspension of 5-year period for certain members of the uniformed services and Foreign Service.

(a) In general. Under section 121(d)(9), a taxpayer who is serving (or whose spouse is serving) on qualified official extended duty as a member of the uniformed services or Foreign Service of the United States may elect to suspend the running of the 5-year period of ownership and use during such service but for not more than 10 years. The election does not suspend the running of the 5-year period for any period during which the running of the 5-year period with respect to any other property of the taxpayer is suspended by an election under section 121(d)(9).

(b) Manner of making election. The taxpayer makes the election under section 121(d)(9) and this section by filing a return for the taxable year of the sale or exchange of the taxpayer's principal residence that does not include the gain in the taxpayer's gross income.

(c) Application of election to closed years. A taxpayer who would otherwise qualify under §§ 1.121-1 through 1.121-4 to exclude gain from a sale or exchange of a principal residence on or after May 7, 1997, may elect to apply section 121(d)(9) and this section for any years for which a claim for refund is barred by operation of any law or rule of law by filing an amended return before November 11, 2004.

(d) Example. The provisions of this section are illustrated by the following example:

Example.

B purchases a house in Virginia in 2003 that he uses as his principal residence for 3 years. For 8 years, from 2006 through 2014, B serves on qualified official extended duty as a member of the Foreign Service of the United States in Brazil. In 2015 B sells the house. B did not use the house as his principal residence for 2 of the 5 years preceding the sale. Under section 121(d)(9)and this section, however, B may elect to suspend the running of the 5-year period of ownership and use during his 8-year period of service with the Foreign Service in Brazil. If B makes the election, the 8-year period is not counted in determining whether B used the house for 2 of the 5 years preceding the sale. Therefore, B may exclude the gain from the sale of the house under section 121.

(e) Effective date. This section is applicable for sales and exchanges on or after May 7, 1997.

[T.D. 9152, 69 FR 50306, Aug. 16, 2004]

§ 1.122-1 Applicable rules relating to certain reduced uniformed services retirement pay.

(a) Rule applicable prior to January 1, 1966. In the case of a member or former member of the uniformed services of the United States (as defined in 37 U.S.C. 101(3)) who has made an election under Subchapter I of Chapter 73 of title 10 of the U.S. Code (also referred to in this section as the Retired Serviceman's Family Protection Plan (10 U.S.C. 1431)) to receive a reduced amount of retired or retainer pay, gross income shall include the amount of any reduction made in his retired or retainer pay before January 1, 1966, by reason of such election, unless such reduction, or portion thereof, is otherwise excluded from gross income under Part III of Subchapter B of Chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 or any other provision of law.

(b) Rule applicable after December 31, 1965—(1) In a case of a member or former member of the uniformed services of the United States (as defined in 37 U.S.C. 101(3)), gross income shall not include the amount of any reduction made in his or her retired or retainer pay after December 31, 1965, by reason of—

(i) An election made under the Retired Serviceman's Family Protection Plan (10 U.S.C. 1431), or

(ii) The provisions of Subchapter II of Chapter 73 of title 10 of the U.S. Code (also referred to in this section as the Survivor Benefit Plan (10 U.S.C. 1447)).

(2)(i) In a case where a member or former member of the uniformed services has, pursuant to the election described in paragraph (a) of this section, received before January 1, 1966, a reduced amount of retired or retainer pay, he shall, after December 31, 1965, exclude from gross income under section 122(b) and this subdivision all amounts received as uniformed services retired or retainer pay until there has been so excluded an amount of retired or retainer pay equal to the “consideration for the contract” (as described in subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph).

(ii) Upon the death of a member or former member of the uniformed services, where the “consideration for the contract” (as described in subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph) has not been excluded in whole or in part from gross income under section 122(b) and subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, the survivor of such member who is receiving an annuity under Chapter 73 of title 10 of the U.S. Code shall, after December 31, 1965, exclude from gross income under section 72(o) and this subdivision such annuity payments received after December 31, 1965, until there has been so excluded annuity payments equalling the portion of the “consideration for the contract” not previously excluded under subdivision (i) of this subparagraph.

(iii) The term “consideration for the contract” as used in this subparagraph means—

(a) The total amount of the reductions, if any, before January 1, 1966, in retired or retainer pay by reason of an election under Subchapter I of Chapter 73 of title 10 of the United States Code, plus

(b) The total amount, if any, deposited by the serviceman at any time pursuant to the provisions of sections 1438 or 1452(d) of title 10 of the United States Code, plus

(c) The total amount, if any, excludable from income under section 101(b)(2)(D) and paragraph (a)(2) of § 1.101-2 with respect to a survivor annuity provided by such retired or retainer pay, minus

(d) The total amount, if any, excluded from income before January 1, 1966, pursuant to the provisions of section 72 (b) and (d) with respect to a survivor annuity provided by such retired or retainer pay.

(iv) In determining whether there has been a recovery of the “consideration for the contract” under subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, the exclusion of retired pay from income after December 31, 1965, under sections 104(a)(4) and 105(d) shall not be considered as recovery of all or part of the “consideration for the contract.”

(c) Special rules. In any of the following situations, the computation of the excludable portion of disability retired pay received by the member or former member of the uniformed services shall be governed by the following rules:

(1) An exclusion under section 122(a) and paragraph (b)(1) of this section is applicable only in the taxable year in which a reduction in retired pay is made under the Retired Serviceman's Family Protection Plan (10 U.S.C. 1431) or the Survivor Benefit Plan (10 U.S.C. 1447).

(2) Where the member or former member of the uniformed services is entitled to exclude the whole or a portion of his retired pay under the provisions of section 104(a)(4) or section 105(d) and under section 122(a) and paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the exclusion under section 122(a) and paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall be applied prior to the exclusions under sections 104(a)(4) and 105(d).

(3) Where the member or former member of the uniformed services waives a portion of his disability retired pay, or such retired pay reduced under the Retired Serviceman's Family Protection Plan (10 U.S.C. 1431),or the Survivor Benefit Plan (10 U.S.C. 1447) in favor of a nontaxable pension or compensation receivable under laws administered by the Veterans Administration (38 U.S.C. 3105), the waived amount of such disability retired pay, or reduced amount thereof, shall first be subtracted from any amounts which are excludable under the provisions of sections 104(a)(4) or 105(d) so as to reduce the amounts otherwise excludable under those sections.

(4) Where the member or former member of the uniformed services receives (before any forfeiture) disability retired pay (whether or not reduced under the Retired Serviceman's Family Protection Plan) or the Survivor Benefit Plan which is partially excludable under section 104(a)(4), and also forfeits a portion of such disability retired pay under the Dual Compensation Act of 1964 (5 U.S.C. 5531 or any former corresponding provision of law), the amount of the forfeiture under such Act shall be applied against disability retired pay (before any forfeiture) in the same proportion that the excludable portion of such pay under section 104(a)(4) bears to the total amount of such pay after subtraction of any reduction under the Retired Serviceman's Family Protection Plan (10 U.S.C. 1431) or the Survivor Benefit Plan (10 U.S.C. 1447).

(5) The exclusion provided by section 122(b) and paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section shall be available with respect to repayments made upon removal from the temporary disability retired list even though such repayments were previously excluded from gross income under section 104(a)(4) or 105(d).

However, the exclusion permitted by the prior sentence will apply only to the extent the repaid amount has not been previously excluded under section 122(b) and paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.

(d) Examples with respect to the Retired Serviceman's Family Protection Plan. The rules discussed in this section relating to the Retired Serviceman's Family Protection Plan (10 U.S.C. 1431) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

A, a member of the uniformed services, retires on January 1, 1963, and receives nondisability retired pay computed to be 60 percent of his active duty pay of $10,000 per year, or $6,000 per year, based upon 24 years of service. He elects, under the Retired Serviceman's Family Protection Plan (10 U.S.C. 1431), to provide his survivor with an annuity equal to one-fourth of his reduced retired pay. His retired pay of $6,000 is reduced by $600, to $5,400, in order to provide a survivor annuity of $1,350 per year or $112.50 per month. For 1963, 1964, and 1965, A must include in gross income the unreduced amount of retired pay, or $6,000. For 1966 and subsequent years, he may exclude under section 122(a) and paragraph (b)(1) of this section the $600 total annual reductions to provide the survivor annuity, and may, for 1966, further exclude from gross income under section 122(b) and paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section the $1,800 “consideration for the contract” i.e., the total reductions which were made in 1963, 1964, and 1965, to provide the survivor annuity. Accordingly, A will include $3,600 of retired pay in gross income for 1966 ($6,000 minus the sum of $600 and $1,800).

Example 2.

Assume the facts in Example (1) except that A retires on disability resulting from active service and his disability is rated at 40 percent. The entire amount of disability retirement pay, prior to and including 1966, is excludable from gross income under sections 104(a)(4) and 105(d), and in 1966, section 122(a). Assume further that A attains retirement age on December 31, 1966, dies on January 1, 1967, and his widow then begins receiving a survivor annuity under the Retired Serviceman's Family Protection Plan (10 U.S.C. 1431). A's widow may exclude from gross income in 1967 and 1968 under section 72(o) and paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, the $1,800 of “consideration for the contract” i.e., the reductions in 1963, 1964, and 1965 to provide the survivor annuity. Thus, A's widow will exclude all of the survivor annuity she receives in 1967 ($1,350) and $450 of the $1,350 annuity received in 1968. In addition, if A had not attained retirement age at the time of his death, his widow would, under section 101 and paragraph (a)(2) of § 1.101-2, exclude up to $5,000 subject to the limitations of paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section.

Example 3.

Assume, in the previous example, that A dies on January 1, 1965, and his widow then begins receiving a survivor annuity. Assume further that A's widow is entitled to exclude under section 72(b) $1,000 of the $1,350 she received in 1965. Under section 72(o) and paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, A's widow for 1966 will exclude the $200 remaining consideration for the contract ($1,200−$1,000) and will include $1,150 of the survivor annuity in gross income.

Example 4.

B, a member of the uniformed services, retires on January 1, 1966, after 32 years of active military service, and receives disability retirement pay under section 1401 of title 10, limited to 75 percent of his active duty pay of $15,000 per year, or $11,250. His disability rating is 30 percent. B has not reached retirement age (as defined in § 1.79-2(b)(3)). He elects under the Retired Serviceman's Family Protection Plan (10 U.S.C. 1431) to provide his survivor with an annuity equal to one-half of his reduced retired pay and, for that purpose, his retired pay of $11,250 is reduced by $1,250 to provide an annuity of $5,000 per year. B also elects to waive retired pay in the amount of $1,000 in order to receive disability compensation in like amount under laws administered by the Veterans Administration. In addition, B is required to forfeit $4,088 of his retired pay under the Dual Compensation Act of 1964 (5 U.S.C. 5532) ($11,250−$1,000 = $10,250 less one-half of excess thereof over $2,074) and by reason of his Federal employment is not entitled to an exclusion of his retired pay under section 105(d). B's taxable retired pay for 1966 is $3,002, computed as follows:

Gross retired pay $11,250
Less: Section 122(a) exclusion (1,250)
Reduced retired pay 10,000
Less: Retired pay waived to receive V.A. compensation (1,000)
Adjusted retired pay— 9,000
Less:
(i) Excludable retired pay computed under section 104(a)(4) as limited by 10 U.S.C. 1403 $4,500
(ii) Less: Retired pay, not to exceed (i), waived to receive V.A. compensation (1,000)
(iii) Net disability exclusion (3,500)
Taxable retired pay before adjustment for Dual Compensation forfeiture 5,500
Less:
Adjustment for Dual Compensation forfeiture of $4,088
5500 ÷ 9000 × $4,088 = $2,498 (rounded) (2,498)
Net taxable retired pay 3,002
Example 5.

C, a member of the uniformed services retires on January 1, 1966, and receives disability retirement pay of $11,250 per year, which is reduced by $1,250 to provide a survivor annuity, and $1,000 of which is waived in order to receive disability compensation in like amount under laws administered by the Veterans Administration. C has not reached retirement age for purposes of section 105(d) and is not employed by the Federal Government. C's taxable disability retirement pay for 1966 is $300 computed as follows:

Adjusted retired pay $9,000
Less:
(i) Excludable retired pay under section (a)(4) as limited by 10 U.S.C. 1403 $4,500
(ii) Excludable retired pay under section 105(d) 5,200
(iii) Total 9,700
(iv) Less: Retired pay, not to exceed (iii), waived to receive V.A. compensation “sick pay” exclusion (1,000)
(v) Net disability and “sick pay” exclusion (8,700)
Net taxable retired pay 800
Example 6.

D, a member of the uniformed services, retires for physical disability resulting from active service on January 1, 1966, after 35 years of service and with a disability rated at 20 percent. His active duty pay is $4,000 per year and he attained retirement age prior to retirement. He had an election in effect under the Retired Serviceman's Family Protection Plan to provide his survivor with an annuity and his retired pay is reduced therefor by $500 per year. He waives $1,300 of his retired pay in order to receive compensation from the Veterans Administration in like amount. His taxable retired pay for 1966 is $1,200 computed as follows:

Gross retired pay (75% × $4,000) $3,000
Less: Section 122(a) exclusion (500)
Reduced retired pay 2,500
Less: V.A. waiver (1,300)
Adjusted retired pay 1,200
Less:
(i) Section 104(a)(4) exclusion $800
(ii) Less: Retired pay, not to exceed (i), waived to receive V.A. compensation (800)
(iii) Net disability exclusion 0
Net taxable retired pay 1,200

(e) Principles applicable to the Survivor Benefit Plan. The principles illustrated by the examples set forth in paragraph (d) of this section apply to an annuity under the Survivor Benefit Plan (10 U.S.C. 1447).

[T.D. 7043, 35 FR 8478, June 2, 1970, as amended by T.D. 7562, 43 FR 38819, Aug. 31, 1978]

§ 1.123-1 Exclusion of insurance proceeds for reimbursement of certain living expenses.

(a) In general. (1) Gross income does not include insurance proceeds received by an individual on or after January 1, 1969, pursuant to the terms of an insurance contract for indemnification of the temporary increase in living expenses resulting from the loss of use or occupancy of his principal residence, or a part thereof, due to damage or destruction by fire, storm, or other casualty. The term “other casualty” has the same meaning assigned to such term under section 165(c)(3). The exclusion also applies in the case of an individual who is denied access to his principal residence by governmental authorities because of the occurrence (or threat of occurrence) of such a casualty. The amount excludable under this section is subject to the limitation set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.

(2) This exclusion applies to amounts received as reimbursement or compensation for the reasonable and necessary increase in living expenses incurred by the insured and members of his household to maintain their customary standard of living during the loss period.

(3) This exclusion does not apply to an insurance recovery for the loss of rental income. Nor does the exclusion apply to any insurance recovery which compensates for the loss of, or damage to, real or personal property. See section 165(c)(3) relating to casualty losses; section 1231 relating to gain on an involuntary conversion of a capital asset held for more than 1 year (6 months for taxable years beginning before 1977; 9 months for taxable years beginning in 1977); and section 1033 relating to recognition of gain on an involuntary conversion. In the case of property used by an insured partially as a principal residence and partially for other purposes, the exclusion does not apply to the amount of insurance proceeds which compensates for the portion of increased expenses attributable to the nonresidential use of temporary replacement property during the loss period. In the case of denial of access to a principal residence by governmental authority, the exclusion provided by this section does not apply to an insurance recovery received by an individual as reimbursement for living expenses incurred by reason of a governmental condemnation or order not related to a casualty or the threat of a casualty.

(4)(i) Subject to the limitation set forth in paragraph (b), the amount excludable is the amount which is identified by the insurer as being paid exclusively for increased living expenses resulting from the loss of use or occupancy of the principal residence and pursuant to the terms of the insurance contract.

(ii) When a lump-sum insurance settlement includes, but does not specifically identify, compensation for property damage, loss of rental income, and increased living expenses, the amount of such settlement allocable to living expenses shall, in the case of uncontested claims, be that portion of the settlement which bears the same ratio to the total recovery as the amount of claimed increased living expense bears to the total amount of claimed losses and expenses, to the extent not in excess of the coverage limitations specified in the contract for such losses and expenses.

(iii) In the case of a lump-sum settlement involving contested claims, the insured shall establish the amount reasonably allocable to increased living expenses, consistent with the terms of the contract and other facts of the particular case.

(iv) In no event may the amount of a lump-sum settlement which is allocable to increased living expenses exceed the coverage limitation specified in the contract for increased living expenses. Where, however, a coverage limitation is applicable to the total amount payable for increased living expenses and, for example, loss of rental income, the amount of an unitemized settlement which is allocable to increased living expenses may not exceed the portion of the applicable coverage limitation which bears the same ratio to such limitation as the amount of increased living expenses bears to the sum of the amount of such increased living expenses and the amount, if any, of lost rental income.

(5) The portion of any insurance recovery for increased living expenses which exceeds the limitation set forth in paragraph (b) shall be included in gross income under section 61 of the Code.

(b) Limitation—(1) Amount excludable. The amount excludable under this section is limited to amounts received which are not in excess of the amount by which (i) total actual living expenses incurred by the insured and members of his household which result from the loss of use or occupancy of their residence exceed (ii) the total normal living expenses which would have been incurred during the loss period but are not incurred as a result of the loss of use or occupancy of the principal residence. Generally, the excludable amount represents such excess expenses actually incurred by reason of a casualty, or threat thereof, for renting suitable housing and for extraordinary expenses for transportation, food, utilities, and miscellaneous services during the period of repair or replacement of the damaged principal residence or denial of access by governmental authority.

(2) Actual living expenses. For purposes of this section, actual living expenses are the reasonable and necessary expenses incurred as a result of the loss of use or occupancy of the principal residence to maintain the insured and members of his household in accordance with their customary standard of living. Actual living expenses must be of such a nature as to qualify as a reimbursable expense under the terms of the applicable insurance contract without regard to monetary limitations upon coverage. Generally, actual living expenses include the cost during the loss period of temporary housing, utilities furnished at the place of temporary housing, meals obtained at restaurants which customarily would have been prepared in the residence, transportation, and other miscellaneous services. To the extent that the loss of use or occupancy of the principal residence results merely in an increase in the amount expended for items of living expenses normally incurred, such as food and transportation, only the increase in such costs shall be considered as actual living expenses in computing the limitation.

(3) Normal living expenses not incurred. Normal living expenses consist of the same categories of expenses comprising actual living expenses which would have been incurred but are not incurred as a result of the casualty or threat thereof. If the loss of use of the residence results in a decrease in the amount normally expended for a living expense item during the loss period, the item of normal living expense is considered not to have been incurred to the extent of the decrease for purposes of computing the limitation.

(4) Examples. The application of this paragraph (b) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

On March 1, 1970, A's principal residence, a dwelling owned by A no part of which was rented to others or used for nonresidential purposes, was extensively damaged by fire. The damaged residence was under repair during the entire month of March making it necessary for A and his spouse to obtain temporary lodging and to take their meals at a restaurant. A and his spouse incur expenses of $200 for lodging at a motel, $180 for meals which customarily would have been prepared in his residence, and $25 for commercial laundry service which customarily would have been done by A's wife. A makes (directly or through mortgage insurance), or remains liable for, the required March payment of $190 on the mortgage note on his residence. The mortgage payment results from a contractual obligation having no causal relationship to the occurrence of the casualty and is not considered as an actual living expense resulting from the loss of use of the residence. A's customary commuting expense of $40 for bus fares to and from work is decreased by $20 for the month because of the motel's closer proximity to his place of employment. Other transportation expenses remain stable. Since there has been a decrease in the amount of A's customary bus fares, normal transportation expenses are considered not to have been incurred to the extent of the decrease. Finally, A does not incur customary expenses of $150 for food obtained for home preparation, $75 for utilities expenses, and $10 for laundry cleansers. The limitation upon the excludable amount of an insurance recovery for excess living expenses is $150, computed as follows:

Living Expenses

Actual resulting from casualty Normal not incurred Increase (decrease)
Housing $200.00 $200.00
Utilities $75.00 (75.00)
Meals 180.00 150.00 30.00
Transportation 20.00 (20.00)
Laundry 25.00 10.00 150.00
Total 405.00 255.00 15.00
Example 2.

Assume the same facts as in example (1) except that the damaged residence is not owned by A but is rented to him for $100 per month and that the risk of loss is upon the lessor. Since A would not have incurred the normal rental of $100 for March, the excludable amount is limited to $50 ($150 as in previous example less $100 normal rent not incurred).

(c) Principal residence. Whether or not property is used by the insured taxpayer and members of his household as their principal residence depends upon all the facts and circumstances in each case. For purposes of this section, a principal residence may be a dwelling or an apartment leased to the insured as well as a dwelling or apartment owned by the insured.

[T.D. 7118, 36 FR 10729, June 2, 1971, as amended by T.D. 7728, 45 FR 72650, Nov. 3, 1980]

§ 1.125-3 Effect of the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) on the operation of cafeteria plans.

The following questions and answers provide guidance on the effect of the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA), 29 U.S.C. 2601 et seq., on the operation of cafeteria plans:

Q-1: May an employee revoke coverage or cease payment of his or her share of group health plan premiums when taking unpaid FMLA, 29 U.S.C. 2601 et seq., leave?

A-1: Yes. An employer must either allow an employee on unpaid FMLA leave to revoke coverage, or continue coverage but allow the employee to discontinue payment of his or her share of the premium for group health plan coverage (including a health flexible spending arrangement (FSA)) under a cafeteria plan for the period of the FMLA leave. See 29 CFR 825.209(e). FMLA does not require that an employer allow an employee to revoke coverage if the employer pays the employee's share of premiums. As discussed in Q&A-3, if the employer continues coverage during an FMLA leave, the employer may recover the employee's share of the premiums when the employee returns to work. FMLA also provides the employee a right to be reinstated in the group health plan coverage (including a health FSA) provided under a cafeteria plan upon returning from FMLA leave if the employee's group health plan coverage terminated while on FMLA leave (either by revocation or due to nonpayment of premiums). Such an employee is entitled, to the extent required under FMLA, to be reinstated on the same terms as prior to taking FMLA leave (including family or dependent coverage), subject to any changes in benefit levels that may have taken place during the period of FMLA leave as provided in 29 CFR 825.215(d)(1). See 29 CFR 825.209(e) and 825.215(d). In addition, such an employee has the right to revoke or change elections under § 1.125-4 (e.g., because of changes in status or cost or coverage changes as provided under § 1.125-4) under the same terms and conditions as are available to employees participating in the cafeteria plan who are working and not on FMLA leave.

Q-2: Who is responsible for making premium payments under a cafeteria plan when an employee on FMLA leave continues group health plan coverage?

A-2: FMLA provides that an employee is entitled to continue group health plan coverage during FMLA leave whether or not that coverage is provided under a health FSA or other component of a cafeteria plan. See 29 CFR 825.209(b). FMLA permits an employer to require an employee who chooses to continue group health plan coverage while on FMLA leave to be responsible for the share of group health premiums that would be allocable to the employee if the employee were working, and, for this purpose, treats amounts paid pursuant to a pre-tax salary reduction agreement as amounts allocable to the employee. However, FMLA requires the employer to continue to contribute the share of the cost of the employee's coverage that the employer was paying before the employee commenced FMLA leave. See 29 CFR 825.100(b) and 825.210(a).

Q-3: What payment options are required or permitted to be offered under a cafeteria plan to an employee who continues group health plan coverage while on unpaid FMLA leave, and what is the tax treatment of these payments?

A-3: (a) In general. Subject to the limitations described in paragraph (b) of this Q&A-3, a cafeteria plan may offer one or more of the following payment options, or a combination of these options, to an employee who continues group health plan coverage (including a health FSA) while on unpaid FMLA leave; provided that the payment options for employees on FMLA leave are offered on terms at least as favorable as those offered to employees not on FMLA leave. These options are referred to in this section as pre-pay, pay-as-you-go, and catch-up. See also the FMLA notice requirements at 29 CFR 825.301(b)(1)(iv).

(1) Pre-pay. (i) Under the pre-pay option, a cafeteria plan may permit an employee to pay, prior to commencement of the FMLA leave period, the amounts due for the FMLA leave period. However, FMLA provides that the employer may not mandate that an employee pre-pay the amounts due for the leave period. See 29 CFR 825.210(c)(3) and (4).

(ii) Contributions under the pre-pay option may be made on a pre-tax salary reduction basis from any taxable compensation (including from unused sick days or vacation days). However, see Q&A-5 of this section regarding additional restrictions on pre-tax salary reduction contributions when an employee's FMLA leave spans two cafeteria plan years.

(iii) Contributions under the pre-pay option may also be made on an after-tax basis.

(2) Pay-as-you-go. (i) Under the pay-as-you-go option, employees may pay their share of the premium payments on the same schedule as payments would have been made if the employee were not on leave or under any other payment schedule permitted by the Labor Regulations at 29 CFR 825.210(c) (e.g., on the same schedule as payments are made under section 4980B (relating to coverage under the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA), 26 U.S.C. 4980B), under the employer's existing rules for payment by employees on leave without pay, or under any other system voluntarily agreed to between the employer and the employee that is not inconsistent with this section or with 29 CFR 825.210(c)).

(ii) Contributions under the pay-as-you-go option are generally made by the employee on an after-tax basis. However, contributions may be made on a pre-tax basis to the extent that the contributions are made from taxable compensation (e.g., from unused sick days or vacation days) that is due the employee during the leave period.

(iii) An employer is not required to continue the group health coverage of an employee who fails to make required premium payments while on FMLA leave, provided that the employer follows the notice procedures required under FMLA. See 29 CFR 825.212. However, if the employer chooses to continue the health coverage of an employee who fails to pay his or her share of the premium payments while on FMLA leave, FMLA permits the employer to recoup the premiums (to the extent of the employee's share). See 29 CFR 825.212(b). Such recoupment may be made as set forth in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (ii) of this Q&A-3. See also Q&A-6 of this section regarding coverage under a health FSA when an employee fails to make the required premium payments while on FMLA leave.

(3) Catch-up. (i) Under the catch-up option, the employer and the employee may agree in advance that the group coverage will continue during the period of unpaid FMLA leave, and that the employee will not pay premiums until the employee returns from the FMLA leave. Where an employee is electing to use the catch-up option, the employer and the employee must agree in advance of the coverage period that: the employee elects to continue health coverage while on unpaid FMLA leave; the employer assumes responsibility for advancing payment of the premiums on the employee's behalf during the FMLA leave; and these advance amounts are to be paid by the employee when the employee returns from FMLA leave.

(ii) When an employee fails to make required premium payments while on FMLA leave, an employer is permitted to utilize the catch-up option to recoup the employee's share of premium payments when the employee returns from FMLA leave. See, e.g., 29 CFR 825.212(b). If the employer chooses to continue group coverage under these circumstances, the prior agreement of the employee, as set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this Q&A-3, is not required.

(iii) Contributions under the catch-up option may be made on a pre-tax salary reduction basis from any available taxable compensation (including from unused sick days and vacation days) after the employee returns from FMLA leave. The cafeteria plan may provide for the catch-up option to apply on a pre-tax salary reduction basis if premiums have not been paid on any other basis (i.e., have not been paid under the pre-pay or pay-as-you-go options or on a catch-up after-tax basis).

(iv) Contributions under the catch-up option may also be made on an after-tax basis.

(b) Exceptions. Whatever payment options are offered to employees on non-FMLA leave must be offered to employees on FMLA leave. In accordance with 29 CFR 825.210(c), cafeteria plans may offer one or more of the payment options described in paragraph (a) of this Q&A-3, with the following exceptions:

(1) FMLA does not permit the pre-pay option to be the sole option offered to employees on FMLA leave. However, the cafeteria plan may include pre-payment as an option for employees on FMLA leave, even if such option is not offered to employees on non-FMLA leave-without-pay.

(2) FMLA allows the catch-up option to be the sole option offered to employees on FMLA leave if and only if the catch-up option is the sole option offered to employees on non-FMLA leave-without-pay.

(3) If the pay-as-you-go option is offered to employees on non-FMLA leave-without-pay, the option must also be offered to employees on FMLA leave. The employer may also offer employees on FMLA leave the pre-pay option and/or the catch-up option.

(c) Voluntary waiver of employee payments. In addition to the foregoing payment options, an employer may voluntarily waive, on a nondiscriminatory basis, the requirement that employees who elect to continue group health coverage while on FMLA leave pay the amounts the employees would otherwise be required to pay for the leave period.

(d) Example. The following example illustrates this Q&A-3:

Example.

(i) Employer Y allows employees to pay premiums for group health coverage during an FMLA leave on an after-tax basis while the employee is on unpaid FMLA leave. Under the terms of Y's cafeteria plan, if an employee elects to continue health coverage during an unpaid FMLA leave and fails to pay one or more of the after-tax premium payments due for that coverage, the employee's salary after the employee returns from FMLA leave is reduced to cover unpaid premiums (i.e. the premiums that were to be paid by the employee on an after-tax basis during the FMLA leave, but were paid by the employer instead).

(ii) In this Example, Y's cafeteria plan satisfies the conditions in this Q&A-3. Y's cafeteria plan would also satisfy the conditions in this Q&A-3 if the plan provided for coverage to cease in the event the employee fails to make a premium payment when due during an unpaid FMLA leave.

Q-4: Do the special FMLA requirements concerning payment of premiums by an employee who continues group health plan coverage under a cafeteria plan apply if the employee is on paid FMLA leave?

A-4: No. The Labor Regulations provide that, if an employee's FMLA leave is paid leave as described at 29 CFR 825.207 and the employer mandates that the employee continue group health plan coverage while on FMLA leave, the employee's share of the premiums must be paid by the method normally used during any paid leave (e.g., by pre-tax salary reduction if the employee's share of premiums were paid by pre-tax salary reduction before the FMLA leave began). See 29 CFR 825.210(b).

Q-5: What restrictions apply to contributions when an employee's FMLA leave spans two cafeteria plan years?

A-5: (a) No amount will be included in an employee's gross income due to participation in a cafeteria plan during FMLA leave, provided that the plan complies with other generally applicable cafeteria plan requirements. Among other requirements, a plan may not operate in a manner that enables employees on FMLA leave to defer compensation from one cafeteria plan year to a subsequent cafeteria plan year. See section 125(d)(2).

(b) The following example illustrates this Q&A-5:

Example.

(i) Employee A elects group health coverage under a calendar year cafeteria plan maintained by Employer X. Employee A's premium for health coverage is $100 per month throughout the 12-month period of coverage. Employee A takes FMLA leave for 12 weeks beginning on October 31 after making 10 months of premium payments totaling $1,000 (10 months × $100 = $1,000). Employee A elects to continue health coverage while on FMLA leave and utilizes the pre-pay option by applying his or her unused sick days in order to make the required premium payments due while he or she is on FMLA leave.

(ii) Because A cannot defer compensation from one plan year to a subsequent plan year, A may pre-pay the premiums due in November and December (i.e., $100 per month) on a pre-tax basis, but A cannot pre-pay the premium payment due in January on a pre-tax basis. If A participates in the cafeteria plan in the subsequent plan year, A must either pre-pay for January on an after-tax basis or use another option (e.g., pay-as-you-go, catch-up, reduction in unused sick days, etc.) to make the premium payment due in January.

Q-6: Are there special rules concerning employees taking FMLA leave who participate in health FSAs offered under a cafeteria plan?

A-6: (a) In general. (1) A group health plan that is a flexible spending arrangement (FSA) offered under a cafeteria plan must conform to the generally applicable rules in this section concerning employees who take FMLA leave. Thus, to the extent required by FMLA (see 29 CFR 825.209(b)), an employer must—

(i) Permit an employee taking FMLA leave to continue coverage under a health FSA while on FMLA leave; and

(ii) If an employee is on unpaid FMLA leave, either—

(A) Allow the employee to revoke coverage; or

(B) Continue coverage, but allow the employee to discontinue payment of his or her share of the premium for the health FSA under the cafeteria plan during the unpaid FMLA leave period.

(2) Under FMLA, the plan must permit the employee to be reinstated in health coverage upon return from FMLA leave on the same terms as if the employee had been working throughout the leave period, without a break in coverage. See 29 CFR 825.214(a) and 825.215(d)(1) and paragraph (b)(2) of this Q&A-6. In addition, under FMLA, a plan may require an employee to be reinstated in health coverage upon return from a period of unpaid FMLA leave, provided that employees who return from a period of unpaid leave not covered by the FMLA are also required to resume participation upon return from leave.

(b) Coverage. (1) Regardless of the payment option selected under Q&A-3 of this section, for so long as the employee continues health FSA coverage (or for so long as the employer continues the health FSA coverage of an employee who fails to make the required contributions as described in Q&A-3(a)(2)(iii) of this section), the full amount of the elected health FSA coverage, less any prior reimbursements, must be available to the employee at all times, including the FMLA leave period.

(2)(i) If an employee's coverage under the health FSA terminates while the employee is on FMLA leave, the employee is not entitled to receive reimbursements for claims incurred during the period when the coverage is terminated. If an employee subsequently elects or the employer requires the employee to be reinstated in the health FSA upon return from FMLA leave for the remainder of the plan year, the employee may not retroactively elect health FSA coverage for claims incurred during the period when the coverage was terminated. Upon reinstatement into a health FSA upon return from FMLA leave (either because the employee elects reinstatement or because the employer requires reinstatement), the employee has the right under FMLA: to resume coverage at the level in effect before the FMLA leave and make up the unpaid premium payments, or to resume coverage at a level that is reduced and resume premium payments at the level in effect before the FMLA leave. If an employee chooses to resume health FSA coverage at a level that is reduced, the coverage is prorated for the period during the FMLA leave for which no premiums were paid. In both cases, the coverage level is reduced by prior reimbursements.

(ii) FMLA requires that an employee on FMLA leave have the right to revoke or change elections (because of events described in § 1.125-4) under the same terms and conditions that apply to employees participating in the cafeteria plan who are not on FMLA leave. Thus, for example, if a group health plan offers an annual open enrollment period to active employees, then, under FMLA, an employee on FMLA leave when the open enrollment is offered must be offered the right to make election changes on the same basis as other employees. Similarly, if a group health plan decides to offer a new benefit package option and allows active employees to elect the new option, then, under FMLA, an employee on FMLA leave must be allowed to elect the new option on the same basis as other employees.

(3) The following examples illustrate the rules in this Q&A-6:

Example 1.

(i) Employee B elects $1,200 worth of coverage under a calendar year health FSA provided under a cafeteria plan, with an annual premium of $1,200. Employee B is permitted to pay the $1,200 through pre-tax salary reduction amounts of $100 per month throughout the 12-month period of coverage. Employee B incurs no medical expenses prior to April 1. On April 1, B takes FMLA leave after making three months of contributions totaling $300 (3 months × $100 = $300). Employee B's coverage ceases during the FMLA leave. Consequently, B makes no premium payments for the months of April, May, and June, and B is not entitled to submit claims or receive reimbursements for expenses incurred during this period. Employee B returns from FMLA leave and elects to be reinstated in the health FSA on July 1.

(ii) Employee B must be given a choice of resuming coverage at the level in effect before the FMLA leave (i.e., $1,200) and making up the unpaid premium payments ($300), or resuming health FSA coverage at a level that is reduced on a prorata basis for the period during the FMLA leave for which no premiums were paid (i.e., reduced for 3 months or 1/4 of the plan year) less prior reimbursements (i.e., $0) with premium payments due in the same monthly amount payable before the leave (i.e., $100 per month). Consequently, if B chooses to resume coverage at the level in effect before the FMLA leave, B's coverage for the remainder of the plan year would equal $1,200 and B's monthly premiums would be increased to $150 per month for the remainder of the plan year, to make up the $300 in premiums missed ($100 per month plus $50 per month ($300 divided by the remaining 6 months)). If B chooses prorated coverage, B's coverage for the remainder of the plan year would equal $900, and B would resume making premium payments of $100 per month for the remainder of the plan year.

Example 2.

(i) Assume the same facts as Example 1 except that B incurred medical expenses totaling $200 in February and obtained reimbursement of these expenses.

(ii) The results are the same as in Example 1, except that if B chooses to resume coverage at the level in effect before the FMLA leave, B's coverage for the remainder of the year would equal $1,000 ($1,200 reduced by $200) and the monthly payments for the remainder of the year would still equal $150. If instead B chooses prorated coverage, B's coverage for the remainder of the plan year would equal $700 ($1,200 prorated for 3 months, and then reduced by $200) and the monthly payments for the remainder of the year would still equal $100.

Example 3.

(i) Assume the same facts as Example 1 except that, prior to taking FMLA leave, B elects to continue health FSA coverage during the FMLA leave. The plan permits B (and B elects) to use the catch-up payment option described in Q&A-3 of this section, and as further permitted under the plan, B chooses to repay the $300 in missed payments on a ratable basis over the remaining 6-month period of coverage (i.e., $50 per month).

(ii) Thus, B's monthly premium payments for the remainder of the plan year will be $150 ($100 + $50).

Q-7: Are employees entitled to non-health benefits while taking FMLA leave?

A-7: FMLA does not require an employer to maintain an employee's non-health benefits (e.g., life insurance) during FMLA leave. An employee's entitlement to benefits other than group health benefits under a cafeteria plan during a period of FMLA leave is to be determined by the employer's established policy for providing such benefits when the employee is on non-FMLA leave (paid or unpaid). See 29 CFR 825.209(h). Therefore, an employee who takes FMLA leave is entitled to revoke an election of non-health benefits under a cafeteria plan to the same extent as employees taking non-FMLA leave are permitted to revoke elections of non-health benefits under a cafeteria plan. For example, election changes are permitted due to changes of status or upon enrollment for a new plan year. See § 1.125-4. However, FMLA provides that, in certain cases, an employer may continue an employee's non-health benefits under the employer's cafeteria plan while the employee is on FMLA leave in order to ensure that the employer can meet its responsibility to provide equivalent benefits to the employee upon return from unpaid FMLA. If the employer continues an employee's non-health benefits during FMLA leave, the employer is entitled to recoup the costs incurred for paying the employee's share of the premiums during the FMLA leave period. See 29 CFR 825.213(b). Such recoupment may be on a pre-tax basis. A cafeteria plan must, as required by FMLA, permit an employee whose coverage terminated while on FMLA leave (either by revocation or nonpayment of premiums) to be reinstated in the cafeteria plan on return from FMLA leave. See 29 CFR 825.214(a) and 825.215(d).

Q-8: What is the applicability date of the regulations in this section?

A-8: This section is applicable for cafeteria plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2002.

[T.D. 8966, 66 FR 52677, Oct. 17, 2001; 66 FR 63920, Dec. 11, 2001]

§ 1.125-4 Permitted election changes.

(a) Election changes. A cafeteria plan may permit an employee to revoke an election during a period of coverage and to make a new election only as provided in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section. Section 125 does not require a cafeteria plan to permit any of these changes. See paragraph (h) of this section for special provisions relating to qualified cash or deferred arrangements, and paragraph (i) of this section for special definitions used in this section.

(b) Special enrollment rights—(1) In general. A cafeteria plan may permit an employee to revoke an election for coverage under a group health plan during a period of coverage and make a new election that corresponds with the special enrollment rights provided in section 9801(f).

(2) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this paragraph (b):

Example 1.

(i) Employer M provides health coverage for its employees pursuant to a plan that is subject to section 9801(f). Under the plan, employees may elect either employee-only coverage or family coverage. M also maintains a calendar year cafeteria plan under which qualified benefits, including health coverage, are funded through salary reduction. M's employee, A, is married to B and they have a child, C. In accordance with M's cafeteria plan, Employee A elects employee-only health coverage before the beginning of the calendar year. During the year, A and B adopt a child, D. Within 30 days thereafter, A wants to revoke A's election for employee-only health coverage and obtain family health coverage for A's spouse, C, and D as of the date of D's adoption. Employee A satisfies the conditions for special enrollment of an employee with a new dependent under section 9801(f)(2), so that A may enroll in family coverage under M's accident or health plan in order to provide coverage effective as of the date of D's adoption.

(ii) M's cafeteria plan may permit A to change A's salary reduction election to family coverage for salary not yet currently available. The increased salary reduction is permitted to reflect the cost of family coverage from the date of adoption. (A's adoption of D is also a change in status, and the election of family coverage is consistent with that change in status. Thus, under paragraph (c) of this section, M's cafeteria plan could permit A to elect family coverage prospectively in order to cover B, C, and D for the remaining portion of the period of coverage.)

Example 2.

(i) The employer plans and permissible coverage are the same as in Example 1. Before the beginning of the calendar year, Employee E elects employee-only health coverage under M's cafeteria plan. Employee E marries F during the plan year. F's employer, N, offers health coverage to N's employees, and, prior to the marriage, F had elected employee-only coverage. Employee E wants to revoke the election for employee-only coverage under M's cafeteria plan, and is considering electing family health coverage under M's plan or obtaining family health coverage under N's plan.

(ii) M's cafeteria plan may permit E to change E's salary reduction election to reflect the change to family coverage under M's accident or health plan because the marriage would result in special enrollment rights under section 9801(f), pursuant to which an election of family coverage under M's accident or health plan would be required to be effective no later than the first day of the first calendar month beginning after the completed request for enrollment is received by the plan. Since no retroactive coverage is required in the event of marriage under section 9801(f), E's salary reduction election may only be changed on a prospective basis. (E's marriage to F is also a change in status under paragraph (c) of this section, as illustrated in Example 1 of paragraph (c)(4) of this section.)

(c) Changes in status—(1) Change in status rule. A cafeteria plan may permit an employee to revoke an election during a period of coverage with respect to a qualified benefits plan (defined in paragraph (i)(8) of this section) to which this paragraph (c) applies and make a new election for the remaining portion of the period (referred to in this section as an election change) if, under the facts and circumstances—

(i) A change in status described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section occurs; and

(ii) The election change satisfies the consistency rule of paragraph (c)(3) of this section.

(2) Change in status events. The following events are changes in status for purposes of this paragraph (c):

(i) Legal marital status. Events that change an employee's legal marital status, including the following: marriage; death of spouse; divorce; legal separation; and annulment.

(ii) Number of dependents. Events that change an employee's number of dependents, including the following: birth; death; adoption; and placement for adoption.

(iii) Employment status. Any of the following events that change the employment status of the employee, the employee's spouse, or the employee's dependent: a termination or commencement of employment; a strike or lockout; a commencement of or return from an unpaid leave of absence; and a change in worksite. In addition, if the eligibility conditions of the cafeteria plan or other employee benefit plan of the employer of the employee, spouse, or dependent depend on the employment status of that individual and there is a change in that individual's employment status with the consequence that the individual becomes (or ceases to be) eligible under the plan, then that change constitutes a change in employment under this paragraph (c) (e.g., if a plan only applies to salaried employees and an employee switches from salaried to hourly-paid with the consequence that the employee ceases to be eligible for the plan, then that change constitutes a change in employment status under this paragraph (c)(2)(iii)).

(iv) Dependent satisfies or ceases to satisfy eligibility requirements. Events that cause an employee's dependent to satisfy or cease to satisfy eligibility requirements for coverage on account of attainment of age, student status, or any similar circumstance.

(v) Residence. A change in the place of residence of the employee, spouse, or dependent.

(vi) Adoption assistance. For purposes of adoption assistance provided through a cafeteria plan, the commencement or termination of an adoption proceeding.

(3) Consistency rule—(i) Application to accident or health coverage and group-term life insurance. An election change satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3) with respect to accident or health coverage or group-term life insurance only if the election change is on account of and corresponds with a change in status that affects eligibility for coverage under an employer's plan. A change in status that affects eligibility under an employer's plan includes a change in status that results in an increase or decrease in the number of an employee's family members or dependents who may benefit from coverage under the plan.

(ii) Application to other qualified benefits. An election change satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3) with respect to other qualified benefits if the election change is on account of and corresponds with a change in status that affects eligibility for coverage under an employer's plan. An election change also satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3) if the election change is on account of and corresponds with a change in status that effects expenses described in section 129 (including employment-related expenses as defined in section 21(b)(2)) with respect to dependent care assistance, or expenses described in section 137 (including qualified adoption expenses as defined in section 137(d)) with respect to adoption assistance.

(iii) Application of consistency rule. If the change in status is the employee's divorce, annulment or legal separation from a spouse, the death of a spouse or dependent, or a dependent ceasing to satisfy the eligibility requirements for coverage, an employee's election under the cafeteria plan to cancel accident or health insurance coverage for any individual other than the spouse involved in the divorce, annulment or legal separation, the deceased spouse or dependent, or the dependent that ceased to satisfy the eligibility requirements for coverage, respectively, fails to correspond with that change in status. Thus, if a dependent dies or ceases to satisfy the eligibility requirements for coverage, the employee's election to cancel accident or health coverage for any other dependent, for the employee, or for the employee's spouse fails to correspond with that change in status. In addition, if an employee, spouse, or dependent gains eligibility for coverage under a family member plan (as defined in paragraph (i)(5) of this section) as a result of a change in marital status under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section or a change in employment status under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, an employee's election under the cafeteria plan to cease or decrease coverage for that individual under the cafeteria plan corresponds with that change in status only if coverage for that individual becomes applicable or is increased under the family member plan. With respect to group-term life insurance and disability coverage (as defined in paragraph (i)(4) of this section), an election under a cafeteria plan to increase coverage (or an election to decrease coverage) in response to a change in status described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section is deemed to correspond with that change in status as required by paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section.

(iv) Exception for COBRA. If the employee, spouse, or dependent becomes eligible for continuation coverage under the group health plan of the employee's employer as provided in section 4980B or any similar state law, a cafeteria plan may permit the employee to elect to increase payments under the employer's cafeteria plan in order to pay for the continuation coverage.

(4) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this paragraph (c):

Example 1.

(i) Employer M provides health coverage (including a health FSA) for its employees through its cafeteria plan. Before the beginning of the calendar year, Employee A elects employee-only health coverage under M's cafeteria plan and elects salary reduction contributions to fund coverage under the health FSA. Employee A marries B during the year. Employee B's employer, N, offers health coverage to N's employees (but not including any health FSA), and, prior to the marriage, B had elected employee-only coverage. Employee A wants to revoke the election for employee-only coverage, and is considering electing family health coverage under M's plan or obtaining family health coverage under N's plan.

(ii) Employee A's marriage to B is a change in status under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, pursuant to which B has become eligible for coverage under M's health plan under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section. Two possible election changes by A correspond with the change in status: Employee A may elect family health coverage under M's plan to cover A and B; or A may cancel coverage under M's plan, if B elects family health coverage under N's plan to cover A and B. Thus, M's cafeteria plan may permit A to make either election change.

(iii) Employee A may also increase salary reduction contributions to fund coverage for B under the health FSA.

Example 2.

(i) Employee C, a single parent, elects family health coverage under a calendar year cafeteria plan maintained by Employer O. Employee C and C's 21-year old child, D, are covered under O's health plan. During the year, D graduates from college. Under the terms of the health plan, dependents over the age of 19 must be full-time students to receive coverage. Employee C wants to revoke C's election for family health coverage and obtain employee-only coverage under O's cafeteria plan.

(ii) D's loss of eligibility for coverage under the terms of the health plan is a change in status under paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section. A revocation of C's election for family coverage and new election for employee-only coverage corresponds with the change in status. Thus, O's cafeteria plan may permit C to elect employee-only coverage.

Example 3.

(i) Employee E is married to F and they have one child, G. Employee E is employed by Employer P, and P maintains a calendar year cafeteria plan that allows employees to elect no health coverage, employee-only coverage, employee-plus-one-dependent coverage, or family coverage. Under the plan, before the beginning of the calendar year, E elects family health coverage for E, F, and G. E and F divorce during the year and F loses eligibility for coverage under P's plan. G does not lose eligibility for health coverage under P's plan upon the divorce. E now wants to revoke E's election under the cafeteria plan and elect no coverage.

(ii) The divorce is a change in status under paragraph (c)(2)(i). A change in the cafeteria plan election to cancel health coverage for F is consistent with that change in status. However, an election change to cancel E's or G's health coverage does not satisfy the consistency rule under paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section regarding cancellation of coverage for an employee's other dependents in the event of divorce. Therefore, the cafeteria plan may not permit E to elect no coverage. However, an election to change to employee-plus-one-dependent health coverage would correspond with the change in status, and thus the cafeteria plan may permit E to elect employee-plus-one-dependent health coverage.

(iii) In addition, under paragraph (f)(4) of this section, if F makes an election change to cover G under F's employer's plan, then E may make a corresponding change to elect employee-only coverage under P's cafeteria plan.

Example 4.

(i) Employer R maintains a calendar year cafeteria plan under which full-time employees may elect coverage under one of three benefit package options provided under an accident or health plan: an indemnity option or either of two HMO options for employees who work in the respective service areas of the two HMOs. Employee A, who works in the service area of HMO #1, elects the HMO #1 option. During the year, A is transferred to another work location which is outside the HMO #1 service area and inside the HMO #2 service area.

(ii) The transfer is a change in status under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section (relating to a change in worksite), and, under the consistency rule in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the cafeteria plan may permit A to make an election change to elect the indemnity option or HMO #2 or to cancel accident or health coverage.

(iii) The change in work location has no effect on A's eligibility under R's health FSA, so no change in A's health FSA is authorized under this paragraph (c).

Example 5.

(i) Employer S maintains a calendar year cafeteria plan that allows employees to elect coverage under an accident or health plan providing indemnity coverage and coverage under a health FSA. Prior to the beginning of the calendar year, Employee B elects employee-only indemnity coverage, and elects salary reduction contributions of $600 during the year to fund coverage under the health FSA for up to $600 of reimbursements for the year. Employee B's spouse, C, has employee-only coverage under an accident or health plan maintained by C's employer. During the year, C terminates employment and loses coverage under that plan. B now wants to elect family coverage under S's accident or health plan and increase B's FSA election.

(ii) C's termination of employment is a change in status under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, and the election change satisfies the consistency rule of paragraph (c)(3) of this section. Therefore, the cafeteria plan may permit B to elect family coverage under S's accident or health plan and to increase B's FSA coverage.

Example 6.

(i) Employer T provides group-term life insurance coverage as described under section 79. Under T's plan, an employee may elect life insurance coverage in an amount up to $50,000. T also maintains a calendar year cafeteria plan under which qualified benefits, including the group-term life insurance coverage, are funded through salary reduction. Employee D has a spouse and a child. Before the beginning of the year, D elects $10,000 of group-term life insurance coverage. During the year, D is divorced.

(ii) The divorce is a change in status under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. Under paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section, either an increase or a decrease in coverage is consistent with this change in status. Thus, T's cafeteria plan may permit D to increase or to decrease D's group-term life insurance coverage.

Example 7.

(i) Employee E is married to F and they have one child, G. Employee E's employer, U, maintains a cafeteria plan under which employees may elect no coverage, employee-only coverage, or family coverage under a group health plan maintained by U, and may make a separate vision coverage election under the plan. Before the beginning of the calendar year, E elects family health coverage and no vision coverage under U's cafeteria plan. Employee F's employer, V, maintains a cafeteria plan under which employees may elect no coverage, employee-only coverage, or family coverage under a group health plan maintained by V, and may make a separate vision coverage election under the plan. Before the beginning of the calendar year, F elects no health coverage and employee-only vision coverage under V's plan. During the year, F terminates employment with V and loses vision coverage under V's plan. Employee E now wants to elect family vision coverage under U's group health plan.

(ii) F's termination of employment is a change in status under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, and the election change satisfies the consistency rule of paragraph (c)(3) of this section. Therefore, U's cafeteria plan may permit E to elect family vision coverage (covering E and G as well as F) under U's group health plan.

Example 8.

(i) Before the beginning of the year, Employee H elects to participate in a cafeteria plan maintained by H's employer, W. However, in order to change the election during the year so as to cancel coverage, and by prior understanding with W, H terminates employment and resumes employment one week later.

(ii) In this Example 8, under the facts and circumstances, a principal purpose of the termination of employment was to alter the election, and reinstatement of employment was understood at the time of termination. Accordingly, H does not have a change in status under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section.

(iii) However, H's termination of employment would constitute a change in status, permitting a cancellation of coverage during the period of unemployment, if H's original cafeteria plan election for the period of coverage was reinstated upon resumption of employment (for example, if W's cafeteria plan contains a provision requiring an employee who resumes employment within 30 days, without any other intervening event that would permit a change in election, to return to the election in effect prior to termination of employment).

(iv) If, instead, H terminates employment and cancels coverage during a period of unemployment, and then returns to work more than 30 days following termination of employment, the cafeteria plan may permit H the option of returning to the election in effect prior to termination of employment or making a new election under the plan. Alternatively, the cafeteria plan may prohibit H from returning to the plan during that plan year.

Example 9.

(i) Employee A has one child, B. Employee A's employer, X, maintains a calendar year cafeteria plan that allows employees to elect coverage under a dependent care FSA. Prior to the beginning of the calendar year, A elects salary reduction contributions of $4,000 during the year to fund coverage under the dependent care FSA for up to $4,000 of reimbursements for the year. During the year, B reaches the age of 13, and A wants to cancel coverage under the dependent care FSA.

(ii) When B turns 13, B ceases to satisfy the definition of qualifying individual under section 21(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code. Accordingly, B's attainment of age 13 is a change in status under paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section that affects A's employment-related expenses as defined in section 21(b)(2). Therefore, A may make a corresponding change under X's cafeteria plan to cancel coverage under the dependent care FSA.

Example 10.

(i) Employer Y maintains a calendar year cafeteria plan under which full-time employees may elect coverage under either an indemnity option or an HMO. Employee C elects the employee-only indemnity option. During the year, C marries D. D has two children from a previous marriage, and has family group health coverage in a cafeteria plan sponsored by D's employer, Z. C wishes to change from employee-only indemnity coverage to HMO coverage for the family. D wishes to cease coverage in Z's group health plan and certifies to Z that D will have family coverage under C's plan (and Z has no reason to believe the certification is incorrect).

(ii) The marriage is a change in status under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. Under the consistency rule in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, Y's cafeteria plan may permit C to change his or her salary reduction contributions to reflect the change from employee-only indemnity to HMO family coverage, and Z may permit D to revoke coverage under Z's cafeteria plan.

(d) Judgment, decree, or order—(1) Conforming election change. This paragraph (d) applies to a judgment, decree, or order (order) resulting from a divorce, legal separation, annulment, or change in legal custody (including a qualified medical child support order as defined in section 609 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (Public Law 93-406 (88 Stat. 829))) that requires accident or health coverage for an employee's child or for a foster child who is a dependent of the employee. A cafeteria plan will not fail to satisfy section 125 if it—

(i) Changes the employee's election to provide coverage for the child if the order requires coverage for the child under the employee's plan; or

(ii) Permits the employee to make an election change to cancel coverage for the child if:

(A) The order requires the spouse, former spouse, or other individual to provide coverage for the child; and

(B) That coverage is, in fact, provided.

(2) Example. The following example illustrates the application of this paragraph (d):

Example.

(i) Employer M maintains a calendar year cafeteria plan that allows employees to elect no health coverage, employee-only coverage, employee-plus-one-dependent coverage, or family coverage. M's employee, A, is married to B and they have one child, C. Before the beginning of the year, A elects employee-only health coverage. Employee A divorces B during the year and, pursuant to A's divorce agreement with B, M's health plan receives a qualified medical child support order (as defined in section 609 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974) during the plan year. The order requires M's health plan to cover C.

(ii) Under this paragraph (d), M's cafeteria plan may change A's election from employee-only health coverage to employee-plus-one-dependent coverage in order to cover C.

(e) Entitlement to Medicare or Medicaid. If an employee, spouse, or dependent who is enrolled in an accident or health plan of the employer becomes entitled to coverage (i.e., becomes enrolled) under Part A or Part B of title XVIII of the Social Security Act (Medicare) (Public Law 89-97 (79 Stat. 291)) or title XIX of the Social Security Act (Medicaid) (Public Law 89-97 (79 Stat. 343)), other than coverage consisting solely of benefits under section 1928 of the Social Security Act (the program for distribution of pediatric vaccines), a cafeteria plan may permit the employee to make a prospective election change to cancel or reduce coverage of that employee, spouse, or dependent under the accident or health plan. In addition, if an employee, spouse, or dependent who has been entitled to such coverage under Medicare or Medicaid loses eligibility for such coverage, the cafeteria plan may permit the employee to make a prospective election to commence or increase coverage of that employee, spouse, or dependent under the accident or health plan.

(f) Significant cost or coverage changes—(1) In general. Paragraphs (f)(2) through (5) of this section set forth rules for election changes as a result of changes in cost or coverage. This paragraph (f) does not apply to an election change with respect to a health FSA (or on account of a change in cost or coverage under a health FSA).

(2) Cost changes—(i) Automatic changes. If the cost of a qualified benefits plan increases (or decreases) during a period of coverage and, under the terms of the plan, employees are required to make a corresponding change in their payments, the cafeteria plan may, on a reasonable and consistent basis, automatically make a prospective increase (or decrease) in affected employees' elective contributions for the plan.

(ii) Significant cost changes. If the cost charged to an employee for a benefit package option (as defined in paragraph (i)(2) of this section) significantly increases or significantly decreases during a period of coverage, the cafeteria plan may permit the employee to make a corresponding change in election under the cafeteria plan. Changes that may be made include commencing participation in the cafeteria plan for the option with a decrease in cost, or, in the case of an increase in cost, revoking an election for that coverage and, in lieu thereof, either receiving on a prospective basis coverage under another benefit package option providing similar coverage or dropping coverage if no other benefit package option providing similar coverage is available. For example, if the cost of an indemnity option under an accident or health plan significantly increases during a period of coverage, employees who are covered by the indemnity option may make a corresponding prospective increase in their payments or may instead elect to revoke their election for the indemnity option and, in lieu thereof, elect coverage under another benefit package option including an HMO option (or drop coverage under the accident or health plan if no other benefit package option is offered).

(iii) Application of cost changes. For purposes of paragraphs (f)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, a cost increase or decrease refers to an increase or decrease in the amount of the elective contributions under the cafeteria plan, whether that increase or decrease results from an action taken by the employee (such as switching between full-time and part-time status) or from an action taken by an employer (such as reducing the amount of employer contributions for a class of employees).

(iv) Application to dependent care. This paragraph (f)(2) applies in the case of a dependent care assistance plan only if the cost change is imposed by a dependent care provider who is not a relative of the employee. For this purpose, a relative is an individual who is related as described in section 152(a)(1) through (8), incorporating the rules of section 152(b)(1) and (2).

(3) Coverage changes—(i) Significant curtailment without loss of coverage. If an employee (or an employee's spouse or dependent) has a significant curtailment of coverage under a plan during a period of coverage that is not a loss of coverage as described in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section (for example, there is a significant increase in the deductible, the copay, or the out-of-pocket cost sharing limit under an accident or health plan), the cafeteria plan may permit any employee who had been participating in the plan and receiving that coverage to revoke his or her election for that coverage and, in lieu thereof, to elect to receive on a prospective basis coverage under another benefit package option providing similar coverage. Coverage under a plan is significantly curtailed only if there is an overall reduction in coverage provided under the plan so as to constitute reduced coverage generally. Thus, in most cases, the loss of one particular physician in a network does not constitute a significant curtailment.

(ii) Significant curtailment with loss of coverage. If an employee (or the employee's spouse or dependent) has a significant curtailment that is a loss of coverage, the plan may permit that employee to revoke his or her election under the cafeteria plan and, in lieu thereof, to elect either to receive on a prospective basis coverage under another benefit package option providing similar coverage or to drop coverage if no similar benefit package option is available. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(3)(ii), a loss of coverage means a complete loss of coverage under the benefit package option or other coverage option (including the elimination of a benefits package option, an HMO ceasing to be available in the area where the individual resides, or the individual losing all coverage under the option by reason of an overall lifetime or annual limitation). In addition, the cafeteria plan may, in its discretion, treat the following as a loss of coverage—

(A) A substantial decrease in the medical care providers available under the option (such as a major hospital ceasing to be a member of a preferred provider network or a substantial decrease in the physicians participating in a preferred provider network or an HMO);

(B) A reduction in the benefits for a specific type of medical condition or treatment with respect to which the employee or the employee's spouse or dependent is currently in a course of treatment; or

(C) Any other similar fundamental loss of coverage.

(iii) Addition or improvement of a benefit package option. If a plan adds a new benefit package option or other coverage option, or if coverage under an existing benefit package option or other coverage option is significantly improved during a period of coverage, the cafeteria plan may permit eligible employees (whether or not they have previously made an election under the cafeteria plan or have previously elected the benefit package option) to revoke their election under the cafeteria plan and, in lieu thereof, to make an election on a prospective basis for coverage under the new or improved benefit package option.

(4) Change in coverage under another employer plan. A cafeteria plan may permit an employee to make a prospective election change that is on account of and corresponds with a change made under another employer plan (including a plan of the same employer or of another employer) if—

(i) The other cafeteria plan or qualified benefits plan permits participants to make an election change that would be permitted under paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section (disregarding this paragraph (f)(4)); or

(ii) The cafeteria plan permits participants to make an election for a period of coverage that is different from the period of coverage under the other cafeteria plan or qualified benefits plan.

(5) Loss of coverage under other group health coverage. A cafeteria plan may permit an employee to make an election on a prospective basis to add coverage under a cafeteria plan for the employee, spouse, or dependent if the employee, spouse, or dependent loses coverage under any group health coverage sponsored by a governmental or educational institution, including the following—

(i) A State's children's health insurance program (SCHIP) under title XXI of the Social Security Act;

(ii) A medical care program of an Indian Tribal government (as defined in section 7701(a)(40)), the Indian Health Service, or a tribal organization;

(iii) A State health benefits risk pool; or

(iv) A Foreign government group health plan.

(6) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this paragraph (f):

Example 1.

(i) A calendar year cafeteria plan is maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement for the benefit of Employer M's employees. The cafeteria plan offers various benefits, including indemnity health insurance and a health FSA. As a result of mid-year negotiations, premiums for the indemnity health insurance are reduced in the middle of the year, insurance co-payments for office visits are reduced under the indemnity plan by an amount which constitutes a significant benefit improvement, and an HMO option is added.

(ii) Under these facts, the reduction in health insurance premiums is a reduction in cost. Accordingly, under paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, the cafeteria plan may automatically decrease the amount of salary reduction contributions of affected participants by an amount that corresponds to the premium change. However, the plan may not permit employees to change their health FSA elections to reflect the mid-year change in copayments under the indemnity plan.

(iii) Also, the decrease in co-payments is a significant benefit improvement and the addition of the HMO option is an addition of a benefit package option. Accordingly, under paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section, the cafeteria plan may permit eligible employees to make an election change to elect the indemnity plan or the new HMO option. However, the plan may not permit employees to change their health FSA elections to reflect differences in co-payments under the HMO option.

Example 2.

(i) Employer N sponsors an accident or health plan under which employees may elect either employee-only coverage or family health coverage. The 12-month period of coverage under N's cafeteria plan begins January 1, 2001. N's employee, A, is married to B. Employee A elects employee-only coverage under N's plan. B's employer, O, offers health coverage to O's employees under its accident or health plan under which employees may elect either employee-only coverage or family coverage. O's plan has a 12-month period of coverage beginning September 1, 2001. B maintains individual coverage under O's plan at the time A elects coverage under N's plan, and wants to elect no coverage for the plan year beginning on September 1, 2001, which is the next period of coverage under O's accident or health plan. A certifies to N that B will elect no coverage under O's accident or health plan for the plan year beginning on September 1, 2001 and N has no reason to believe that A's certification is incorrect.

(ii) Under paragraph (f)(4)(ii) of this section, N's cafeteria plan may permit A to change A's election prospectively to family coverage under that plan effective September 1, 2001.

Example 3.

(i) Employer P sponsors a calendar year cafeteria plan under which employees may elect either employee-only or family health coverage. Before the beginning of the year, P's employee, C, elects family coverage under P's cafeteria plan. C also elects coverage under the health FSA for up to $200 of reimbursements for the year to be funded by salary reduction contributions of $200 during the year. C is married to D, who is employed by Employer Q. Q does not maintain a cafeteria plan, but does maintain an accident or health plan providing its employees with employee-only coverage. During the calendar year, Q adds family coverage as an option under its health plan. D elects family coverage under Q's plan, and C wants to revoke C's election for health coverage and elect no health coverage under P's cafeteria plan for the remainder of the year.

(ii) Q's addition of family coverage as an option under its health plan constitutes a new coverage option described in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section. Accordingly, pursuant to paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this section, P's cafeteria plan may permit C to revoke C's health coverage election if D actually elects family health coverage under Q's accident or health plan. Employer P's plan may not permit C to change C's health FSA election.

Example 4.

(i) Employer R maintains a cafeteria plan under which employees may elect accident or health coverage under either an indemnity plan or an HMO. Before the beginning of the year, R's employee, E elects coverage under the HMO at a premium cost of $100 per month. During the year, E decides to switch to the indemnity plan, which charges a premium of $140 per month.

(ii) E's change from the HMO to indemnity plan is not a change in cost or coverage under this paragraph (f), and none of the other election change rules under paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section apply.

(iii) Although R's health plan may permit E to make the change from the HMO to the indemnity plan, R's cafeteria plan may not permit E to make an election change to reflect the increased premium. Accordingly, if E switches from the HMO to the indemnity plan, E may pay the $40 per month additional cost on an after-tax basis.

Example 5.

(i) Employee A is married to Employee B and they have one child, C. Employee A's employer, M, maintains a calendar year cafeteria plan that allows employees to elect coverage under a dependent care FSA. Child C attends X's on site child care center at an annual cost of $3,000. Prior to the beginning of the year, A elects salary reduction contributions of $3,000 during the year to fund coverage under the dependent care FSA for up to $3,000 of reimbursements for the year. Employee A now wants to revoke A's election of coverage under the dependent care FSA, because A has found a new child care provider.

(ii) The availability of dependent care services from the new child care provider (whether the new provider is a household employee or family member of A or B or a person who is independent of A and B) is a significant change in coverage similar to a benefit package option becoming available. Because the FSA is a dependent care FSA rather than a health FSA, the coverage rules of this section apply and M's cafeteria plan may permit A to elect to revoke A's previous election of coverage under the dependent care FSA, and make a corresponding new election to reflect the cost of the new child care provider.

Example 6.

(i) Employee D is married to Employee E and they have one child, F. Employee D's employer, N, maintains a calendar year cafeteria plan that allows employees to elect coverage under a dependent care FSA. Child F is cared for by Y, D's household employee, who provides child care services five days a week from 9 a.m. to 6 p.m. at an annual cost in excess of $5,000. Prior to the beginning of the year, D elects salary reduction contributions of $5,000 during the year to fund coverage under the dependent care FSA for up to $5,000 of reimbursements for the year. During the year, F begins school and, as a result, Y's regular hours of work are changed to five days a week from 3 p.m. to 6 p.m. Employee D now wants to revoke D's election under the dependent care FSA, and make a new election under the dependent care FSA to an annual cost of $4,000 to reflect a reduced cost of child care due to Y's reduced hours.

(ii) The change in the number of hours of work performed by Y is a change in coverage. Thus, N's cafeteria plan may permit D to reduce D's previous election under the dependent care FSA to $4,000.

Example 7.

(i) Employee G is married to Employee H and they have one child, J. Employee G's employer, O, maintains a calendar year cafeteria plan that allows employees to elect coverage under a dependent care FSA. Child J is cared for by Z, G's household employee, who is not a relative of G and who provides child care services at an annual cost of $4,000. Prior to the beginning of the year, G elects salary reduction contributions of $4,000 during the year to fund coverage under the dependent care FSA for up to $4,000 of reimbursements for the year. During the year, G raises Z's salary. Employee G now wants to revoke G's election under the dependent care FSA, and make a new election under the dependent care FSA to an annual amount of $4,500 to reflect the raise.

(ii) The raise in Z's salary is a significant increase in cost under paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, and an increase in election to reflect the raise corresponds with that change in status. Thus, O's cafeteria plan may permit G to elect to increase G's election under the dependent care FSA.

Example 8.

(i) Employer P maintains a calendar year cafeteria plan that allows employees to elect employee-only, employee plus one dependent, or family coverage under an indemnity plan. During the middle of the year, Employer P gives its employees the option to select employee-only or family coverage from an HMO plan. P's employee, J, who had elected employee plus one dependent coverage under the indemnity plan, decides to switch to family coverage under the HMO plan.

(ii) Employer P's midyear addition of the HMO option is an addition of a benefit package option. Under paragraph (f) of this section, Employee J may change his or her salary reduction contributions to reflect the change from indemnity to HMO coverage, and also to reflect the change from employee plus one dependent to family coverage (however, an election of employee-only coverage under the new option would not correspond with the addition of a new option). Employer P may not permit J to change J's health FSA election.

(g) Special requirements relating to the Family and Medical Leave Act. An employee taking leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) (Public Law 103-3 (107 Stat. 6)) may revoke an existing election of accident or health plan coverage and make such other election for the remaining portion of the period of coverage as may be provided for under the FMLA. See § 1.125-3 for additional rules.

(h) Elective contributions under a qualified cash or deferred arrangement. The provisions of this section do not apply with respect to elective contributions under a qualified cash or deferred arrangement (within the meaning of section 401(k)) or employee contributions subject to section 401(m). Thus, a cafeteria plan may permit an employee to modify or revoke elections in accordance with section 401(k) and (m) and the regulations thereunder.

(i) Definitions. Unless otherwise provided, the definitions in paragraphs (i)(1) though (8) of this section apply for purposes of this section.

(1) Accident or health coverage. Accident or health coverage means coverage under an accident or health plan as defined in regulations under section 105.

(2) Benefit package option. A benefit package option means a qualified benefit under section 125(f) that is offered under a cafeteria plan, or an option for coverage under an underlying accident or health plan (such as an indemnity option, an HMO option, or a PPO option under an accident or health plan).

(3) Dependent. A dependent means a dependent as defined in section 152, except that, for purposes of accident or health coverage, any child to whom section 152(e) applies is treated as a dependent of both parents, and, for purposes of dependent care assistance provided through a cafeteria plan, a dependent means a qualifying individual (as defined in section 21(b)(1)) with respect to the employee.

(4) Disability coverage. Disability coverage means coverage under an accident or health plan that provides benefits due to personal injury or sickness, but does not reimburse expenses incurred for medical care (as defined in section 213(d)) of the employee or the employee's spouse and dependents. For purposes of this section, disability coverage includes payments described in section 105(c).

(5) Family member plan. A family member plan means a cafeteria plan or qualified benefit plan sponsored by the employer of the employee's spouse or the employee's dependent.

(6) FSA, health FSA. An FSA means a qualified benefits plan that is a flexible spending arrangement as defined in section 106(c)(2) . A health FSA means a health or accident plan that is an FSA.

(7) Placement for adoption. Placement for adoption means placement for adoption as defined in regulations under section 9801.

(8) Qualified benefits plan. A qualified benefits plan means an employee benefit plan governing the provision of one or more benefits that are qualified benefits under section 125(f). A plan does not fail to be a qualified benefits plan merely because it includes an FSA, assuming that the FSA meets the requirements of section 125 and the regulations thereunder.

(9) Similar coverage. Coverage for the same category of benefits for the same individuals (e.g., family to family or single to single). For example, two plans that provide coverage for major medical are considered to be similar coverage. For purposes of this definition, a health FSA is not similar coverage with respect to an accident or health plan that is not a health FSA. A plan may treat coverage by another employer, such as a spouse's or dependent's employer, as similar coverage.

(j) Effective date—(1) General rule. Except as provided in paragraph (j)(2) of this section, this section is applicable for cafeteria plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2001.

(2) Delayed effective date for certain provisions. The following provisions are applicable for cafeteria plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2002: paragraph (c) of this section to the extent applicable to qualified benefits other than an accident or health plan or a group-term life insurance plan; paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section (relating to a spouse, former spouse, or other individual obtaining accident or health coverage for an employee's child in response to a judgment, decree, or order); paragraph (f) of this section (rules for election changes as a result of cost or coverage changes); and paragraph (i)(9) of this section (defining similar coverage).

[T.D. 8878, 65 FR 15550, Mar. 23, 2000, as amended by T.D. 8921, 66 FR 1840, Jan. 10, 2001; 66 FR 13013, Mar. 2, 2001; T.D. 8966, 66 FR 52680, Oct. 17, 2001]

§ 1.127-1 Amounts received under a qualified educational assistance program.

(a) Exclusion from gross income. The gross income of an employee does not include—

(1) Amounts paid to, or on behalf of the employee under a qualified educational assistance program described in § 1.127-2, or

(2) The value of education provided to the employee under such a program.

(b) Disallowance of excluded amounts as credit or deduction. Any amount excluded from the gross income of an employee under paragraph (a) of this section shall not be allowed as a credit or deduction to such employee under any other provision of this part.

(c) Amounts received under a nonqualified program. Any amount received under an educational assistance program that is not a “qualified program” described in § 1.127-2 will not be excluded from gross income under paragraph (a) of this section. All or part of the amounts received under such a nonqualified program may, however, be excluded under section 117 or deducted under section 162 or section 212 (as the case may be), if the requirements of such section are satisfied.

(d) Definitions. For rules relating to the meaning of the terms “employee” and “employer”, see paragraph (h) of § 1.127-2.

(e) Effective date. This section is effective for taxable years of the employee beginning after December 31, 1978, and before January 1, 1984.

[T.D. 7898, 48 FR 31017, July 6, 1983]

§ 1.127-2 Qualified educational assistance program.

(a) In general. A qualified educational assistance program is a plan established and maintained by an employer under which the employer provides educational assistance to employees. To be a qualified program, the requirements described in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section must be satisfied. It is not required that a program be funded or that the employer apply to the Internal Revenue Service for a determination that the plan is a qualified program. However, under § 601.201 (relating to rulings and determination letters), an employer may request that the Service determine whether a plan is a qualified program.

(b) Separate written plan. The program must be a separate written plan of the employer. This requirement means that the terms of the program must be set forth in a separate document or documents providing only educational assistance within the meaning of paragraph (c) of this section. The requirement for a separate plan does not, however, preclude an educational assistance program from being part of a more comprehensive employer plan that provides a choice of nontaxable benefits to employees.

(c) Educational assistance—(1) In general. The benefits provided under the program must consist solely of educational assistance. The term “educational assistance” means—

(i) The employer's payment of expenses incurred by or on behalf of an employee for education, or

(ii) The employer's provision of education to an employee.

(2) Alternative benefits. Benefits will not be considered to consist solely of educational assistance if the program, in form or in actual operation, provides employees with a choice between educational assistance and other remuneration includible in the employee's gross income.

(3) Certain benefits not considered educational assistance. The term “educational assistance” does not include the employer's payment for, or provision of—

(i) Tools or supplies (other than textbooks) that the employee may retain after completing a course of instruction,

(ii) Meals, lodging, or transportation, or

(iii) Education involving sports, games, or hobbies, unless such education involves the business of the employer or is required as part of a degree program. The phrase “sports, games, or hobbies” does not include education that instructs employees how to maintain and improve health so long as such education does not involve the use of athletic facilities or equipment and is not recreational in nature.

(4) Education defined. As used in section 127, § 1.127-1, and this section, the term “education” includes any form of instruction or training that improves or develops the capabilities of an individual. Education paid for or provided under a qualified program may be furnished directly by the employer, either alone or in conjunction with other employers, or through a third party such as an educational institution. Education is not limited to courses that are job related or part of a degree program.

(d) Exclusive benefit. The program may benefit only the employees of the employer, including, at the employer's option, individuals who are employees within the meaning of paragraph (h)(1) of this section. A program that provides benefits to spouses or dependents of employees is not a qualified program within the meaning of this section.

(e) Prohibited discrimination—(1) Eligibility for benefits. The program must benefit the employer's employees generally. Among those benefited may be employees who are officers, shareholders, self-employed or highly compensated. A program is not for the benefit of employees generally, however, if the program discriminates in favor of employees described in the preceding sentence (or in favor of their spouses and dependents who are themselves employees) in requirements relating to eligibility for benefits. Thus, although a program need not provide benefits for all employees, it must benefit those employees who qualify under a classification of employees that does not discriminate in favor of the employees with respect to whom discrimination is prohibited. The classification of employees to be considered benefited will consist of that group of employees who are actually eligible for educational assistance under the program, taking into account the eligibility requirements set forth in the written plan, the eligibility requirements reflected in the types of educational assistance available under the program, and any other conditions that may affect the availability of benefits under the program. Thus, for example, if an employer's plan provides that all employees are eligible for educational assistance, yet limits that assistance to courses of study leading to postgraduate degrees in fields relating to the employer's business, then only those employees able to pursue such a course of study are considered actually eligible for educational assistance under the program. Whether any classification of employees discriminates in favor of employees with respect to whom discrimination is prohibited will generally be determined by applying the same standards as are applied under section 410(b)(1)(B) (relating to qualified pension, profit-sharing and stock bonus plans), without regard to section 401(a)(5). For purposes of making this determination, there shall be excluded from consideration employees not covered by the program who are included in a unit of employees covered by an agreement which the Secretary of Labor finds to be a collective bargaining agreement between employee representatives and one or more employers, if the Internal Revenue Service finds that educational assistance benefits were the subject of good faith bargaining between the employee representatives and the employer or employers. For purposes of determining whether such bargaining occurred, it is not material that the employees are not covered by another educational assistance program or that the employer's present program was not considered in the bargaining.

(2) Factors not considered in determining the existence of prohibited discrimination. A program shall not be considered discriminatory under this paragraph (e) merely because—

(i) Different types of educational assistance available under the program are utilized to a greater degree by employees with respect to whom discrimination is prohibited than by other employees, or

(ii) With respect to a course of study for which benefits are otherwise available, successful completion of the course, attaining a particular course grade, or satisfying a reasonable condition subsequent (such as remaining employed for one year after completing the course) are required or considered in determining the availability of benefits.

(f) Benefit limitation—(1) In general. Under section 127(b)(3), a program is a qualified program for a program year only if no more than 5% of the amounts paid or incurred by the employer for educational assistance benefits during the year are provided to the limitation class described in subparagraph (2). For purposes of this paragraph (f), the program year must be specified in the written plan as either the calendar year or the taxable year of the employer.

(2) Limitation class. The limitation class consists of—

(i) Shareholders. Individuals who, on any day of the program year, own more than 5% of the total number of shares of outstanding stock of the employer, or

(ii) Owners. In the case of an employer's trade or business which is not incorporated, individuals who, on any day of the program year, own more than 5% of the capital or profits interest in the employer, and

(iii) Spouses or dependents. Individuals who are spouses or dependents of shareholders or owners described in subdivision (i) or (ii). For purposes of determining stock ownership, the attribution rules described in paragraph (h)(4) of this section apply. The regulations prescribed under section 414(c) are applicable in determining an individual's interest in the capital or profits of an unincorporated trade or business.

(g) Notification of employees. A program is not a qualified program unless employees eligible to participate in the program are given reasonable notice of the terms and availability of the program.

(h) Definitions. For purposes of this section and § 1.127-1—

(1) Employee. The term “employee” includes—

(i) A retired, disabled or laid-off employee,

(ii) A present employee who is on leave, as, for example, in the Armed Forces of the United States, or

(iii) An individual who is self-employed within the meaning of section 401(c)(1).

(2) Employer. An individual who owns the entire interest in an unincorporated trade or business shall be treated as his or her own employer. A partnership is treated as the employer of each partner who is an employee within the meaning of section 401(c)(1).

(3) Officer. An officer is an individual who is an officer within the meaning of regulations prescribed under section 414(c).

(4) Shareholder. The term “shareholder” includes an individual who is a shareholder as determined by the attribution rules under section 1563 (d) and (e), without regard to section 1563(e)(3)(C).

(5) Highly compensated. The term “highly compensated” has the same meaning as it does for purposes of section 410(b)(1)(B).

(i) Substantiation. An employee receiving payments under a qualified educational assistance program must be prepared to provide substantiation to the employer such that it is reasonable to believe that payments or reimbursements made under the program constitute educational assistance within the meaning of paragraph (c) of this section.

[T.D. 7898, 48 FR 31017, July 6, 1983]

§ 1.132-0 Outline of regulations under section 132.

The following is an outline of regulations in this section relating to exclusions from gross income for certain fringe benefits:

§ 1.132-0 Outline of regulations under section 132.
§ 1.132-1 Exclusion from gross income for certain fringe benefits.

§ 1.132-1 (a) In general.

§ 1.132-1 (b) Definition of employee.

(1) No-additional-cost services and qualified employee discounts.

(2) Working condition fringes.

(3) On-premises athletic facilities.

(4) De minimis fringes.

(5) Dependent child.

§ 1.132-1 (c) Special rules for employers—Effect of section 414.

§ 1.132-1 (d) Customers not to include employees.

§ 1.132-1 (e) Treatment of on-premises athletic facilities.

(1) In general.

(2) Premises of the employer.

(3) Application of rules to membership in an athletic facility.

(4) Operation by the employer.

(5) Nonapplicability of nondiscrimination rules.

§ 1.132-1 (f) Nonapplicability of section 132 in certain cases.

(1) Tax treatment provided for in another section.

(2) Limited statutory exclusions.

§ 1.132-1 (g) Effective date.

§ 1.132-2 No-additional-cost services.

§ 1.132-2 (a) In general.

(1) Definition.

(2) Excess capacity services.

(3) Cash rebates.

(4) Applicability of nondiscrimination rules.

(5) No substantial additional cost.

(6) Payments for telephone service.

§ 1.132-2 (b) Reciprocal agreements.

§ 1.132-2 (c) Example.

§ 1.132-3 Qualified employee discounts.

§ 1.132-3 (a) In general.

(1) Definition.

(2) Qualified property or services.

(3) No reciprocal agreement exception.

(4) Property of services provided without charge, at a reduced price, or by rebates.

(5) Property or services provided directly by the employer or indirectly through a third party.

(6) Applicability of nondiscrimination rules.

§ 1.132-3 (b) Employee discount.

(1) Definition.

(2) Price to customers.

(3) Damaged, distressed, or returned goods.

§ 1.132-3 (c) Gross profit percentage.

(1) In general.

(2) Line of business.

(3) Generally accepted accounting principles.

§ 1.132-3 (d) Treatment of leased sections of department stores.

(1) In general.

(2) Employees of the leased section.

§ 1.132-3 (e) Excess discounts.

§ 1.132-4 Line of business limitation.

§ 1.132-4 (a) In general.

(1) Applicability.

(2) Definition.

(3) Aggregation of two-digit classifications.

§ 1.132-4 (b) Grandfather rule for certain retail stores.

(1) In general.

(2) Taxable year of affiliated group.

(3) Definition of “sales”.

(4) Retired and disabled employees.

(5) Increase of employee discount.

§ 1.132-4 (c) Grandfather rule for telephone service provided to pre-divestiture retirees.

§ 1.132-4 (d) Special rule for certain affiliates of commercial airlines.

(1) General rule.

(2) “Airline affiliated group” defined.

(3) “Qualified affiliate” defined.

§ 1.132-4 (e) Grandfather rule for affiliated groups operating airlines.

§ 1.132-4 (f) Special rule for qualified air transportation organizations.

§ 1.132-4 (g) Relaxation of line of business requirement.

§ 1.132-4 (h) Line of business requirement does not expand benefits eligible for exclusion.

§ 1.132-5 Working condition fringes.

§ 1.132-5 (a) In general.

(1) Definition.

(2) Trade or business of the employee.

§ 1.132-5 (b) Vehicle allocation rules.

(1) In general.

(2) Use of different employer-provided vehicles.

(3) Provision of a vehicle and chauffeur services.

§ 1.132-5 (c) Applicability of substantiation requirements of sections 162 and 274(d).

(1) In general.

(2) Section 274(d) requirements.

§ 1.132-5 (d) Safe harbor substantiation rules.

(1) In general.

(2) Period for use of safe harbor rules.

§ 1.132-5 (e) Safe harbor substantiation rule for vehicles not used for personal purposes.

§ 1.132-5 (f) Safe harbor substantiation rule for vehicles not available to employees for personal use other than commuting.

§ 1.132-5 (g) Safe harbor substantiation rule for vehicles used in connection with the business of farming that are available to employees for personal use.

(1) In general.

(2) Vehicles available to more than one individual.

(3) Examples.

§ 1.132-5 (h) Qualified nonpersonal use vehicles.

(1) In general.

(2) Shared usage of qualified nonpersonal use vehicles.

§ 1.132-5 (i) [Reserved]

§ 1.132-5 (j) Application of section 280F.

§ 1.132-5 (k) Aircraft allocation rule.

§ 1.132-5 (l) [Reserved]

§ 1.132-5 (m) Employer-provided transportation for security concerns.

(1) In general.

(2) Demonstration of bona fide business-oriented security concerns.

(3) Application of security rules to spouses and dependents.

(4) Working condition safe harbor for travel on employer-provided aircraft.

(5) Bodyguard/chauffeur provided for a bona fide business-oriented security concern.

(6) Special valuation rule for government employees.

(7) Government employer and employee defined.

(8) Examples.

§ 1.132-5 (n) Product testing.

(1) In general.

(2) Employer-imposed limits.

(3) Discriminating classifications.

(4) Factors that negate the existence of a product testing program.

(5) Failure to meet the requirements of this paragraph (n).

(6) Example.

§ 1.132-5 (o) Qualified automobile demonstration use.

(1) In general.

(2) Full-time automobile salesman.

(3) Demonstration automobile.

(4) Substantial restrictions on personal use.

(5) Sales area.

(6) Applicability of substantiation requirements of sections 162 and 274(d).

(7) Special valuation rules.

§ 1.132-5 (p) Parking.

(1) In general.

(2) Reimbursement of parking expenses.

(3) Parking on residential property.

(4) Dates of applicability.

§ 1.132-5 (q) Nonapplicability of nondiscrimination rules.

§ 1.132-5 (r) Volunteers.

(1) In general.

(2) Limit on application of this paragraph.

(3) Definitions.

(4) Example.

§ 1.132-6 De minimis fringes.

§ 1.132-6 (a) In general.

§ 1.132-6 (b) Frequency.

(1) Employee-measured frequency.

(2) Employer-measured frequency.

§ 1.132-6 (c) Administrability.

§ 1.132-6 (d) Special rules.

(1) Transit passes.

(2) Occasional meal money or local transportation fare.

(3) Use of special rules or examples to establish a general rule.

(4) Benefits exceeding value and frequency limits.

§ 1.132-6 (e) Examples.

(1) Benefits excludable from income.

(2) Benefits not excludable as de minimis fringes.

§ 1.132-6 (f) Nonapplicability of nondiscrimination rules.

§ 1.132-7 Employer-operated eating facilities.

§ 1.132-7 (a) In general.

(1) Conditions for exclusion.

(2) Employer-operated eating facility for employees.

(3) Operation by the employer.

(4) Example.

§ 1.132-7 (b) Direct operating costs.

(1) In general.

(2) Multiple dining rooms or cafeterias.

(3) Payment to operator of facility.

§ 1.132-7 (c) Valuation of non-excluded meals provided at an employer-operated eating facility for employees.

§ 1.132-8 Fringe benefit nondiscrimination rules.

§ 1.132-8 (a) Application of nondiscrimination rules.

(1) General rule.

(2) Consequences of discrimination.

(3) Scope of the nondiscrimination rules provided in this section.

§ 1.132-8 (b) Aggregation of Employees.

(1) Section 132(a) (1) and (2).

(2) Section 132(e)(2).

(3) Classes of employees who may be excluded.

§ 1.132-8 (c) Availability on substantially the same terms.

(1) General rule.

(2) Certain terms relating to priority.

§ 1.132-8 (d) Testing for discrimination.

(1) Classification test.

(2) Classifications that are per se discriminatory.

(3) Former employees.

(4) Restructuring of benefits.

(5) Employer-operated eating facilities for employees.

§ 1.132-8 (e) Cash bonuses or rebates.

§ 1.132-8 (f) Highly compensated employee.

(1) Government and non-government employees.

(2) Former employees.

§ 1.132-9 Qualified transportation fringes.

§ 1.132-9 (a) Table of contents.

§ 1.132-9 (b) Questions and answers.

[T.D. 8256, 54 FR 28600, July 6, 1989, as amended by T.D. 8457, 57 FR 62196, Dec. 30, 1992]

§ 1.132-1 Exclusion from gross income for certain fringe benefits.

(a) In general. Gross income does not include any fringe benefit which qualifies as a—

(1) No-additional-cost service,

(2) Qualified employee discount,

(3) Working condition fringe, or

(4) De minimis fringe.

Special rules apply with respect to certain on-premises gyms and other athletic facilities (§ 1.132-1(e)), demonstration use of employer-provided automobiles by full-time automobile salesmen (§ 1.132-5(o)), parking provided to an employee on or near the business premises of the employer (§ 1.132-5(p)), and on-premises eating facilities (§ 1.132-7).

(b) Definition of employee—(1) No-additional-cost services and qualified employee discounts. For purposes of section 132(a)(1) (relating to no-additional-cost services) and section 132(a)(2) (relating to qualified employee discounts), the term “employee” (with respect to a line of business of an employer means—

(i) Any individual who is currently employed by the employer in the line of business,

(ii) Any individual who was formerly employed by the employer in the line of business and who separated from service with the employer in the line of business by reason of retirement or disability, and

(iii) Any widow or widower of an individual who died while employed by the employer in the line of business or who separated from service with the employer in the line of business by reason of retirement or disability.

For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1), any partner who performs services for a partnership is considered employed by the partnership. In addition, any use by the spouse or dependent child (as defined in paragraph (b)(5) of this section) of the employee will be treated as use by the employee. For purposes of section 132(a)(1) (relating to no-additional-cost services), any use of air transportation by a parent of an employee (determined without regard to section 132(f)(1)(B) and paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section) will be treated as use by the employee.

(2) Working condition fringes. For purposes of section 132(a)(3) (relating to working condition fringes), the term “employee” means—

(i) Any individual who is currently employed by the employer,

(ii) Any partner who performs services for the partnership,

(iii) Any director of the employer, and

(iv) Any independent contractor who performs services for the employer.

Notwithstanding anything in this paragraph (b)(2) to the contrary, an independent contractor who performs services for the employer cannot exclude the value of parking or the use of consumer goods provided pursuant to a product testing program under § 1.132-5(n); in addition, any director of the employer cannot exclude the value of the use of consumer goods provided pursuant to a product testing program under § 1.132-5(n).

(3) On-premises athletic facilities. For purposes of section 132(h)(5) (relating to on-premises athletic facilities), the term “employee” means—

(i) Any individual who is currently employed by the employer,

(ii) Any individual who was formerly employed by the employer and who separated from service with the employer by reason of retirement or disability, and

(iii) Any widow or widower of an individual who died while employed by the employer or who separated from service with the employer by reason of retirement or disability.

For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3), any partner who performs services for a partnership is considered employed by the partnership. In addition, any use by the spouse or dependent child (as defined in paragraph (b)(5) of this section) of the employee will be treated as use by the employee.

(4) De minimis fringes. For purposes of section 132(a)(4) (relating to de minimis fringes), the term “employee” means any recipient of a fringe benefit.

(5) Dependent child. The term “dependent child” means any son, stepson, daughter, or stepdaughter of the employee who is a dependent of the employee, or both of whose parents are deceased and who has not attained age 25. Any child to whom section 152(e) applies will be treated as the dependent of both parents.

(c) Special rules for employers—Effect of section 414. All employees treated as employed by a single employer under section 414 (b), (c), (m), or (o) will be treated as employed by a single employer for purposes of this section. Thus, employees of one corporation that is part of a controlled group of corporations may under certain circumstances be eligible to receive section 132 benefits from the other corporations that comprise the controlled group. However, the aggregation of employers described in this paragraph (c) does not change the other requirements for an exclusion, such as the line of business requirement. Thus, for example, if a controlled group of corporations consists of two corporations that operate in different lines of business, the corporations are not treated as operating in the same line of business even though the corporations are treated as one employer.

(d) Customers not to include employees. For purposes of section 132 and the regulations thereunder, the term “customer” means any customer who is not an employee. However, the preceding sentence does not apply to section 132(c)(2) (relating to the gross profit percentage for determining a qualified employee discount). Thus, an employer that provides employee discounts cannot exclude sales made to employees in determining the aggregate sales to customers.

(e) Treatment of on-premises athletic facilities—(1) In general. Gross income does not include the value of any on-premises athletic facility provided by an employer to its employees. For purposes of section 132(h)(5) and this paragraph (e), the term “on-premises athletic facility” means any gym or other athletic facility (such as a pool, tennis court, or golf course)—

(i) Which is located on the premises of the employer, (ii) Which is operated by the employer, and (iii) Substantially all of the use of which during the calendar year is by employees of the employer, their spouses, and their dependent children.

For purposes of paragraph (e) (1) (iii) of this section, the term “dependent children” has the same meaning as the plural of the term “dependent child” in paragraph (b)(5) of this section. The exclusion of this paragraph (e) does not apply to any athletic facility if access to the facility is made available to the general public through the sale of memberships, the rental of the facility, or a similar arrangement.

(2) Premises of the employer. The athletic facility need not be located on the employer's business premises. However, the athletic facility must be located on premises of the employer. The exclusion provided in this paragraph (e) applies whether the premises are owned or leased by the employer; in addition, the exclusion is available even if the employer is not a named lessee on the lease so long as the employer pays reasonable rent. The exclusion provided in this paragraph (e) does not apply to any athletic facility that is a facility for residential use. Thus, for example, a resort with accompanying athletic facilities (such as tennis courts, pool, and gym) would not qualify for the exclusion provided in this paragraph (e). An athletic facility is considered to be located on the employer's premises if the facility is located on the premises of a voluntary employees' beneficiary association funded by the employer.

(3) Application of rules to membership in an athletic facility. The exclusion provided in this paragraph (e) does not apply to any membership in an athletic facility (including health clubs or country clubs) unless the facility is owned (or leased) and operated by the employer and substantially all the use of the facility is by employees of the employer, their spouses, and their dependent children. Therefore, membership in a health club or country club not meeting the rules provided in this paragraph (e) would not qualify for the exclusion.

(4) Operation by the employer. An employer is considered to operate the athletic facility if the employer operates the facility through its own employees, or if the employer contracts out to another to operate the athletic facility. For example, if an employer hires an independent contractor to operate the athletic facility for the employer's employees, the facility is considered to be operated by the employer. In addition, if an athletic facility is operated by more than one employer, it is considered to be operated by each employer. For purposes of paragraph (e) (1) (iii) of this section, substantially all of the use of a facility that is operated by more than one employer must be by employees of the various employers, their spouses, and their dependent children. Where the facility is operated by more than one employer, an employer that pays rent either directly to the owner of the premises or to a sublessor of the premises is eligible for the exclusion. If an athletic facility is operated by a voluntary employees' beneficiary association funded by an employer, the employer is considered to operate the facility.

(5) Nonapplicability of nondiscrimination rules. The nondiscrimination rules of section 132 and § 1.132-8 do not apply to on-premises athletic facilities.

(f) Nonapplicability of section 132 in certain cases—(1) Tax treatment provided for in another section. If the tax treatment or a particular fringe benefit is expressly provided for in another section of Chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, section 132 and the applicable regulations (except for section 132 (e) and the regulations thereunder) do not apply to such fringe benefit. For example, because section 129 provides an exclusion from gross income for amounts paid or incurred by an employer for dependent care assistance for an employee, the exclusions under section 132 and this section do not apply to the provision by an employer to an employee of dependent care assistance. Similarly, because section 117 (d) applies to tuition reductions, the exclusions under section 132 do not apply to free or discounted tuition provided to an employee by an organization operated by the employer, whether the tuition is for study at or below the graduate level. Of course, if the amounts paid by the employer are for education relating to the employee's trade or business of being an employee of the employer so that, if the employee paid for the education, the amount paid could be deducted under section 162, the costs of the education may be eligible for exclusion as a working condition fringe.

(2) Limited statutory exclusions. If another section of Chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 provides an exclusion from gross income based on the cost of the benefit provided to the employee and such exclusion is a limited amount, section 132 and the regulations thereunder may apply to the extent the cost of the benefit exceeds the statutory exclusion.

(g) Effective date. Sections 1.132-0, 1.132-1, 1.132-2, 1.132-3, 1.132-4, 1.132-5, 1.132-6, 1.132-7 and 1.132-8 are effective as of January 1, 1989, except that §§ 1.132-1(b)(1) with respect to the use of air transportation by a parent of an employee and 1.132-4(d) are effective as of January 1, 1985. Furthermore, in § 1.132-5, the eleventh sentence of paragraph (m)(1), Examples 6 and 7 in paragraph (m)(8), and paragraphs (m)(2)(i), (m)(2)(v), (m)(3)(iv), (m)(6), (m)(7), and (r) are effective December 30, 1992; however, taxpayers may treat the rules as applicable to benefits provided on or after January 1, 1989. For the applicable rules relating to employer-provided transportation for security concerns prior to December 30, 1992, see § 1.132-5(m) (as contained in 26 CFR part 1 (§§ 1.61 to 1.169) revised April 1, 1992). In addition, references to § 1.274-5(k)(9) in § 1.132-5(h) are applicable as of March 20, 2026.

[T.D. 8256, 54 FR 28601, July 6, 1989, as amended by T.D. 8457, 57 FR 62196, Dec. 30, 1992; 58 FR 7296, Feb. 5, 1993; T.D. 9849, 84 FR 9233, Mar. 14, 2019; T.D. 10043, 91 FR 13502, Mar. 20, 2026]

§ 1.132-2 No-additional-cost services.

(a) In general—(1) Definition. Gross income does not include the value of a no-additional-cost service. A “no-additional-cost service” is any service provided by an employer to an employee for the employee's personal use if—

(i) The service is offered for sale by the employer to its customers in the ordinary course of the line of business of the employer in which the employee performs substantial services, and

(ii) The employer incurs no substantial additional cost in providing the service to the employee (including foregone revenue and excluding any amount paid by or on behalf of the employee for the service).

For rules relating to the line of business limitation, see § 1.132-4. For purposes of this section, a service will not be considered to be offered for sale by the employer to its customers if that service is primarily provided to employees and not to the employer's customers.

(2) Excess capacity services. Services that are eligible for treatment as no-additional-cost services include excess capacity services such as hotel accommodations; transportation by aircraft, train, bus, subway, or cruise line; and telephone services. Services that are not eligible for treatment as no-additional-cost services are non-excess capacity services such as the facilitation by a stock brokerage firm of the purchase of stock. Employees who receive non-excess capacity services may, however, be eligible for a qualified employee discount of up to 20 percent of the value of the service provided. See § 1.132-3.

(3) Cash rebates. The exclusion for a no-additional-cost service applies whether the service is provided at no charge or at a reduced price. The exclusion also applies if the benefit is provided through a partial or total cash rebate of an amount paid for the service.

(4) Applicability of nondiscrimination rules. The exclusion for a no-additional-cost service applies to highly compensated employees only if the service is available on substantially the same terms to each member of a group of employees that is defined under a reasonable classification set up by the employer that does not discriminate in favor of highly compensated employees. See § 1.132-8.

(5) No substantial additional cost—(i) In general. The exclusion for a no-additional-cost service applies only if the employer does not incur substantial additional cost in providing the service to the employee. For purposes of the preceding sentence, the term “cost” includes revenue that is forgone because the service is provided to an employee rather than a nonemployee. (For purposes of determining whether any revenue is forgone, it is assumed that the employee would not have purchased the service unless it were available to the employee at the actual price charged to the employee.) Whether an employer incurs substantial additional cost must be determined without regard to any amount paid by the employee for the service. Thus, any reimbursement by the employee for the cost of providing the service does not affect the determination of whether the employer incurs substantial additional cost.

(ii) Labor intensive services. An employer must include the cost of labor incurred in providing services to employees when determining whether the employer has incurred substantial additional cost. An employer incurs substantial additional cost, whether non-labor costs are incurred, if a substantial amount of time is spent by the employer or its employees in providing the service to employees. This would be the result whether the time spent by the employer or its employees in providing the services would have been “idle,” or if the services were provided outside normal business hours. An employer generally incurs no substantial additional cost, however, if the services provided to the employee are merely incidental to the primary service being provided by the employer. For example, the in-flight services of a flight attendant and the cost of in-flight meals provided to airline employees traveling on a space-available basis are merely incidental to the primary service being provided (i.e., air transportation). Similarly, maid service provided to hotel employees renting hotel rooms on a space-available basis is merely incidental to the primary service being provided (i.e., hotel accommodations).

(6) Payments for telephone service. Payment made by an entity subject to the modified final judgment (as defined in section 559(c)(5) of the Tax Reform Act of 1984) of all or part of the cost of local telephone service provided to an employee by a person other than an entity subject to the modified final judgment shall be treated as telephone service provided to the employee by the entity making the payment for purposes of this section. The preceding sentence also applies to a rebate of the amount paid by the employee for the service and a payment to the person providing the service. This paragraph (a)(6) applies only to services and employees described in § 1.132-4 (c). For a special line of business rule relating to such services and employees, see § 1.132-4 (c).

(b) Reciprocal agreements. For purposes of the exclusion from gross income for a no-additional-cost service, an exclusion is available to an employee of one employer for a no-additional-cost service provided by an unrelated employer only if all of the following requirements are satisfied—

(1) The service provided to such employee by the unrelated employer is the same type of service generally provided to nonemployee customers by both the line of business in which the employee works and the line of business in which the service is provided to such employee (so that the employee would be permitted to exclude from gross income the value of the service if such service were provided directly by the employee's employer);

(2) Both employers are parties to a written reciprocal agreement under which a group of employees of each employer, all of whom perform substantial services in the same line of business, may receive no-additional-cost services from the other employer; and

(3) Neither employer incurs any substantial additional cost (including forgone revenue) in providing such service to the employees of the other employer, or pursuant to such agreement. If one employer receives a substantial payment from the other employer with respect to the reciprocal agreement, the paying employer will be considered to have incurred a substantial additional cost pursuant to the agreement, and consequently services performed under the reciprocal agreement will not qualify for exclusion as no-additional-cost services.

(c) Example. The rules of this section are illustrated by the following example:

Example.

Assume that a commercial airline permits its employees to take personal flights on the airline at no charge and receive reserved seating. Because the employer forgoes potential revenue by permitting the employees to reserve seats, employees receiving such free flights are not eligible for the no-additional-cost exclusion.

[T.D. 8256, 54 FR 28602, July 6, 1989]

§ 1.132-3 Qualified employee discounts.

(a) In general—(1) Definition. Gross income does not include the value of a qualified employee discount. A “qualified employee discount” is any employee discount with respect to qualified property or services provided by an employer to an employee for use by the employee to the extent the discount does not exceed—

(i) The gross profit percentage multiplied by the price at which the property is offered to customers in the ordinary course of the employer's line of business, for discounts on property, or

(ii) Twenty percent of the price at which the service is offered to customers, for discounts on services.

(2) Qualified property or services—(i) In general. The term “qualified property or services” means any property or services that are offered for sale to customers in the ordinary course of the line of business of the employer in which the employee performs substantial services. For rules relating to the line of business limitation, see § 1.132-4.

(ii) Exception for certain property. The term “qualified property” does not include real property and it does not include personal property (whether tangible or intangible) of a kind commonly held for investment. Thus, an employee may not exclude from gross income the amount of an employee discount provided on the purchase of securities, commodities, or currency, or of either residential or commercial real estate, whether or not the particular purchase is made for investment purposes.

(iii) Property and services not offered in ordinary course of business. The term “qualified property or services” does not include any property or services of a kind that is not offered for sale to customers in the ordinary course of the line of business of the employer. For example, employee discounts provided on property or services that are offered for sale primarily to employees and their families (such as merchandise sold at an employee store or through an employer-provided catalog service) may not be excluded from gross income. For rules relating to employer-operated eating facilities, see § 1.132-7, and for rules relating to employer-operated on-premises athletic facilities, see § 1.132-1(e).

(3) No reciprocal agreement exception. The exclusion for a qualified employee discount does not apply to property or services provided by another employer pursuant to a written reciprocal agreement that exists between employers to provide discounts on property and services to employees of the other employer.

(4) Property or services provided without charge, at a reduced price, or by rebates. The exclusion for a qualified employee discount applies whether the property or service is provided at no charge (in which case only part of the discount may be excludable as a qualified employee discount) or at a reduced price. The exclusion also applies if the benefit is provided through a partial or total cash rebate of an amount paid for the property or service.

(5) Property or services provided directly by the employer or indirectly through a third party. A qualified employee discount may be provided either directly by the employer or indirectly through a third party. For example, an employee of an appliance manufacturer may receive a qualified employee discount on the manufacturer's appliances purchased at a retail store that offers such appliances for sale to customers. The employee may exclude the amount of the qualified employee discount whether the employee is provided the appliance at no charge or purchases it at a reduced price, or whether the employee receives a partial or total cash rebate from either the employer-manufacturer or the retailer. If an employee receives additional rights associated with the property that are not provided by the employee's employer to customers in the ordinary course of the line of business in which the employee performs substantial services (such as the right to return or exchange the property or special warranty rights), the employee may only receive a qualified employee discount with respect to the property and not the additional rights. Receipt of such additional rights may occur, for example, when an employee of a manufacturer purchases property manufactured by the employee's employer at a retail outlet.

(6) Applicability of nondiscrimination rules. The exclusion for a qualified employee discount applies to highly compensated employees only if the discount is available on substantially the same terms to each member of a group of employees that is defined under a reasonable classification set up by the employer that does not discriminate in favor of highly compensated employees. See § 1.132-8.

(b) Employee discount—(1) Definition. The term “employee discount” means the excess of—

(i) The price at which the property or service is being offered by the employer for sale to customers, over

(ii) The price at which the property or service is provided by the employer to an employee for use by the employee. A transfer of property by an employee without consideration is treated as use by the employee for purposes of this section. Thus, for example, if an employee receives a discount on property offered for sale by his employer to customers and the employee makes a gift of the property to his parent, the property will be considered to be provided for use by the employee; thus, the discount will be eligible for exclusion as a qualified employee discount.

(2) Price to customers—(i) Determined at time of sale. In determining the amount of an employee discount, the price at which the property or service is being offered to customers at the time of the employee's purchase is controlling. For example, assume that an employer offers a product to customers for $20 during the first six months of a calendar year, but at the time the employee purchases the product at a discount, the price at which the product is being offered to customers is $25. In this case, the price from which the employee discount is measured is $25. Assume instead that, at the time the employee purchases the product at a discount, the price at which the product is being offered to customers is $15 and the price charged the employee is $12. The employee discount is measured from $15, the price at which the product is offered for sale to customers at the time of the employee purchase. Thus, the employee discount is $15 −$12, or $3.

(ii) Quantity discount not reflected. The price at which a property or service is being offered to customers cannot reflect any quantity discount unless the employee actually purchases the requisite quantity of the property or service.

(iii) Price to employer's customers controls. In determining the amount of an employee discount, the price at which a property or service is offered to customers of the employee's employer is controlling. Thus, the price at which the property is sold to the wholesale customers of a manufacturer will generally be lower than the price at which the same property is sold to the customers of a retailer. However, see paragraph (a)(5) of this section regarding the effect of a wholesaler providing to its employees additional rights not provided to customers of the wholesaler in the ordinary course of its business.

(iv) Discounts to discrete customer or consumer groups. Subject to paragraph (2)(ii) of this section, if an employer offers for sale property or services at one or more discounted prices to discrete customer or consumer groups, and sales at all such discounted prices comprise at least 35 percent of the employer's gross sales for a representative period, then in determining the amount of an employee discount, the price at which such property or service is being offered to customers for purposes of this section is a discounted price. The applicable discounted price is the current undiscounted price, reduced by the percentage discount at which the greatest percentage of the employer's discounted gross sales are made for such representative period. If sales at different percentage discounts equal the same percentage of the employer's gross sales, the price at which the property or service is being provided to customers may be reduced by the average of the discounts offered to each of the two groups. For purposes of this section, a representative period is the taxable year of the employer immediately preceding the taxable year in which the property or service is provided to the employee at a discount. If more than one employer would be aggregated under section 414 (b), (c), (m), or (o), and not all of the employers have the same taxable year, the employers required to be aggregated must designate the 12-month period to be used in determining gross sales for a representative period. The 12-month period designated, however, must be used on a consistent basis.

(v) Examples. The rules provided in this paragraph (b)(2) are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

Assume that a wholesale employer offers property for sale to two discrete customer groups at differing prices. Assume further that during the prior taxable year of the employer, 70 percent of the employer's gross sales are made at a 15 percent discount and 30 percent at no discount. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), the current undiscounted price at which the property or service is being offered by the employer for sale to customers may be reduced by the 15 percent discount.

Example 2.

Assume that a retail employer offers a 20 percent discount to members of the American Bar Association, a 15 percent discount to members of the American Medical Association, and a ten percent discount to employees of the Federal Government. Assume further that during the prior taxable year of the employer, sales to American Bar Association members equal 15 percent of the employer's gross sales, sales to American Medical Association members equal 20 percent of the employer's gross sales, and sales to Federal Government employees equal 25 percent of the employer's gross sales. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), the current undiscounted price at which the property or service is being offered by the employer for sale to customers may be reduced by the ten percent Federal Government discount.

(3) Damaged, distressed, or returned goods. If an employee pays at least fair market value for damaged, distressed, or returned property, such employee will not have income attributable to such purchase.

(c) Gross profit percentage—(1) In general—(i) General rule. An exclusion from gross income for an employee discount on qualified property is limited to the price at which the property is being offered to customers in the ordinary course of the employer's line of business, multiplied by the employer's gross profit percentage. The term “gross profit percentage” means the excess of the aggregate sales price of the property sold by the employer to customers (including employees) over the employer's aggregate cost of the property, then divided by the aggregate sales price.

(ii) Calculation of gross profit percentage. The gross profit percentage must be calculated separately for each line of business based on the aggregate sales price and aggregate cost of property in that line of business for a representative period. For purposes of this section, a representative period is the taxable year of the employer immediately preceding the taxable year in which the discount is available. For example, if the aggregate amount of sales of property in an employer's line of business for the prior taxable year was $800,000, and the aggregate cost of the property for the year was $600,000, the gross profit percentage would be 25 percent ($800,000 minus $600,000, then divided by $800,000). If two or more employers are required to aggregate under section 414 (b), (c), (m), or (o) (aggregated employer), and if all of the aggregated employers do not share the same taxable year, then the aggregated employers must designate the 12-month period to be used in determining the gross profit percentage. The 12-month period designated, however, must be used on a consistent basis. If an employee performs substantial services in more than one line of business, the gross profit percentage of the line of business in which the property is sold determines the amount of the excludable employee discount.

(iii) Special rule for employers in their first year of existence. An employer in its first year of existence may estimate the gross profit percentage of a line of business based on its mark-up from cost. Alternatively, an employer in its first year of existence may determine the gross profit percentage by reference to an appropriate industry average.

(iv) Redetermination of gross profit percentage. If substantial changes in an employer's business indicate at any time that it is inappropriate for the prior year's gross profit percentage to be used for the current year, the employer must, within a reasonable period, redetermine the gross profit percentage for the remaining portion of the current year as if such portion of the year were the first year of the employer's existence.

(2) Line of business. In general, an employer must determine the gross profit percentage on the basis of all property offered to customers (including employees) in each separate line of business. An employer may instead select a classification of property that is narrower than the applicable line of business. However, the classification must be reasonable. For example, if an employer computes gross profit percentage according to the department in which products are sold, such classification is reasonable. Similarly, it is reasonable to compute gross profit percentage on the basis of the type of merchandise sold (such as high mark-up and low mark-up classifications). It is not reasonable, however, for an employer to classify certain low mark-up products preferred by certain employees (such as highly compensated employees) with high mark-up products or to classify certain high mark-up products preferred by other employees with low mark-up products.

(3) Generally accepted accounting principles. In general, the aggregate sales price of property must be determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles. An employer must compute the aggregate cost of property in the same manner in which it is computed for the employer's Federal income tax liability; thus, for example, section 263A and the regulations thereunder apply in determining the cost of property.

(d) Treatment of leased sections of department stores—(1) In general—(i) General rule. For purposes of determining whether employees of a leased section of a department store may receive qualified employee discounts at the department store and whether employees of the department store may receive qualified employee discounts at the leased section of the department store, the leased section is treated as part of the line of business of the person operating the department store, and employees of the leased section are treated as employees of the person operating the department store as well as employees of their employer. The term “leased section of a department store” means a section of a department store where substantially all of the gross receipts of the leased section are from over-the-counter sales of property made under a lease, license, or similar arrangement where it appears to the general public that individuals making such sales are employed by the department store. A leased section of a department store which, in connection with the offering of beautician services, customarily makes sales of beauty aids in the ordinary course of business is deemed to derive substantially all of its gross receipts from over-the-counter sales of property.

(ii) Calculation of gross profit percentage. For purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, when calculating the gross profit percentage of property and services sold at a department store, sales of property and services sold at the department store, as well as sales of property and services sold at the leased section, are considered. The rule provided in the preceding sentence does not apply, however, if it is more reasonable to calculate the gross profit percentage for the department store and leased section separately, or if it would be inappropriate to combine them (such as where either the department store or the leased section but not both provides employee discounts).

(2) Employees of the leased section—(i) Definition. For purposes of this paragraph (d), “employees of the leased section” means all employees who perform substantial services at the leased section of the department store regardless of whether the employees engage in over-the-counter sales of property or services. The term “employee” has the same meaning as in section 132(f) and § 1.132-1(b)(1).

(ii) Discounts offered to either department store employees or employees of the leased section. If the requrements of this paragraph (d) are satisfied, employees of the leased section may receive qualified employee discounts at the department store whether or not employees of the department store are offered discounts at the leased section. Similarly, employees of the department store may receive a qualified employee discount at the leased section whether or not employees of the leased section are offered discounts at the department store.

(e) Excess discounts. Unless excludable under a provision of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 other than section 132(a)(2), an employee discount provided on property is excludable to the extent of the gross profit percentage multiplied by the price at which the property is being offered for sale to customers. If an employee discount exceeds the gross profit percentage, the excess discount is includible in the employee's income. For example, if the discount on employer-purchased property is 30 percent and the employer's gross profit percentage for the period in the relevant line of business is 25 percent, then 5 percent of the price at which the property is being offered for sale to customers is includible in the empoyee's income. With respect to services, an employee discount of up to 20 percent may be excludable. If an employee discount exceeds 20 percent, the excess discount is includible in the employee's income. For example, assume that a commercial airline provides a pass to each of its employees permitting the employees to obtain a free round-trip coach ticket with a confirmed seat to any destination the airline services. Neither the exclusion of section 132(a)(1) (relating to no-additional-cost services) nor any other statutory exclusion applies to a flight taken primarily for personal purposes by an employee under this program. However, an employee discount of up to 20 percent may be excluded as a qualified employee discount. Thus, if the price charged to customers for the flight taken is $300 (under restrictions comparable to those actually placed on travel associated with the employee airline ticket), $60 is excludible from gross income as a qualified employee discount and $240 is includible in gross income.

[T.D. 8256, 54 FR 28603, July 6, 1989]

§ 1.132-4 Line of business limitation.

(a) In general—(1) Applicability—(i) General rule. A no-additional-cost service or a qualified employee discount provided to an employee is only available with respect to property or services that are offered for sale to customers in the ordinary course of the same line of business in which the employee receiving the property or service performs substantial services. Thus, an employee who does not perform substantial services in a particular line of business of the employer may not exclude from income under section 132 (a)(1) or (a)(2) the value of services or employee discounts received on property or services in that line of business. For rules that relax the line of business requirement, see paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section.

(ii) Property and services sold to employees rather than customers. Because the property or services must be offered for sale to customers in the ordinary course of the same line of business in which the employee performs substantial services, the line of business limitation is not satisfied if the employer's products or services are sold primarily to employees of the employer, rather than to customers. Thus, for example, an employer in the banking line of business is not considered in the variety store line of business if the employer establishes an employee store that offers variety store items for sale to the employer's employees. See § 1.132-7 for rules relating to employer-operated eating facilities, and see § 1.132-1(e) for rules relating to employer-operated on-premises athletic facilities.

(iii) Performance of substantial services in more than one line of business. An employee who performs services in more than one of the employer's lines of business may only exclude no-additional-cost services and qualified employee discounts in the lines of business in which the employee performs substantial services.

(iv) Performance of services that directly benefit more than one line of business—(A) In general. An employee who performs substantial services that directly benefit more than one line of business of an employer is treated as performing substantial services in all such line of business. For example, an employee who maintains accounting records for an employer's three lines of business may receive qualified employee discounts in all three lines of business. Similarly, if an employee of a minor line of business of an employer that is significantly interrelated with a major line of business of the employer performs substantial services that directly benefit both the major and the minor lines of business, the employee is treated as performing substantial services for both the major and the minor lines of business.

(B) Examples. The rules provided in this paragraph (a)(1)(iv) are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

Assume that employees of units of an employer provide repair or financing services, or sell by catalog, with respect to retail merchandise sold by the employer. Such employees may be considered to perform substantial services for the retail merchandise line of business under paragraph (a)(1)(iv)(A) of this section.

Example 2.

Assume that an employer operates a hospital and a laundry service. Assume further that some of the gross receipts of the laundry service line of business are from laundry services sold to customers other than the hospital employer. Only the employees of the laundry service who perform substantial services which directly benefit the hospital line of business (through the provision of laundry services to the hospital) will be treated as performing substantial services for the hospital line of business. Other employees of the laundry service line of business will not be treated as employees of the hospital line of business.

Example 3.

Assume the same facts as in example (2), except that the employer also operates a chain of dry cleaning stores. Employees who perform substantial services which directly benefit the dry cleaning stores but who do not perform substantial services that directly benefit the hospital line of business will not be treated as performing substantial services for the hospital line of business.

(2) Definition—(i) In general. An employer's line of business is determined by reference to the Enterprise Standard Industrial Classification Manual (ESIC Manual) prepared by the Statistical Policy Division of the U.S. Office of Management and Budget. An employer is considered to have more than one line of business if the employer offers for sale to customers property or services in more than one two-digit code classification referred to in the ESIC Manual.

(ii) Examples. Examples of two-digit classifications are general retail merchandise stores; hotels and other lodging places; auto repair, services, and garages; and food stores.

(3) Aggregation of two-digit classifications. If, pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section, an employer has more than one line of business, such lines of business will be treated as a single line of business where and to the extent that one or more of the following aggregation rules apply:

(i) If it is uncommon in the industry of the employer for any of the separate lines of business of the employer to be operated without the others, the separate lines of business are treated as one line of business.

(ii) If it is common for a substantial number of employees (other than those employees who work at the headquarters or main office of the employer) to perform substantial services for more than one line of business of the employer, so that determination of which employees perform substantial services for which line or lines of business would be difficult, then the separate lines of business of the employer in which such employees perform substantial services are treated as one line of business. For example, assume that an employer operates a delicatessen with an attached service counter at which food is sold for consumption on the premises. Assume further that most but not all employees work both at the delicatessen and at the service counter. Under the aggregation rule of this paragraph (a)(3)(ii), the delicatessen and the service counter are treated as one line of business.

(iii) If the retail operations of an employer that are located on the same premises are in separate lines of business but would be considered to be within one line of business under paragraph (a)(2) of this section if the merchandise offered for sale in such lines of business were offered for sale at a department store, then the operations are treated as one line of business. For example, assume that on the same premises an employer sells both women's apparel and jewelry. Because, if sold together at a department store, the operations would be part of the same line of business, the operations are treated as one line of business.

(b) Grandfather rule for certain retail stores—(1) In general. The line of business limitation may be relaxed under the special grandfather rule of this paragraph (b). Under this special grandfather rule, if—

(i) On October 5, 1983, at least 85 percent of the employees of one member of an affiliated group (as defined in section 1504 without regard to subsections (b)(2) and (b)(4) thereof) (“first member”) were entitled to receive employee discounts at retail department stores operated by another member of the affiliated group (“second member”), and

(ii) More than 50 percent of the previous year's sales of the affiliated group are attributable to the operation of retail department stores, then, for purposes of the exclusion from gross income of a qualified employee discount, the first member is treated as engaged in the same line of business as the second member (the opeator of the retail department stores). Therefore, employees of the first member of the affiliated group may exclude from income qualified employee discounts received at the retail department stores operated by the second member. However, employees of the second member of the affiliated group may not under this paragraph (b)(1) exclude any discounts received on property or services offered for sale to customers by the first member of the affiliated group.

(2) Taxable year of affiliated group. If not all of the members of an affiliated group have the same taxable year, the affiliated group must designate the 12-month period to be used in determining the “previous year's sales” (as referred to in the grandfather rule of this paragraph (b)). The 12-month period designated, however, must be used on a consistent basis.

(3) Definition of “sales.” For purposes of this paragraph (b), the term “sales” means the gross receipts of an affiliated group, based upon the accounting methods used by its members.

(4) Retired and disabled employees. For purposes of this paragraph (b), an employee includes any individual who was, or whose spouse was, formerly employed by the first member of an affiliated group and who separated from service with the member by reason of retirement or disability if the second member of the group provided employee discounts to that individual on October 5, 1983.

(5) Increase of employee discount. If, after October 5, 1983, the employee discount described in this paragraph (b) is increased, the grandfather rule of this paragraph (b) does not apply to the amount of the increase. For example, if on January 1, 1989, the employee discount is increased from 10 percent to 15 percent, the grandfather rule will not apply to the additional 5 percent discount.

(c) Grandfather rule for telephone service provided to predivestiture retirees. All entities subject to the modified final judgment (as defined in section 559(c)(5) of the Tax Reform Act of 1984) shall be treated as a single employer engaged in the same line of business for purposes of determining whether telephone service provided to certain employees is a no-additional-cost service. The preceding sentence applies only in the case of an employee who by reason of retirement or disability separated before January 1, 1984, from the service of an entity subject to the modified final judgment. This paragraph (c) only applies to services provided to such employees as of January 1, 1984. For a special no-additional-cost service rule relating to such employees and such services, see § 1.132-2(a)(6).

(d) Special rule for certain affiliates of commercial airlines—(1) General rule. If a qualified affiliate is a member of an airline affiliated group and employees of the qualified affiliate who are directly engaged in providing airline-related services are entitled to no-additional-cost service with respect to air transportation provided by such other member, then, for purposes of applying § 1.132-2 (relating to no-additional-cost services with respect to such air transportation), such qualified affiliate shall be treated as engaged in the same line of business as such other member.

(2) “Airline affiliated group” defined. An “airline affiliated group” is an affiliated group (as defined in section 1504 (a)) one of whose members operates a commercial airline that provides air transportation to customers on a per-seat basis.

(3) “Qualified affiliate” defined. A “qualified affiliate” is any corporation that is predominantly engaged in providing airline-related services. The term “airline-related services” means any of the following services provided in connection with air transportation:

(i) Catering,

(ii) Baggage handling,

(iii) Ticketing and reservations,

(iv) Flight planning and weather analysis, and

(v) Restaurants and gift shops located at an airport.

(e) Grandfather rule for affiliated groups operating airlines. The line of business limitation may be relaxed under the special grandfather rule of this paragraph (e). Under this special grandfather rule, if, as of September 12, 1984—

(1) An individual—

(i) Was an employee (within the meaning of § 1.132-1 (b)) of one member of an affiliated group (as defined in section 1504(a)) (“first corporation”), and

(ii) Was eligible for no-additional-cost services in the form of air transportation provided by another member of such affiliated group (“second corporation”),

(2) At least 50 percent of the individuals performing services for the first corporation were, or had been employees of, or had previously performed services for, the second corporation, and

(3) The primary business of the affiliated group was air transportation of passengers, then, for purposes of applying sections 132(a) (1) and (2), with respect to no-additional-cost services and qualified employee discounts provided after December 31, 1984, for that individual by the second corporation, the first corporation is treated as engaged in the same air transporation line of business as the second corporation. For purposes of the preceding sentence, an employee of the second corporation who is performing services for the first corporation is also treated as an employee of the first corporation.

(f) Special rule for qualified air transportation organizations. A qualified air transportation organization is treated as engaged in the line of business of providing air transportation with respect to any individual who performs services for the organization if those services are peformed primarily for persons engaged in providing air transportation, and are of a kind which (if performed on September 12, 1984) would qualify the individual for no-additional-cost services in the form of air transportation. The term “qualified air transportation organization” means any organization—

(1) If such organization (or a predecessor) was in existence on September 12, 1984,

(2) If such organization is—

(i) A tax-exempt organization under section(c)(6) whose membership is limited to entities engaged in the transportation by air of individuals or property for compensation or hire, or

(ii) Is a corporation all the stock of which is owned entirely by entities described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, and

(3) If such organization is operated in furtherance of the activities of its members or owners.

(g) Relaxation of line of business requirement. The line of business requirement may be relaxed under an elective grandfather rule provided in section 4977. For rules relating to the section 4977 election, see § 54.4977-1T.

(h) Line of business requirement does not expand benefits eligible for exclusion. The line of business requirement limits the benefits eligible for the no-additional-cost service and qualified employee discount exclusions to property or services provided by an employer to its customers in the ordinary course of the line of business of the employer in which the employee performs substantial services. The requirement is intended to ensure that employers do not offer, on a tax-free or reduced basis, property or services to employees that are not offered to the employer's customers, even if the property or services offered to the customers and the employees are within the same line of business (as defined in this section).

[T.D. 8256, 54 FR 28606, July 6, 1989]

§ 1.132-5 Working condition fringes.

(a) In general—(1) Definition. Gross income does not include the value of a working condition fringe. A “working condition fringe” is any property or service provided to an employee of an employer to the extent that, if the employee paid for the property or service, the amount paid would be allowable as a deduction under section 162 or 167.

(i) A service or property offered by an employer in connection with a flexible spending account is not excludable from gross income as a working condition fringe. For purposes of the preceding sentence, a flexible spending account is an agreement (whether or not written) entered into between an employer and an employee that makes available to the employee over a time period a certain level of unspecified non-cash benefits with a pre-determined cash value.

(ii) If, under section 274 or any other section, certain substantiation requirements must be met in order for a deduction under section 162 or 167 to be allowable, then those substantiation requirements apply when determining whether a property or service is excludable as a working condition fringe.

(iii) An amount that would be deductible by the employee under a section other than section 162 or 167, such as section 212, is not a working condition fringe.

(iv) A physical examination program provided by the employer is not excludable as a working condition fringe even if the value of such program might be deductible to the employee under section 213. The previous sentence applies without regard to whether the employer makes the program mandatory to some or all employees.

(v) A cash payment made by an employer to an employee will not qualify as a working condition fringe unless the employer requires the employee to—

(A) Use the payment for expenses in connection with a specific or pre-arranged activity or undertaking for which a deduction is allowable under section 162 or 167,

(B) Verify that the payment is actually used for such expenses, and

(C) Return to the employer any part of the payment not so used.

(vi) The limitation of section 67(a) (relating to the two-percent floor on miscellaneous itemized deductions) is not considered when determining the amount of a working condition fringe. For example, assume that an employer provides a $1,000 cash advance to Employee A and that the conditions of paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section are not satisfied. Even to the extent A uses the allowance for expenses for which a deduction is allowable under section 162 and 167, because such cash payment is not a working condition fringe, section 67(a) applies. The $1,000 payment is includible in A's gross income and subject to income and employment tax withholding. If, however, the conditions of paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section are satisfied with respect to the payment, then the amount of A's working condition fringe is determined without regard to section 67(a). The $1,000 payment is excludible from A's gross income and not subject to income and employment tax reporting and withholding.

(2) Trade or business of the employee—(i) General. If the hypothetical payment for a property or service would be allowable as a deduction with respect to a trade or business of an employee other than the employee's trade or business of being an employee of the employer, it cannot be taken into account for purposes of determining the amount, if any, of the working condition fringe.

(ii) Examples. The rule of paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

Assume that, unrelated to company X's trade or business and unrelated to employee A's trade or business of being an employee of company X, A is a member of the board of directors of company Y. Assume further that company X provides A with air transportation to a company Y board of director's meeting. A may not exclude from gross income the value of the air transportation to the meeting as a working condition fringe. A may, however, deduct such amount under section 162 if the section 162 requirements are satisfied. The result would be the same whether the air transportation was provided in the form of a flight on a commercial airline or a seat on a company X airplane.

Example 2.

Assume the same facts as in example (1) except that A serves on the board of directors of company Z and company Z regularly purchases a significant amount of goods and services from company X. Because of the relationship between Company Z and A's employer, A's membership on Company Z's board of directors is related to A's trade or business of being an employee of Company X. Thus, A may exclude from gross income the value of air transportation to board meetings as a working condition fringe.

Example 3.

Assume the same facts as in example (1) except that A serves on the board of directors of a charitable organization. Assume further that the service by A on the charity's board is substantially related to company X's trade or business. In this case, A may exclude from gross income the value of air transportation to board meetings as a working condition fringe.

Example 4.

Assume the same facts as in example (3) except that company X also provides A with the use of a company X conference room which A uses for monthly meetings relating to the charitable organization. Also assume that A uses company X's copy machine and word processor each month in connection with functions of the charitable organization. Because of the substantial business benefit that company X derives from A's service on the board of the charity, A may exclude as a working condition fringe the value of the use of company X property in connection with the charitable organization.

(b) Vehicle allocation rules—(1) In general—(i) General rule. In general, with respect to an employer-provided vehicle, the amount excludable as a working condition fringe is the amount that would be allowable as a deduction under section 162 or 167 if the employee paid for the availability of the vehicle. For example, assume that the value of the availability of an employer-provided vehicle for a full year is $2,000, without regard to any working condition fringe (i.e., assuming all personal use). Assume Further that the employee drives the vehicle 6,000 miles for his employer's business and 2,000 miles for reasons other than the employer's business. In this situation, the value of the working condition fringe is $2,000 multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the business-use mileage (6,000 miles) and the denominator of which is the total mileage (8,000 miles). Thus, the value of the working condition fringe is $1,500. The total amount includible in the employee's gross income on account of the availability of the vehicle is $500 ($2,000−$1,500). For purposes of this section, the term “vehicle” has the meaning given the term in § 1.61-21(e)(2). Generally, when determining the amount of an employee's working condition fringe, miles accumulated on the vehicle by all employees of the employer during the period in which the vehicle is available to the employee are considered. For example, assume that during the year in which the vehicle is available to the employee in the above example, other employees accumulate 2,000 additional miles on the vehicle (while the employee is not in the automobile). In this case, the value of the working condition fringe is $2,000 multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the business-use mileage by the employee (including all mileage (business and personal) accumulated by other employees) (8,000 miles) and the denominator of which is the total mileage (including all mileage accumulated by other employees) (10,000 miles). Thus, the value of the working condition fringe is $1,600; the total amount includible in the employee's gross income on account of the availability of the vehicle is $400 ($2,000−$1,600). If, however, substantially all of the use of the automobile by other employees in the employer's business is limited to a certain period, such as the last three months of the year, the miles driven by the other employees during that period would not be considered when determining the employee's working condition fringe exclusion. Similarly, miles driven by other employees are not considered if the pattern of use of the employer-provided automobiles is designed to reduce Federal taxes. For example, assume that an employer provides employees A and B each with the availability of an employer-provided automobile and that A uses the automobile assigned to him 80 percent for the employer's business and that B uses the automobile assigned to him 30 percent for the employer's business. If A and B alternate the use of their assigned automobiles each week in such a way as to achieve a reduction in federal taxes, then the employer may count only miles placed on the automobile by the employee to whom the automobile is assigned when determining each employee's working condition fringe.

(ii) Use by an individual other than the employee. For purposes of this section, if the availability of a vehicle to an individual would be taxed to an employee, use of the vehicle by the individual is included in references to use by the employee.

(iii) Provision of an expensive vehicle for personal use. If an employer provides an employee with a vehicle that an employee may use in part for personal purposes, there is no working condition fringe exclusion with respect to the personal miles driven by the employee; if the employee paid for the availability of the vehicle, he would not be entitled to deduct under section 162 or 167 any part of the payment attributable to personal miles. The amount of the inclusion is not affected by the fact that the employee would have chosen the availability of a less expensive vehicle. Moreover, the result is the same even though the decision to provide an expensive rather than an inexpensive vehicle is made by the employer for bona fide noncompensatory business reasons.

(iv) Total value inclusion. In lieu of excluding the value of a working condition fringe with respect of an automobile, an employer using the automobile lease valuation rule of § 1.61-21(d) may include in an employee's gross income the entire Annual Lease Value of the automobile. Any deduction allowable to the employee under section 162 or 167 with respect to the automobile may be taken on the employee's income tax return. The total inclusion rule of this paragraph (b)(1)(iv) is not available if the employer is valuing the use or availability of a vehicle under general valuation principles or a special valuation rule other than the automobile lease valuation rule. See §§ 1.162-25 and 1.162-25T for rules relating to the employee's deduction.

(v) Shared usage. In calculating the working condition fringe benefit exclusion with respect to a vehicle provided for use by more than one employee, an employer shall compute the working condition fringe in a manner consistent with the allocation of the value of the vehicle under section 1.61-21(c)(2)(ii)(B).

(2) Use of different employer-provided vehicles. The working condition fringe exclusion must be applied on a vehicle-by-vehicle basis. For example, assume that automobile Y is available to employee D for 3 days in January and for 5 days in March, and automobile Z is available to D for a week in July. Assume further that the Daily Lease Value, as defined in § 1.61-21(d)(4)(ii), of each automobile is $50. For the eight days of availability of Y in January and March, D uses Y 90 percent for business (by mileage). During July, D uses Z 60 percent for business (by mileage). The value of the working condition fringe is determined separately for each automobile. Therefore, the working condition fringe for Y is $360 ($400 × .90) leaving an income inclusion of $40. The working condition fringe for Z is $210 ($350 × .60), leaving an income inclusion of $140. If the value of the availability of an automobile is determined under the Annual Lease Value rule for one period and Daily Lease Value rule for a second period (see § 1.61-21(d)), the working condition fringe exclusion must be calculated separately for the two periods.

(3) Provision of a vehicle and chauffeur services—(i) General rule. In general, with respect to the value of chauffeur services provided by an employer, the amount excludable as a working condition fringe is the amount that would be allowable as a deduction under section 162 and 167 if the employee paid for the chauffeur services. The working condition fringe with respect to a chauffeur is determined separately from the working condition fringe with respect to the vehicle. An employee may exclude from gross income the excess of the value of the chauffeur services over the value of the chauffeur services for personal purposes (such as commuting) as determined under § 1.61-21(b)(5). See § 1.61-21(b)(5) for additional rules and examples concerning the valuation of chauffeur services. See § 1.132-5(m)(5) for rules relating to an exclusion from gross income for the value of bodyguard/chauffeur services. When determining whether miles placed on the vehicle are for the employer's business, miles placed on the vehicle by a chauffeur between the chauffeur's residence and the place at which the chauffeur picks up (or drops off) the employee are with respect to the employee (but not the chauffeur) considered to be miles placed on the vehicle for the employer's business and thus eligible for the working condition fringe exclusion. Thus, because miles placed on the vehicle by a chauffeur between the chauffeur's residence and the place at which the chauffeur picks up (or drops off) the employee are not considered business miles with respect to the chauffeur, the value of the availability of the vehicle for commuting is includible in the gross income of the chauffeur. For general and special rules concerning the valuation of the use of employer-provided vehicles, see paragraphs (b) through (f) of § 1.61-21.

(ii) Examples. The rules of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

Assume that an employer makes available to an employee an automobile and a chauffeur. Assume further that the value of the chauffeur services determined in accordance with § 1.61-21 is $30,000 and that the chauffeur spends 30 percent of each workday driving the employee for personal purposes. There may be excluded from the employee's income 70 percent of $30,000, or $21,000, leaving an income inclusion with respect to the chauffeur services of $9,000.

Example 2.

Assume that the value of the availability of an employer-provided vehicle for a year is $4,850 and that the value of employer-provided chauffeur services with respect to the vehicle for the year is $20,000. Assume further that 40 percent of the miles placed on the vehicle are for the employer's business and that 60 percent are for other purposes. In addition, assume that the chauffeur spends 25 percent of each workday driving the employee for personal purposes (i.e., 2 hours). The value of the chauffeur services includible in the employee's income is 25 percent of $20,000, or $5,000. The excess of $20,000 over $5,000 or $15,000 is excluded from the employee's income as a working condition fringe. The amount excludable as a working condition fringe with respect to the vehicle is 40 percent of $4,850, or $1,940 and the amount includible is $4,850−$1,940, or $2,910.

(c) Applicability of substantiation requirements of sections 162 and 274(d)—(1) In general. The value of property or services provided to an employee may not be excluded from the employee's gross income as a working condition fringe, by either the employer or the employee, unless the applicable substantiation requirements of either section 274(d) or section 162 (whichever is applicable) and the regulations thereunder are satisfied. The substantiation requirements of section 274(d) apply to an employee even if the requirements of section 274 do not apply to the employee's employer for deduction purposes (such as when the employer is a tax-exempt organization or a governmental unit).

(2) Section 274(d) requirements. The substantiation requirements of section 274(d) are satisfied by “adequate records or sufficient evidence corroborating the [employee's] own statement”. Therefore, such records or evidence provided by the employee, and relied upon by the employer to the extent permitted by the regulations promulgated under section 274(d), will be sufficient to substantiate a working condition fringe exclusion.

(d) Safe harbor substantiation rules—(1) In general. Section 1.274-6T provides that the substantiation requirements of section 274(d) and the regulations thereunder may be satisfied, in certain circumstances, by using one or more of the safe harbor rules prescribed in § 1.274-6T. If the employer uses one of the safe harbor rules prescribed in § 1.274-6T during a period with respect to a vehicle (as defined in § 1.61-21(e)(2)), that rule must be used by the employer to substantiate a working condition fringe exclusion with respect to that vehicle during the period. An employer that is exempt from Federal income tax may still use one of the safe harbor rules (if the requirements of that section are otherwise met during a period) to substantiate a working condition fringe exclusion with respect to a vehicle during the period. If the employer uses one of the methods prescribed in § 1.274-6T during a period with respect to an employer-provided vehicle, that method may be used by an employee to substantiate a working condition fringe exclusion with respect to the same vehicle during the period, as long as the employee includes in gross income the amount allocated to the employee pursuant to § 1.274-6T and this section. (See § 1.61-21(c)(2) for other rules concerning when an employee must include in income the amount determined by the employer.) If, however, the employer uses the safe harbor rule prescribed in § 1.274-6T(a) (2) or (3) and the employee without the employer's knowledge uses the vehicle for purposes other than de minimis personal use (in the case of the rule prescribed in § 1.274-6T(a)(2)), or for purposes other than de minimis personal use and commuting (in the case of the rule prescribed in § 1.274-6T(a)(3)), then the employees must include an additional amount in income for the unauthorized use of the vehicle.

(2) Period for use of safe harbor rules. The rules prescribed in this paragraph (d) assume that the safe harbor rules prescribed in § 1.274-6T are used for a one-year period. Accordingly, references to the value of the availability of a vehicle, amounts excluded as a working condition fringe, etc., are based on a one-year period. If the safe harbor rules prescribed in § 1.274-6T are used for a period of less than a year, the amounts referred to in the previous sentence must be adjusted accordingly. For purposes of this section, the term “personal use” has the same meaning as prescribed in § 1.274-6T (e)(5).

(e) Safe harbor substantiation rule for vehicles not used for personal purposes. For a vehicle described in § 1.274-6T(a)(2) (relating to certain vehicles not used for personal purposes), the working condition fringe exclusion is equal to the value of the availability of the vehicle if the employer uses the method prescribed in § 1.274-6T(a)(2).

(f) Safe harbor substantiation rule for vehicles not available to employees for personal use other than commuting. For a vehicle described in § 1.274-6T(a)(3) (relating to certain vehicles not used for personal purposes other than commuting), the working condition fringe exclusion is equal to the value of the availability of the vehicle for purposes other than commuting if the employer uses the method prescribed in § 1.274-6T(a)(3). This rule applies only if the special rule for valuing commuting use, as prescribed in § 1.61-21(f), is used and the amount determined under the special rule is either included in the employee's income or reimbursed by the employee.

(g) Safe harbor substantiation rule for vehicles used in connection with the business of farming that are available to employees for personal use—(1) In general. For a vehicle described in § 1.274-6T(b) (relating to certain vehicles used in connection with the business of farming), the working condition fringe exclusion is calculated by multiplying the value of the availability of the vehicle by 75 percent.

(2) Vehicles available to more than one individual. If the vehicle is available to more than one individual, the employer must allocate the gross income inclusion attributable to the vehicle (25 percent of the value of the availability of the vehicle) among the employees (and other individuals whose use would not be attributed to an employee) to whom the vehicle was available. This allocation must be done in a reasonable manner to reflect the personal use of the vehicle by the individuals. An amount that would be allocated to a sole proprietor reduces the amounts that may be allocated to employees but is otherwise to be disregarded for purposes of this paragraph (g). For purposes of this paragraph (g), the value of the availability of a vehicle may be calculated as if the vehicle were available to only one employee continuously and without regard to any working condition fringe exclusion.

(3) Examples. The following examples illustrate a reasonable allocation of gross income with respect to an employer-provided vehicle between two employees:

Example 1.

Assume that two farm employees share the use of a vehicle that for a calendar year is regularly used directly in connection with the business of farming and qualifies for use of the rule in § 1.274-6T(b). Employee A uses the vehicle in the morning directly in connection with the business of farming and employee B uses the vehicle in the afternoon directly in connection with the business of farming. Assume further that employee B takes the vehicle home in the evenings and on weekends. The employer should allocate all the income attributable to the availability of the vehicle to employee B.

Example 2.

Assume that for a calendar year, farm employees C and D share the use of a vehicle that is regularly used directly in connection with the business of farming and qualifies for use of the rule in § 1.2.4-6T(b). Assume further that the employees alternate taking the vehicle home in the evening and alternate the availability of the vehicle for personal purposes on weekends. The employer should allocate the income attributable to the availability of the vehicle for personal use (25 percent of the value of the availability of the vehicle) equally between the two employees.

Example 3.

Assume the same facts as in example (2) except that C is the sole proprietor of the farm. Based on these facts, C should allocate the same amount of income to D as was allocated to D in example (2). No other income attributable to the availability of the vehicle for personal use should be allocated.

(h) Qualified nonpersonal use vehicles—(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, 100 percent of the value of the use of a qualified nonpersonal use vehicle (as described in § 1.274-5(k)) is excluded from gross income as a working condition fringe, provided that, in the case of a vehicle described in § 1.274-5(k)(3) through (9), the use of the vehicle conforms to the requirements of 1.274-5(k)(3) through (9).

(2) Shared usage of qualified nonpersonal use vehicles. In general, a working condition fringe under this paragraph (h) is available to the driver and all passengers of a qualified nonpersonal use vehicle. However, a working condition fringe under this paragraph (h) is available only with respect to the driver and not with respect to any passengers of a qualified nonpersonal use vehicle described in § 1.274-5(k)(2)(ii)(L) or (P).

(i) [Reserved]

(j) Application of section 280F. In determining the amount, if any, of an employee's working condition fringe, section 280F and the regulations thereunder do not apply. For example, assume that an employee has available for a calendar year an employer-provided automobile with a fair market value of $28,000. Assume further that the special rule provided in § 1.61-21(d) is used yielding an Annual Lease Value, as defined in § 1.61-21(d), of $7,750, and that all of the employee's use of the automobile is for the employer's business. The employee would be entitled to exclude as a working condition fringe the entire Annual Lease Value, despite the fact that if the employee paid for the availability of the automobile, an income inclusion would be required under § 1.280F-6(d)(1). This paragraph (j) does not affect the applicability of section 280F to the employer with respect to such employer-provided automobile, nor does it affect the applicability of section 274 to either the employer or the employee. For rules concerning substantiation of an employee's working condition fringe, see paragraph (c) of this section.

(k) Aircraft allocation rule. In general, with respect to a flight on an employer-provided aircraft, the amount excludable as a working condition fringe is the amount that would be allowable as a deduction under section 162 or 167 if the employee paid for the flight on the aircraft. For example, if employee P and P's spouse fly on P's employer's airplane primarily for business reasons of P's employer so that P could deduct the expenses relating to the trip to the extent of P's payments, the value of the flights is excludable from gross income as a working condition fringe. However, if P's children accompany P on the trip primarily for personal reasons, the value of the flights by P's children are includible in P's gross income. See § 1.61-21 (g) for special rules for valuing personal flights on employer-provided aircraft.

(l) [Reserved]

(m) Employer-provided transportation for security concerns—(1) In general. The amount of a working condition fringe exclusion with respect to employer-provided transportation is the amount that would be allowable as a deduction under section 162 or 167 if the employee paid for the transportation. Generally, if an employee pays for transportation taken for primarily personal purposes, the employee may not deduct any part of the amount paid. Thus, the employee may not generally exclude the value of employer-provided transportation as a working condition fringe if such transportation is primarily personal. If, however, for bona fide business-oriented security concerns, the employee purchases transportation that provides him or her with additional security, the employee may generally deduct the excess of the amount actually paid for the transportation over the amount the employee would have paid for the same mode of transportation absent the bona fide business-oriented security concerns. This is the case whether or not the employee would have taken the same mode of transportation absent the bona fide business-oriented security concerns. With respect to a vehicle, the phrase “the same mode of transportation” means use of the same vehicle without the additional security aspects, such as bulletproof glass. With respect to air transportation, the phrase “the same mode of transportation” means comparable air transportation. These same rules apply to the determination of an employee's working condition fringe exclusion. For example, if an employer provides an employee with a vehicle for commuting and, because of bona fide business-oriented security concerns, the vehicle is specially designed for security, then the employee may exclude from gross income the value of the special security design as a working condition fringe. The employee may not exclude the value of the commuting from income as a working condition fringe because commuting is a nondeductible personal expense. However, if an independent security study meeting the requirements of paragraph (m)(2)(v) of this section has been performed with respect to a government employee, the government employee may exclude the value of the personal use (other than commuting) of the employer-provided vehicle that the security study determines to be reasonable and necessary for local transportation. Similarly, if an employee travels on a personal trip in an employer-provided aircraft for bona fide business-oriented security concerns, the employee may exclude the excess, if any, of the value of the flight over the amount the employee would have paid for the same mode of transportation, but for the bona fide business-oriented security concerns. Because personal travel is a nondeductible expense, the employee may not exclude the total value of the trip as a working condition fringe.

(2) Demonstration of bona fide business-oriented security concerns—(i) In general. For purposes of this paragraph (m), a bona fide business-oriented security concern exists only if the facts and circumstances establish a specific basis for concern regarding the safety of the employee. A generalized concern for an employee's safety is not a bona fide business-oriented security concern. Once a bona fide business-oriented security concern is determined to exist with respect to a particular employee, the employer must periodically evaluate the situation for purposes of determining whether the bona fide business-oriented security concern still exists. Example of factors indicating a specific basis for concern regarding the safety of an employee are—

(A) A threat of death or kidnapping of, or serious bodily harm to, the employee or a similarly situated employee because of either employee's status as an employee of the employer; or

(B) A recent history of violent terrorist activity (such as bombings) in the geographic area in which the transportation is provided, unless that activity is focused on a group of individuals which does not include the employee (or a similarly situated employee of an employer), or occurs to a significant degree only in a location within the geographic area where the employee does not travel.

(ii) Establishment of overall security program. Notwithstanding anything in paragraph (m)(2)(i) of this section to the contrary, no bona fide business-oriented security concern will be deemed to exist unless the employee's employer establishes to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that an overall security program has been provided with respect to the employee involved. An overall security program is deemed to exist if the requirements of paragraph (m)(2)(iv) of this section are satisfied (relating to an independent security study).

(iii) Overall security program—(A) Defined. An overall security program is one in which security is provided to protect the employee on a 24-hour basis. The employee must be protected while at the employee's residence, while commuting to and from the employee's workplace, and while at the employee's workplace. In addition, the employee must be protected while traveling both at home and away from home, whether for business or personal purposes. An overall security program must include the provision of a bodyguard/chauffeur who is trained in evasive driving techniques; an automobile specially equipped for security; guards, metal detectors, alarms, or similar methods of controlling access to the employee's workplace and residence; and, in appropriate cases, flights on the employer's aircraft for business and personal reasons.

(B) Application. There is no overall security program when, for example, security is provided at the employee's workplace but not at the employee's residence. In addition, the fact that an employer requires an employee to travel on the employer's aircraft, or in an employer-provided vehicle that contains special security features, does not alone constitute an overall security program. The preceding sentence applies regardless of the existence of a corporate or other resolution requiring the employee to travel in the employer's aircraft or vehicle for personal as well as business reasons.

(iv) Effect of an independent security study. An overall security program with respect to an employee is deemed to exist if the conditions of this paragraph (m)(2)(iv) are satisfied:

(A) A security study is performed with respect to the employer and the employee (or a similarly situated employee of the employer) by an independent security consultant;

(B) The security study is based on an objective assessment of all facts and circumstances;

(C) The recommendation of the security study is that an overall security program (as defined in paragraph (m)(2)(iii) of this section) is not necessary and the recommendation is reasonable under the circumstances; and

(D) The employer applies the specific security recommendations contained in the security study to the employee on a consistent basis.

The value of transportation-related security provided pursuant to a security study that meets the requirements of this paragraph (m)(2)(iv) may be excluded from income if the security study conclusions are reasonable and, but for the bona fide business-oriented security concerns, the employee would not have had such security. No exclusion from income applies to security provided by the employer that is not recommended in the security study. Security study conclusions may be reasonable even if, for example, it is recommended that security be limited to certain geographic areas, as in the case in which air travel security is provided only in certain foreign countries.

(v) Independent security study with respect to government employees. For purposes of establishing the existence of an overall security program under paragraph (m)(2)(ii) of this section with respect to a particular government employee, a security study conducted by the government employer (including an agency or instrumentality thereof) will be treated as a security study pursuant to paragraph (m)(2)(iv) of this section if, in lieu of the conditions of paragraphs (m)(2)(iv)(A) through (D) of this section, the following conditions are satisfied:

(A) The security study is conducted by a person expressly designated by the government employer as having the responsibility and independent authority to determine both the need for employer-provided security and the appropriate protective services in response to that determination;

(B) The security study is conducted in accordance with written internal procedures that require an independent and objective assessment of the facts and circumstances, such as the nature of the threat to the employee, the appropriate security response to that threat, an estimate of the length of time protective services will be necessary, and the extent to which employer-provided transportation may be necessary during the period of protection;

(C) With respect to employer-provided transportation, the security study evaluates the extent to which personal use, including commuting, by the employee and the employee's spouse and dependents may be necessary during the period of protection and makes a recommendation as to what would be considered reasonable personal use during that period; and

(D) The employer applies the specific security recommendations contained in the study to the employee on a consistent basis.

(3) Application of security rules to spouses and dependents—(i) In general. If a bona fide business-oriented security concern exists with respect to an employee (because, for example, threats are made on the life of an employee), the bona fide business-oriented security concern is deemed to exist with respect to the employee's spouse and dependents to the extent provided in this paragraph (m)(3).

(ii) Certain transportation. If a working condition fringe exclusion is available under this paragraph (m) for transportation in a vehicle or aircraft provided for a bona fide business-oriented security concern with respect to an employee, the requirements of this paragraph (m) are deemed to be satisfied with respect to transportation in the same vehicle or aircraft provided at the same time to the employee's spouse and dependent children.

(iii) Other. Except as provided in paragraph (m)(3)(ii) of this section, a bona fide business oriented security concern is deemed to exist for the spouse and dependent children of the employer only if the requirements of paragraph (m)(2) (iii) or (iv) of this section are applied independently to such spouse and dependent children.

(iv) Spouses and dependents of government employees. The security rules of this paragraph (m)(3) apply to the spouse and dependents of a government employee. However, the value of local vehicle transportation provided to the government employee's spouse and dependents for personal purposes, other than commuting, during the period that a bona fide business-oriented security concern exists with respect to the government employee will not be included in the government employee's gross income if the personal use is determined to be reasonable and necessary by the security study described in paragraph (m)(2)(v) of this section.

(4) Working condition safe harbor for travel on employer-provided aircraft. Under the safe harbor rule of this paragraph (m)(4), if, for a bona fide business-oriented security concern, the employer requires that an employee travel on an employer-provided aircraft for a personal trip, the employer and the employee may exclude from the employee's gross income, as a working condition fringe, the excess value of the aircraft trip over the safe harbor airfare without having to show what method of transportation the employee would have flown but for the bona fide business-oriented security concern. For purposes of the safe harbor rule of this paragraph (m)(4), the value of the safe harbor airfare is determined under the non-commercial flight valuation rule of § 1.61-21(g) (regardless of whether the employer or employee elects to use such valuation rule) by multiplying an aircraft multiple of 200-percent by the applicable cents-per-mile rates and the number of miles in the flight and then adding the applicable terminal charge. The value of the safe harbor airfare determined under this paragraph (m)(4) must be included in the employee's income (to the extent not reimbursed by the employee) regardless of whether the employee or the employer uses the special valuation rule of § 1.61-21(g). The excess of the value of the aircraft trip over this amount may be excluded from gross income as a working condition fringe. If, for a bona fide business-oriented security concern, the employer requires that an employee's spouse and dependents travel on an employer-provided aircraft for a personal trip, the special rule of this paragraph (m)(4) is available to exclude the excess value of the aircraft trips over the safe harbor airfares.

(5) Bodyguard/chauffeur provided for a bona fide business-oriented security concern. If an employer provides an employee with vehicle transportation and a bodyguard/chauffeur for a bona fide business-oriented security concern, and but for the bona fide business-oriented security concern the employee would not have had a bodyguard or a chauffeur, then the entire value of the services of the bodyguard/chauffeur is excludable from gross income as a working condition fringe. For purposes of this section, a bodyguard/chauffeur must be trained in evasive driving techniques. An individual who performs services as a driver for an employee is not a bodyguard/chauffeur if the individual is not trained in evasive driving techniques. Thus, no part of the value of the services of such an individual is excludable from gross income under this paragraph (m)(5). (See paragraph (b)(3) of this section for rules relating to the determination of the working condition fringe exclusion for chauffeur services.)

(6) Special valuation rule for government employees. If transportation is provided to a government employee for commuting during the period that a bona fide business-oriented security concern under § 1.132-5(m) exists, the commuting use may be valued by reference to the values set forth in § 1.61-21(e)(1)(i) or (f)(3) (vehicle cents-per-mile or commuting valuation of $1.50 per one-way commute, respectively) without regard to the additional requirements contained in § 1.61-21 (e) or (f) and is deemed to have met the requirements of § 1.61-21(c).

(7) Government employer and employee defined. For purposes of this paragraph (m), “government employer” includes any Federal, State, or local government unit, and any agency or instrumentality thereof. A “government employee” is any individual who is employed by the government employer.

(8) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph (m) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

Assume that in response to several death threats on the life of A, the president of X a multinational company, X establishes an overall security program for A, including an alarm system at A's home and guards at A's workplace, the use of a vehicle that is specially equipped with alarms, bulletproof glass, and armor plating, and a bodyguard/chauffeur. Assume further that A is driven for both personal and business reasons in the vehicle. Also, assume that but for the bona fide business-oriented security concerns, no part of the overall security program would have been provided to A. With respect to the transportation provided for security reasons, A may exclude as a working condition fringe the value of the special security features of the vehicle and the value attributable to the bodyguard/chauffeur. Thus, if the value of the specially equipped vehicle is $40,000, and the value of the vehicle without the security features is $25,000, A may determine A's inclusion in income attributable to the vehicle as if the vehicle were worth $25,000. A must include in income the value of the availability of the vehicle for personal use.

Example 2.

Assume that B is the chief executive officer of Y, a multinational corporation. Assume further that there have been kidnapping attempts and other terrorist activities in the foreign countries in which B performs services and that at least some of such activities have been directed against B or similarly situated employees. ln response to these activities, Y provides B with an overall security program, including an alarm system at B's home and bodyguards at B's workplace, a bodyguard/chauffeur, and a vehicle specially designed for security during B's overseas travels. In addition, assume that Y requires B to travel in Y's airplane for business and personal trips taken to, from, and within these foreign countries. Also, assume that but for bona fide business-oriented security concerns, no part of the overall security program would have been provided to B. B may exclude as a working condition fringe the value of the special security features of the automobile and the value attributable to the bodyguards and the bodyguard/chauffeur. B may also exclude the excess, if any, of the value of the flights over the amount A would have paid for the same mode of transportation but for the security concerns. As an alternative to the preceding sentence, B may use the working condition safe harbor described in paragraph (m)(4) of this section and exclude as a working condition fringe the excess, if any, of the value of personal flights in the Y airplane over the safe harbor airfare determined under the method described in paragraph (m)(4) of this section. If this alternative is used, B must include in income the value of the availability of the vehicle for personal use and the value of the safe harbor.

Example 3.

Assume the same facts as in example (2) except that Y also requires B to travel in Y's airplane within the United States, and provides B with a chauffeur-driven limousine for business and personal travel in the United States. Assume further that Y also requires B's spouse and dependents to travel in Y's airplane for personal flights in the United States. If no bona fide business-oriented security concern exists with respect to travel in the United States, B may not exclude from income any portion of the value of the availability of the chauffeur or limousine for personal use in the United States. Thus, B must include in income the value of the availability of the vehicle and chauffeur for personal use. In addition, B may not exclude any portion of the value attributable to personal flights by B or B's spouse and dependents on Y's airplane. Thus, B must include in income the value attributable to the personal use of Y's airplane. See § 1.61-21 for rules relating to the valuation of an employer-provided vehicle and chauffeur, and personal flights on employer-provided airplanes.

Example 4.

Assume that company Z retains an independent security consultant to perform a security study with respect to its chief executive officer. Assume further that, based on an objective assessment of the facts and circumstances, the security consultant reasonably recommends that 24-hour protection is not necessary but that the employee be provided security at his workplace and for ground transportation, but not for air transportation. If company Z follows the recommendations on a consistent basis, an overall security program will be deemed to exist with respect to the workplace and ground transportation security only.

Example 5.

Assume the same facts as in example (4) except that company Z only provides the employee security while commuting to and from work, but not for any other ground transportation. Because the recommendations of the independent security study are not applied on a consistent basis, an overall security program will not be deemed to exist. Thus, the value of commuting to and from work is not excludable from income. However, the value of a bodyguard with professional security training who does not provide chauffeur or other personal services to the employee or any member of the employee's family may be excludable as a working condition fringe if such expense would be otherwise allowable as a deduction by the employee under section 162 or 167.

Example 6.

J is a United States District Judge. At the beginning of a 3-month criminal trial in J's court, a member of J's family receives death threats. M, the division (within government agency W) responsible for evaluating threats and providing protective services to the Federal judiciary, directs its threat analysis unit to conduct a security study with respect to J and J's family. The study is conducted pursuant to internal written procedures that require an independent and objective assessment of any threats to members of the Federal judiciary and their families, a statement of the requisite security response, if any, to a particular threat (including the form of transportation to be furnished to the employee as part of the security program), and a description of the circumstances under which local transportation for the employee and the employee's spouse and dependents may be necessary for personal reasons during the time protective services are provided. M's study concludes that a bona fide business-oriented security concern exists with respect to J and J's family and determines that 24-hour protection of J and J's family is not necessary, but that protection is necessary during the course of the criminal trial whenever J or J's family is away from home. Consistent with that recommendation, J is transported every day in a government vehicle for both personal and business reasons and is accompanied by two bodyguard/chauffeurs who have been trained in evasive driving techniques. In addition, J's spouse is driven to and from work and J's children are driven to and from school and occasional school activities. Shortly after the trial is concluded, M's threat analysis unit determines that J and J's family no longer need special protection because the danger posed by the threat no longer exists and, accordingly, vehicle transportation is no longer provided. Because the security study conducted by M complies with the conditions of § 1.132-5(m)(2)(v), M has satisfied the requirement for an independent security study and an overall security program with respect to J is deemed to exist. Thus, with respect to the transportation provided for security concerns, J may exclude as a working condition fringe the value of any special security features of the government vehicle and the value attributable to the two bodyguard/chauffeurs. See Example (1) of this paragraph (m)(8). The value of vehicle transportation provided to J and J's family for personal reasons, other than commuting, may also be excluded during the period of protection, because its provision was consistent with the recommendation of the security study.

Example 7.

Assume the same facts as in Example (6) and that J's one-way commute between home and work is 10 miles. Under paragraph (m)(6) of this section, the Federal Government may value transportation provided to J for commuting purposes pursuant to the value set forth in either the vehicle cents-per-mile rule of § 1.61-21(e) or the commuting valuation rule of § 1.61-21(f). Because the commuting valuation rule yields the least amount of taxable income to J under the circumstances, W values the transportation provided to J for commuting at $1.50 per one-way commute, even though J is a control employee within the meaning of § 1.61-21(f)(6).

(n) Product testing—(1) In general. The fair market value of the use of consumer goods, which are manufactured for sale to nonemployees, for product testing and evaluation by an employee of the manufacturer outside the employer's workplace, is excludible from gross income as a working condition fringe if—

(i) Consumer testing and evaluation of the product is an ordinary and necessary business expense of the employer;

(ii) Business reasons necessitate that the testing and evaluation of the product be performed off the employer's business premises by employees (i.e., the testing and evaluation cannot be carried out adequately in the employer's office or in laboratory testing facilities);

(iii) The product is furnished to the employee for purposes of testing and evaluation;

(iv) The product is made available to the employee for no longer than necessary to test and evaluate its performance and (to the extent not exhausted) must be returned to the employer at completion of the testing and evaluation period;

(v) The employer imposes limits on the employee's use of the product that significantly reduce the value of any personal benefit to the employee; and

(vi) The employee must submit detailed reports to the employer on the testing and evaluation. The length of the testing and evaluation period must be reasonable in relation to the product being tested.

(2) Employer-imposed limits. The requirement of paragraph (n)(1)(v) of this section is satisfied if—

(i) The employer places limits on the employee's ability to select among different models or varieties of the consumer product that is furnished for testing and evaluation purposes; and

(ii) The employer generally prohibits use of the product by persons other than the employee and, in appropriate cases, requires the employee, to purchase or lease at the employee's own expense the same type of product as that being tested (so that personal use by the employee's family will be limited). In addition, any charge by the employer for the personal use by an employee of a product being tested shall be taken into account in determining whether the requirement of paragraph (n)(1)(v) of this section is satisfied.

(3) Discriminating classifications. If an employer furnishes products under a testing and evaluation program only, or presumably, to certain classes of employees (such as highly compensated employees, as defined in § 1.132-8(g)), this fact may be relevant when determining whether the products are furnished for testing and evaluation purposes or for compensation purposes, unless the employer can show a business reason for the classification of employees to whom the products are furnished (e.g., that automobiles are furnished for testing and evaluation by an automobile manufacturer to its design engineers and supervisory mechanics).

(4) Factors that negate the existence of a product testing program. If an employer fails to tabulate and examine the results of the detailed reports submitted by employees within a reasonable period of time after expiration of the testing period, the program will not be considered a product testing program for purposes of the exclusion of this paragraph (n). Existence of one or more of the following factors may also establish that the program is not a bona fide product testing program for purposes of the exclusion of this paragraph (n):

(i) The program is in essence a leasing program under which employees lease the consumer goods from the employer for a fee;

(ii) The nature of the product and other considerations are insufficient to justify the testing program; or

(iii) The expense of the program outweighs the benefits to be gained from testing and evaluation.

(5) Failure to meet the requirements of this paragraph (n). The fair market value of the use of property for product testing and evaluation by an employee outside the employee's workplace, under a product testing program that does not meet all of the requirements of this paragraph (n), is not excludable from gross income as a working condition fringe under this paragraph (n).

(6) Example. The rules of this paragraph (n) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.

Assume that an employer that manufactures automobiles establishes a product testing program under which 50 of its 5,000 employees test and evaluate the automobiles for 30 days. Assume further that the 50 employees represent a fair cross-section of all of the employees of the employer, such employees submit detailed reports to the employer on the testing and evaluation, the employer tabulates and examines the test results within a reasonable time, and the use of the automobiles is restricted to the employees. If the employer imposes the limits described in paragraph (n)(2) of this section, the employees may exclude the value of the use of the automobile during the testing and evaluation period.

(o) Qualified automobile demonstration use—(1) In general. The value of qualified automobile demonstration use is excludable from gross income as a working condition fringe. “Qualified automobile demonstration use” is any use of a demonstration automobile by a full-time automobile salesman in the sales area in which the automobile dealer's sales office is located if—

(i) Such use is provided primarily to facilitate the salesman's performance of services for the employer; and

(ii) There are substantial restrictions on the personal use of the automobile by the salesman.

(2) Full-time automobile salesman—(i) Defined. The term “full-time automobile salesman” means any individual who—

(A) Is employed by an automobile dealer;

(B) Customarily spends at least half of a normal business day performing the functions of a floor salesperson or sales manager;

(C) Directly engages in substantial promotion and negotiation of sales to customers;

(D) Customarily works a number of hours considered full-time in the industry (but at a rate not less than 1,000 hours per year); and

(E) Derives at least 25 percent of his or her gross income from the automobi1e dealership directly as a result of the activities described in paragraphs (o)(2)(i) (B) and (C) of this section.

For purposes of paragraph (o)(2)(i) (E) of this section, income is not considered to be derived directly as a result of activities described in paragraphs (o)(2)(i) (B) and (C) of this section to the extent that the income is attributable to an individual's ownership interest in the dealership. An individual will not be considered to engage in direct sales activities if the individual's sales-related activities are substantially limited to review of sales price offers from customers. An individual, such as the general manager of an automobi1e dealership, who receives a sales commission on the sale of an automobile is not a full-time automobile salesman unless the requirements of this paragraph (o)(2)(i) are met. The exclusion provided in this paragraph (o) is available to an individual who meets the definition of this paragraph (o)(2)(i) whether the individual performs services in addition to those described in this paragraph (o)(2)(i). For example, an individual who is an owner of the automobile dealership but who otherwise meets the requirements of this paragraph (o)(2)(i) may exclude from gross income the value of qualified automobile demonstration use. However, the exclusion of this paragraph (o) is not available to owners of large automobile dealerships who do not customarily engage in significant sales activities.

(ii) Use by an individual other than a full-time automobile salesman. Personal use of a demonstration automobile by an individual other than a full-time automobile salesman is not treated as a working condition fringe. Therefore, any personal use, including commuting use, of a demonstration automobile by a part-time salesman, automobile mechanic, or other individual who is not a full-time automobile salesman is not “qualified automobile demonstration use” and thus not excludable from gross income. This is the case whether or not the personal use is within the sales area (as defined in paragraph (o)(5) of this section).

(3) Demonstration automobile. The exclusion provided in this paragraph (o) applies only to qualified use of a demonstration automobile. A demonstration automobile is an automobile that is—

(i) Currently in the inventory of the automobile dealership; and

(ii) Available for test drives by customers during the normal business hours of the employee.

(4) Substantial restrictions on personal use. Substantial restrictions on the personal use of a demonstration automobile exist when all of the following conditions are satisfied:

(i) Use by individuals other than the full-time automobile salesmen (e.g., the salesman's family) is prohibited;

(ii) Use for personal vacation trips is prohibited;

(iii) The storage of personal possessions in the automobile is prohibited; and

(iv) The total use by mileage of the automobile by the salesman outside the salesman's normal working hours is limited.

(5) Sales area—(i) In general. Qualified automobile demonstration use consists of use in the sales area in which the automobile dealer's sales office is located. The sales area is the geographic area surrounding the automobile dealer's sales office from which the office regularly derives customers.

(ii) Sales area safe harbor. With respect to a particular full-time salesman, the automobile dealer's sales area may be treated as the area within a radius of the larger of—

(A) 75 miles or

(B) The one-way commuting distance (in miles) of the particular salesman from the dealer's sales office.

(6) Applicability of substantiation requirements of sections 162 and 274(d). Notwithstanding anything in this section to the contrary, the value of the use of a demonstration automobile may not be excluded from gross income as a working condition fringe, by either the employer or the employee, unless, with respect to the restrictions of paragraph (o)(4) of this section, the substantiation requirements of section 274(d) and the regulations thereunder are satisfied. See § 1.132-5(c) for general and safe harbor rules relating to the applicability of the substantiation requirements of section 274(d).

(7) Special valuation rules. See § 1.61-21(d)(6)(ii) for special rules that may be used to value the availability of demonstration automobiles.

(p) Parking—(1) In general. The value of parking provided to an employee on or near the business premises of the employer is excludable from gross income as a working condition fringe under the special rule of this paragraph (p). If the rules of this paragraph (p) are satisfied, the value of parking is excludable from gross income whether the amount paid by the employee for parking would be deductible under section 162. The working condition fringe exclusion applies whether the employer owns or rents the parking facility or parking space.

(2) Reimbursement of parking expenses. A reimbursement to the employee of the ordinary and necessary expenses of renting a parking space on or near the business premises of the employer is excludable from gross income as a working condition fringe, if, but for the parking expense, the employee would not have been entitled to receive and retain such amount from the employer. If, however an employee is entitled to retain a general transportation allowance or a similar benefit whether or not the employee has parking expenses, no portion of that allowance is excludable from gross income under this paragraph (p) even if it is used for parking expenses.

(3) Parking on residential property. With respect to an employee, this paragraph (p) does not apply to any parking facility or space located on property owned or leased by the employee for residential purposes.

(4) Dates of applicability. This paragraph (p) applies to benefits provided before January 1, 1993. For benefits provided after December 31, 1992, see § 1.132-9.

(q) Nonapplicability of nondiscrimination rules. Except to the extent provided in paragraph (n)(3) of this section (relating to discriminating classifications of a product testing program), the nondiscrimination rules of section 132 (h)(1) and § 1.132-8 do not apply in determining the amount, if any, of a working condition fringe.

(r) Volunteers—(1) In general. Solely for purposes of section 132(d) and paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a bona fide volunteer (including a director or officer) who performs services for an organization exempt from tax under section 501(a), or for a government employer (as defined in paragraph (m)(7) of this section), is deemed to have a profit motive under section 162.

(2) Limit on application of this paragraph. This paragraph (r) shall not be used to support treatment of the bona fide volunteer as having a profit motive for purposes of any provision of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (Code) other than section 132(d). Nothing in this paragraph (r) shall be interpreted as determining the employment status of a bona fide volunteer for purposes of any section of the Code other than section 132(d).

(3) Definitions—(i) Bona fide volunteer. For purposes of this paragraph (r), an individual is considered a “bona fide volunteer” if the individual does not have a profit motive for purposes of section 162. For example, an individual is considered a “bona fide volunteer” if the total value of the benefits provided with respect to the volunteer services is substantially less than the total value of the volunteer services the individual provides to an exempt organization or government employer.

(ii) Liability insurance coverage for a bona fide volunteer. For purposes of this paragraph (r), the receipt of liability insurance coverage by a volunteer, or an exempt organization or government employer's undertaking to indemnify the volunteer for liability, does not by itself confer a profit motive on the volunteer, provided the insurance coverage or indemnification relates to acts performed by the volunteer in the discharge of duties, or the performance of services, on behalf of the exempt organization or government employer.

(4) Example. The following example illustrates the provisions of paragraph (r) of this section.

Example.

A is a manager and full-time employee of P, a tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3). B is a member of P's board of directors. Other than $25 to defray expenses for attending board meetings, B receives no compensation for serving as a director and does not have a profit motive. Therefore, B is a bona fide volunteer by application of paragraph (r)(3)(i) of this section and is deemed to have a profit motive under paragraph (r)(1) of this section for purposes of section 132(d). In order to provide liability insurance coverage, P purchases a policy that covers actions arising from A's and B's activities performed as part of their duties to P. The value of the policy and payments made to or on behalf of A under the policy are excludable for A's gross income as a working condition fringe, because A has a profit motive under section 162 and would be able to deduct payments for liability insurance coverage had he paid for it himself. The receipt of liability insurance coverage by B does not confer a profit motive on B by application of paragraph (r)(3)(ii) of this section. Thus, the value of the policy and payments made to or on behalf of B under the policy are excludable from B's income as a working condition fringe. For the year in which the liability insurance coverage is provided to A and B, P may exclude the value of the benefit on the Form W-2 it issues to A or on any Form 1099 it might otherwise issue to B.

(s) Application of section 274(a)(3)—(1) In general. If an employer's deduction under section 162(a) for dues paid or incurred for membership in any club organized for business, pleasure, recreation, or other social purpose is disallowed by section 274(a)(3), the amount, if any, of an employee's working condition fringe benefit relating to an employer-provided membership in the club is determined without regard to the application of section 274(a) to the employee. To be excludible as a working condition fringe benefit, however, the amount must otherwise qualify for deduction by the employee under section 162(a). If an employer treats the amount paid or incurred for membership in any club organized for business, pleasure, recreation, or other social purpose as compensation under section 274(e)(2), then the expense is deductible by the employer as compensation and no amount may be excluded from the employee's gross income as a working condition fringe benefit. See § 1.274-2(f)(2)(iii)(A).

(2) Treatment of tax-exempt employers. In the case of an employer exempt from taxation under subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code, any reference in this paragraph (s) to a deduction disallowed by section 274(a)(3) shall be treated as a reference to the amount which would be disallowed as a deduction by section 274(a)(3) to the employer if the employer were not exempt from taxation under subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code.

(3) Examples. The following examples illustrate this paragraph (s):

Example 1.

Assume that Company X provides Employee B with a country club membership for which it paid $20,000. B substantiates, within the meaning of paragraph (c) of this section, that the club was used 40 percent for business purposes. The business use of the club (40 percent) may be considered a working condition fringe benefit, notwithstanding that the employer's deduction for the dues allocable to the business use is disallowed by section 274(a)(3), if X does not treat the club membership as compensation under section 274(e)(2). Thus, B may exclude from gross income $8,000 (40 percent of the club dues, which reflects B's business use). X must report $12,000 as wages subject to withholding and payment of employment taxes (60 percent of the value of the club dues, which reflects B's personal use). B must include $12,000 in gross income. X may deduct as compensation the amount it paid for the club dues which reflects B's personal use provided the amount satisfies the other requirements for a salary or compensation deduction under section 162.

Example 2.

Assume the same facts as Example 1 except that Company X treats the $20,000 as compensation to B under section 274(e)(2). No portion of the $20,000 will be considered a working condition fringe benefit because the section 274(a)(3) disallowance will apply to B. Therefore, B must include $20,000 in gross income.

(t) Application of section 274(m)(3)—(1) In general. If an employer's deduction under section 162(a) for amounts paid or incurred for the travel expenses of a spouse, dependent, or other individual accompanying an employee is disallowed by section 274(m)(3), the amount, if any, of the employee's working condition fringe benefit relating to the employer-provided travel is determined without regard to the application of section 274(m)(3). To be excludible as a working condition fringe benefit, however, the amount must otherwise qualify for deduction by the employee under section 162(a). The amount will qualify for deduction and for exclusion as a working condition fringe benefit if it can be adequately shown that the spouse's, dependent's, or other accompanying individual's presence on the employee's business trip has a bona fide business purpose and if the employee substantiates the travel within the meaning of paragraph (c) of this section. If the travel does not qualify as a working condition fringe benefit, the employee must include in gross income as a fringe benefit the value of the employer's payment of travel expenses with respect to a spouse, dependent, or other individual accompanying the employee on business travel. See §§ 1.61-21(a)(4) and 1.162-2(c). If an employer treats as compensation under section 274(e)(2) the amount paid or incurred for the travel expenses of a spouse, dependent, or other individual accompanying an employee, then the expense is deductible by the employer as compensation and no amount may be excluded from the employee's gross income as a working condition fringe benefit. See § 1.274-2(f)(2)(iii)(A).

(2) Treatment of tax-exempt employers. In the case of an employer exempt from taxation under subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code, any reference in this paragraph (t) to a deduction disallowed by section 274(m)(3) shall be treated as a reference to the amount which would be disallowed as a deduction by section 274(m)(3) to the employer if the employer were not exempt from taxation under subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code.

[T.D. 8256, 54 FR 28608, July 6, 1989, as amended by T.D. 8451, 57 FR 57669, Dec. 7, 1992; T.D. 8457, 57 FR 62196, Dec. 30, 1992; T.D. 8666, 61 FR 27006, May 30, 1996; T.D. 8933, 66 FR 2244, Jan. 11, 2001; T.D. 9483, 75 FR 27936, May 19, 2010; T.D. 10043, 91 FR 13502, Mar. 20, 2026]

§ 1.132-6 De minimis fringes.

(a) In general. Gross income does not include the value of a de minimis fringe provided to an employee. The term “de minimis fringe” means any property or service the value of which is (after taking into account the frequency with which similar fringes are provided by the employer to the employer's employees) so small as to make accounting for it unreasonable or administratively impracticable.

(b) Frequency—(1) Employee-measured frequency. Generally, the frequency with which similar fringes are provided by the employer to the employer's employees is determined by reference to the frequency with which the employer provides the fringes to each individual employee. For example, if an employer provides a free meal in kind to one employee on a daily basis, but not to any other employee, the value of the meals is not de minimis with respect to that one employee even though with respect to the employer's entire workforce the meals are provided “infrequently.”

(2) Employer-measured frequency. Notwithstanding the rule of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, except for purposes of applying the special rules of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, where it would be administratively difficult to determine frequency with respect to individual employees, the frequency with which similar fringes are provided by the employer to the employer's employees is determined by reference to the frequency with which the employer provides the fringes to the workforce as a whole. Therefore, under this rule, the frequency with which any individual employee receives such a fringe benefit is not relevant and in some circumstances, the de minimis fringe exclusion may apply with respect to a benefit even though a particular employee receives the benefit frequently. For example, if an employer exercises sufficient control and imposes significant restrictions on the personal use of a company copying machine so that at least 85 percent of the use of the machine is for business purposes, any personal use of the copying machine by particular employees is considered to be a de minimis fringe.

(c) Administrability. Unless excluded by a provision of chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 other than section 132(a)(4), the value of any fringe benefit that would not be unreasonable or administratively impracticable to account for is includible in the employee's gross income. Thus, except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the provision of any cash fringe benefit is never excludable under section 132(a) as a de minimis fringe benefit. Similarly except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d) of this section, a cash equivalent fringe benefit (such as a fringe benefit provided to an employee through the use of a gift certificate or charge or credit card) is generally not excludable under section 132(a) even if the same property or service acquired (if provided in kind) would be excludable as a de minimis fringe benefit. For example, the provision of cash to an employee for a theatre ticket that would itself be excludable as a de minimis fringe (see paragraph (e)(1) of this section) is not excludable as a de minimis fringe.

(d) Special rules—(1) Transit passes. A public transit pass provided at a discount to defray an employee's commuting costs may be excluded from the employee's gross income as a de minimis fringe if such discount does not exceed $21 in any month. The exclusion provided in this paragraph (d)(1) also applies to the provision of tokens or fare cards that enable an individual to travel on the public transit system if the value of such tokens and fare cards in any month does not exceed by more than $21 the amount the employee paid for the tokens and fare cards for such month. Similarly, the exclusion of this paragraph (d)(1) applies to the provision of a voucher or similar instrument that is exchangeable solely for tokens, fare cards, or other instruments that enable the employee to use the public transit system if the value of such vouchers and other instruments in any month does not exceed $21. The exclusion of this paragraph (d)(1) also applies to reimbursements made by an employer to an employee after December 31, 1988, to cover the cost of commuting on a public transit system, provided the employee does not receive more than $21 in such reimbursements for commuting costs in any given month. The reimbursement must be made under a bona fide reimbursement arrangement. A reimbursement arrangement will be treated as bona fide if the employer establishes appropriate procedures for verifying on a periodic basis that the employee's use of public transportation for commuting is consistent with the value of the benefit provided by the employer for that purpose. The amount of in-kind public transit commuting benefits and reimbursements provided during any month that are excludible under this paragraph (d)(1) is limited to $21. For months ending before July 1, 1991, the amount is $15 per month. The exclusion provided in this paragraph (d)(1) does not apply to the provision of any benefit to defray public transit expenses incurred for personal travel other than commuting.

(2) Occasional meal money or local transportation fare—(i) General rule. Meals, meal money or local transportation fare provided to an employee is excluded as a de minimis fringe benefit if the benefit provided is reasonable and is provided in a manner that satisfies the following three conditions:

(A) Occasional basis. The meals, meal money or local transportation fare is provided to the employee on an occasional basis. Whether meal money or local transportation fare is provided to an employee on an occasional basis will depend upon the frequency i.e., the availability of the benefit and regularity with which the benefit is provided by the employer to the employee. Thus, meals, meal money, or local transportation fare or a combination of such benefits provided to an employee on a regular or routine basis is not provided on an occasional basis.

(B) Overtime. The meals, meal money or local transportation fare is provided to an employee because overtime work necessitates an extension of the employee's normal work schedule. This condition does not fail to be satisifed merely because the circumstances giving rise to the need for overtime work are reasonably foreseeable.

(C) Meal money. ln the case of a meal or meal money, the meal or meal money is provided to enable the employee to work overtime. Thus, for example, meals provided on the employer's premises that are consumed during the period that the employee works overtime or meal money provided for meals consumed during such period satisfy this condition.

In no event shall meal money or local transportation fare calculated on the basis of the number of hours worked (e.g., $1.00 per hour for each hour over eight hours) be considered a de minimis fringe benefit.

(ii) Applicability of other exclusions for certain meals and for transportation provided for security concerns. The value of meals furnished to an employee, an employee's spouse, or any of the employee's dependents by or on behalf of the employee's employer for the convenience of the employer is excluded from the employee's gross income if the meals are furnished on the business premises of the employer (see section 119). (For purposes of the exclusion under section 119, the definitions of an employee under § 1.132-1(b) do not apply.) If, for a bona fide business-oriented security concern, an employer provides an employee vehicle transportation that is specially designed for security (for example, the vehicle is equipped with bulletproof glass and armor plating), and the conditions of § 1.132-5(m) are satisfied, the value of the special security design is excludable from gross income as a working condition fringe if the employee would not have had such special security design but for the bona fide business-oriented security concern.

(iii) Special rule for employer-provided transportation provided in certain circumstances. (A) Partial exclusion of value. If an employer provides transportation (such as taxi fare to an employee for use in commuting to and/or from work because or unusual circumstances and because, based on the facts and circumstances, it is unsafe for the employee to use other available means of transportation, the excess of the value of each one-way trip over $1.50 per one-way commute is excluded from gross income. The rule of this paragraph (d)(2)(iii) is not available to a control employee as defined in § 1.61-21(f) (5) and (6).

(B) “Unusual circumstances”. Unusual circumstances are determined with respect to the employee receiving the transportation and are based on all facts and circumstances. An example of unusual circumstances would be when an employee is asked to work outside of his normal work hours (such as being called to the workplace at 1:00 am when the employee normally works from 8:00 am to 4:00 pm). Another example of unusual circumstances is a temporary change in the employee's work schedule (such as working from 12 midnight to 8:00 am rather than from 8:00 am to 4:00 pm for a two-week period).

(C) “Unsafe conditions”. Factors indicating whether it is unsafe for an employee to use other available means of transportation are the history of crime in the geographic area surrounding the employee's workplace or residence and the time of day during which the employee must commute.

(3) Use of special rules or examples to establish a general rule. The special rules provided in this paragraph (d) or examples provided in paragraph (e) of this section may not be used to establish any general rule permitting exclusion as a de minimis fringe. For example, the fact that $252 (i.e., $21 per month for 12 months) worth of public transit passes can be excluded from gross income as a de minimis fringe in 1992 does not mean that any fringe benefit with a value equal to or less than $252 may be excluded as a de minimis fringe. As another example, the fact that the commuting use of an employer-provided vehicle more than one day a month is an example of a benefit not excludable as a de minimis fringe (see paragraph (e)(2) of this section) does not mean that the commuting use of a vehicle up to 12 times per year is excludable from gross income as a de minimis fringe.

(4) Benefits exceeding value and frequency limits. If a benefit provided to an employee is not de minimis because either the value or frequency exceeds a limit provided in this paragraph (d), no amount of the benefit is considered to be a de minimis fringe. For example, if, in 1992, an employer provides a $50 monthly public transit pass, the entire $50 must be included in income, not just the excess value over $21.

(e) Examples—(1) Benefits excludable from income. Examples of de minimis fringe benefits are occasional typing of personal letters by a company secretary; occasional personal use of an employer's copying machine, provided that the employer exercises sufficient control and imposes significant restrictions on the personal use of the machine so that at least 85 percent of the use of the machine is for business purposes; occasional cocktail parties, group meals, or picnics for employees and their guests; traditional birthday or holiday gifts of property (not cash) with a low fair market value; occasional theater or sporting event tickets; coffee, doughnuts, and soft drinks; local telephone calls; and flowers, fruit, books, or similar property provided to employees under special circumstances (e.g., on account of illness, outstanding performance, or family crisis).

(2) Benefits not excludable as de minimis fringes. Examples of fringe benefits that are not excludable from gross income as de minimis fringes are: season tickets to sporting or theatrical events; the commuting use of an employer-provided automobile or other vehicle more than one day a month; membership in a private country club or athletic facility, regardless of the frequency with which the employee uses the facility; employer-provided group-term life insurance on the life of the spouse or child of an employee; and use of employer-owned or leased facilities (such as an apartment, hunting lodge, boat, etc.) for a weekend. Some amount of the value of certain of these fringe benefits may be excluded from income under other statutory provisions, such as the exclusion for working condition fringes. See § 1.132-5.

(f) Nonapplicability of nondiscrimination rules. Except to the extent provided in § 1.132-7, the nondiscrimination rules of section 132(h)(1) and § 1.132-8 do not apply in determining the amount, if any, of a de minimis fringe. Thus, a fringe benefit may be excludable as a de minimis fringe even if the benefit is provided exclusively to highly compensated employees of the employer.

[T.D. 8256, 54 FR 28615, July 6, 1989, as amended by T.D. 8389, 57 FR 1871, Jan. 16, 1992; 57 FR 5982, Feb. 19, 1992]

§ 1.132-7 Employer-operated eating facilities.

(a) In general—(1) Condition for exclusion—(i) General rule. The value of meals provided to employees at an employer-operated eating facility for employees is excludable from gross income as a de minimis fringe only if on an annual basis, the revenue from the facility equals or exceeds the direct operating costs of the facility.

(ii) Additional condition for highly compensated employees. With respect to any highly compensated employee, an exclusion is available under this section only if the condition set out in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section is satisfied and access to the facility is available on substantially the same terms to each member of a group of employees that is defined under a reasonable classification set up by the employer that does not discriminate in favor of highly compensated employees. See § 1.132-8. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(1)(ii), each dining room or cafeteria in which meals are served is treated as a separate eating facility, whether each such dining room or cafeteria has its own kitchen or other food-preparation area.

(2) Employer-operated eating facility for employees. An employer-operated eating facility for employees is a facility that meets all of the following conditions—

(i) The facility is owned or leased by the employer,

(ii) The facility is operated by the employer,

(iii) The facility is located on or near the business premises of the employer, and

(iv) The meals furnished at the facility are provided during, or immediately before or after, the employee's workday.

For purposes of this section, the term “meals” means food, beverages, and related services provided at the facility. If an employer can reasonably determine the number of meals that are excludable from income by the recipient employees under section 119, the employer may, in determining whether the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section is satisfied, disregard all costs and revenues attributable to such meals provided to such employees. lf an employer can reasonably determine the number of meals received by volunteers who receive food and beverages at a hospital, free or at a discount, the employer may, in determining whether the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section is satisfied, disregard all costs and revenues attributable to such meals provided to such volunteers. If an employer charges nonemployees a greater amount than employees, in determining whether the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section is satisfied, the employer must disregard all costs and revenues attributable to such meals provided to such nonemployees.

(3) Operation by the employer. If an employer contracts with another to operate an eating facility for its employees, the facility is considered to be operated by the employer for purposes of this section. If an eating facility is operated by more than one employer, it is considered to be operated by each employer.

(4) Example. The provisions of this paragraph (a)(2) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example 1.

Assume that a not-for-profit hospital system maintains cafeterias for the use of its employees and volunteers. Only the employees are charged for food service at the cafeteria and the policy of the hospital is to charge the employees only for the costs of food, beverage and labor directly attributable to the meal. Most of the cafeterias within the system furnish more free meals to volunteers than they serve paid meals to employees. For purposes of this paragraph, as long as the employer can accurately determine the number of meals received free or at a discount by volunteers, the employer may disregard all the costs and revenues attributable to such meals provided to volunteers. Therefore, for purposes of this paragraph, the costs of the hospital system for furnishing meals to employees who pay for them are the costs to be compared to determine if the revenues from the facility equal or exceed direct operating costs of the facility's service to employees.

(b) Direct operating costs—(1) In general. For purposes of this section, the direct operating costs of an eating facility are—

(i) The cost of food and beverages, and

(ii) The cost of labor for personnel whose services relating to the facility are performed primarily on the premises of the eating facility. Direct operating costs do not include the labor cost attributable to personnel whose services relating to the facility are not performed primarily on the premises of the eating facility. Thus, for example, the labor costs attributable to cooks, waiters, and waitresses are included in direct operating costs, but the labor cost attributable to a manager of an eating facility whose services relating to the facility are not primarily performed on the premises of the eating facility is not included in direct operating costs. If an employee performs services relating to the facility both on and off the premises of the eating facility, only the portion of the total labor cost of the employee relating to the facility that bears the same proportion to such total labor cost as time spent on the premises bears to total time spent performing services relating to the facility is included in direct operating costs. For example, assume that 60 percent of the services of a cook in the above example are not related to the eating facility. Only 40 percent of the total labor cost of the cook is includible in direct operating costs. For purposes of this section, labor costs include all compensation required to be reported on a Form W-2 for income tax purposes and related employment taxes paid by the employer. In determining the direct operating costs of an eating facility, the employer may include as part of the facility, vending machines that are provided by the employer and located on the same premises as the other eating facilities operated by the employer.

(2) Multiple dining rooms or cafeterias. The direct operating costs test may be applied separately for each dining room or cafeteria. Alternatively, the direct operating costs test may be applied with respect to all the eating facilities operated by the employer.

(3) Payment to operator of facility. If an employer contracts with another to operate an eating facility for its employees, the direct operating costs of the facility consist both of direct operating costs, if any, incurred by the employer and the amount paid to the operator of the facility to the extent that such amount is attributable to what would be direct operating costs if the employer operated the facility directly.

(c) Valuation of non-excluded meals provided at an employer-operated eating facility for employees. If the exclusion for meals provided at an employer-operated eating facility for employees is not available, the recipient of meals provided at such facility must include in income the amount by which the fair market value of the meals provided exceeds the sum of—

(1) The amount, if any, paid for the meals, and

(2) The amount, if any, specifically excluded by another section of chapter 1 of this subtitle.

For special valuation rules relating to such meals, see § 1.61-21(j).

[T.D. 8256, 54 FR 28617, July 6, 1989]

§ 1.132-8 Fringe benefit nondiscrimination rules.

(a) Application of nondiscrimination rules—(1) General rule. A highly compensated employee who receives a no-additional cost service, a qualified employee discount or a meal provided at an employer-operated eating facility for employees shall not be permitted to exclude such benefit from his or her income unless the benefit is available on substantially the same terms to:

(i) All employees of the employer; or

(ii) A group of employees of the employer which is defined under a reasonable classification set up by the employer that does not discriminate in favor of highly compensated employees. See paragraph (f) of this section for the definition of a highly compensated employee.

(2) Consequences of discrimination—(i) In general. If an employer maintains more than one fringe benefit program, i.e., either different fringe benefits being provided to the same group of employees, or different classifications of employees or the same fringe benefit being provided to two or more classifications of employees, the nondiscrimination requirements of section 132 will generally be applied separately to each such program. Thus, a determination that one fringe benefit program discriminates in favor of highly compensated employees generally will not cause other fringe benefit programs covering the same highly compensated employees to be treated as discriminatory. If the fringe benefits provided to a highly compensated individual do not satisfy the nondiscrimination rules provided in this section, such individual shall be unable to exclude from gross income any portion of the benefit. For example, if an employer offers a 20 percent discount (which otherwise satisfies the requirements for a qualified employee discount) to all non-highly compensated employees and a 35 percent discount to all highly compensated employees, the entire value of the 35 percent discount (not just the excess over 20 percent) is includible in the gross income and wages of the highly compensated employees who make purchases at a discount.

(ii) Exception—(A) Related fringe benefit programs. If one of a group of fringe benefit programs discriminates in favor of highly compensated employees, no related fringe benefit provided to such highly compensated employees under any other fringe benefit program may be excluded from the gross income of such highly compensated employees. For example, assume a department store provides a 20 percent merchandise discount to all employees under one fringe benefit program. Assume further that under a second fringe benefit program, the department store provides an additional 15 percent merchandise discount to a group of employees defined under a classification which discriminates in favor of highly compensated employees. Because the second fringe benefit program is discriminatory, the 15 percent merchandise discount provided to the highly compensated employees is not a qualified employee discount. In addition, because the 20 percent merchandise discount provided under the first fringe benefit program is related to the fringe benefit provided under the second fringe benefit program, the 20 percent merchandise discount provided the highly compensated employees is not a qualified employee discount. Thus, the entire 35 percent merchandise discount provided to the highly compensated employees is includible in such employees' gross incomes.

(B) Employer operated eating facilities for employees. For purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, meals at different employer-operated eating facilities for employees are not related fringe benefits, so that a highly compensated employee may exclude from gross income the value of a meal at a nondiscriminatory facility even though any meals provided to him or her at a discriminatory facility cannot be excluded.

(3) Scope of the nondiscrimination rules provided in this section. The nondiscrimination rules provided in this section apply only to fringe benefits provided pursuant to section 132 (a)(1), (a)(2), and (e)(2). These rules have no application to any other employee benefit that may be subject to nondiscrimination requirements under any other section of the Code.

(b) Aggregation of employees—(1) Section 132(a) (1) and (2). For purposes of determining whether the exclusions for no-additional-cost services and qualified employee discounts are available to highly compensated employees, the nondiscrimination rules of this section are applied by aggregating the employees of all related employers (as defined in § 1.132-1(c)), except that employees in different lines of business (as defined in § 1.132-4) are not to be aggregated. Thus, in general, for purposes of this section, the term “employees of the employer” refers to all employees of the employer and any other entity that is a member of a group described in sections 414 (b), (c), (m), or (o) and that performs services within the same line of business as the employer which provides the particular fringe benefit. Employees in different lines of business will be aggregated, however, if the line of business limitation has been relaxed pursuant to paragraphs (b) through (g) of § 1.132-4.

(2) Section 132 (e) (2). For purposes of determining whether the exclusions for meals provided at employer-operated eating facilities are available to highly compensated, the nondiscrimination rules of this section are applied by aggregating the employees of all related employers (as defined in section § 1.132-1(c)) who regularly work at or near the premises on which the eating facility is located, except that employees in different lines of business (as defined in § 1.132-4) are not to be aggregated. The nondiscrimination rules of this section are applied separately to each eating facility. Each dining room or cafeteria in which meals are served is treated as a separate eating facility, regardless of whether each such dining room or cafeteria has its own kitchen or other food-preparation area.

(3) Classes of employees who may be excluded. For purposes of applying the nondiscrimination rules of this section to a particular fringe benefit program, there may be excluded from consideration employees who may be excluded from consideration under section 89(h), as enacted by the Tax Reform Act of 1986, Pub. L. 99-514, 100 Stat. 2085 (1986) and amended by the Technical and Miscellaneous Revenue Act of 1988, Pub. L. 100-647, 102 Stat. 3342 (1988).

(c) Availability on substantially the same terms—(1) General rule. The determination of whether a benefit is available on substantially the same terms shall be made upon the basis of the facts and circumstances of each situation. In general, however, if any one of the terms or conditions governing the availability of a particular benefit to one or more employees varies from any one of the terms or conditions governing the availability of a benefit made available to one or more other employees, such benefit shall not be considered to be available on substantially the same terms except to the extent otherwise provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. For example, if a department store provides a 20 percent qualified employee discount to all of its employees on all merchandise, the substantially the same terms requirement will be satisfied. Similarly, if the discount provided to all employees is 30 percent on certain merchandise (such as apparel), and 20 percent on all other merchandise, the substantially the same terms requirement will be satisfied. However, if a department store provides a 20 percent qualified employee discount to all employees, but as to the employees in certain departments, the discount is available upon hire, and as to the remaining departments, the discount is only available when an employee has completed a specified term of services, the 20 percent discount is not available on substantially the same terms to all of the employees of the employer. Similarly, if a greater discount is given to employees with more seniority, full-time work status, or a particular job description, such benefit (i.e., the discount) would not be available to all employees eligible for the discount on substantially the same terms, except to the extent otherwise provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. These examples also apply to no-additional-cost-services. Thus, if an employer charges non-highly compensated employees for a no-additional-cost service and does not charge highly compensated employees (or charges highly compensated employees a lesser amount), the substantially the same terms requirement will not be satisfied.

(2) Certain terms relating to priority. Certain fringe benefits made available to employees are available only in limited quantities that may be insufficient to meet employee demand. This situation may occur either because of employer policy (such as where an employer determines that only a certain number of units of a specific product will be made available to employees each year) or because of the nature of the fringe benefit (such as where an employer provides a no-additional-cost transportation service that is limited to the number of seats available just before departure). Under these circumstances, an employer may find it necessary to establish some method of allocating the limited fringe benefits among the employees eligible to receive the fringe benefits. The employer may establish the priorities described below.

(i) Priority on a first come, first served, or similar basis. A benefit shall not fail to be treated as available to a group of employees on substantially the same terms merely because the employer allocates the benefit among such employees on a “first come, first served” or lottery basis, provided that the same notice of the terms of availability is given to all employees in the group and the terms under which the benefit is provided to employees within the group are otherwise the same with respect to all employees. For purposes of the preceding sentence, a program that gives priority to employees who are the first to submit written requests for the benefit will constitute priority on a “first come, first served” basis. Similarly, if the employer regularly engages in the practice of allocating benefits on a priority basis to employees demonstrating a critical need, such benefit shall not fail to be treated as available on substantially the same terms to all of the employees with respect to whom such priority status is available as long as the determination is based upon uniform and objective criteria which have been communicated to all employees in the group of eligible employees. An example of a critical need would be priority transportation given to an employee in the event of a medical emergency involving the employee (or a member of the employee's immediate family) or a recent death in the employee's immediate family. Frustrated vacation plans or forfeited deposits would not be treated as giving rise to particularly critical needs.

(ii) Priority on the basis of seniority. Solely for purposes of § 1.132-8, a benefit shall not fail to be treated as available to a group of employees of the employer on substantially the same terms merely because the employer allocates the benefit among such employees on a seniority basis provided that:

(A) The same notice of the terms of availability is given to all employees in the group; and

(B) The average value of the benefit provided for each nonhighly compensated employee is at least 75% of that provided for each highly compensated employee. For purposes of this test, the average value of the benefit provided for each nonhighly compensated (highly compensated) employee is determined by taking the sum of the fair market values of such benefit provided to all the nonhighly compensated (highly compensated) employees, determined in accordance with § 1.61-21, and then dividing that sum by the total number of nonhighly compensated (highly compensated) employees of the employer. For purposes of determining the average value of the benefit provided for each employee, all employee's of the employer are counted, including those who are not eligible to receive the benefit from the employer.

(d) Testing for discrimination—(1) Classification test. In the event that a benefit described in section 132 (a)(1), (a)(2) or (e)(2) is not available on substantially the same terms to all of the employees of the employer, no exclusion shall be available to a highly compensated employee for such benefit unless the program under which the benefit is provided satisfies the nondiscrimination standards set forth in this section. The nondiscrimination standard of this section will be satisfied only if the benefit is available on substantially the same terms to a group of employees of the employer which is defined under a reasonable classification established by the employer that does not discriminate in favor of highly compensated employees. The determination of whether a particular classification is discriminatory will generally depend upon the facts and circumstances involved, based upon principles similar to those applied for purposes of section 410(b)(2)(A)(i) or, for years commencing prior to January 1, 1988, section 410(b)(1)(B). Thus, in general, except as otherwise provided in this section, if a benefit is available on substantially the same terms to a group of employees which, when compared with all of the other employees of the employer, constitutes a nondiscriminatory classification under section 410(b)(2)(A)(i) (or, if applicable, section 410(b)(1)(B)), it shall be deemed to be nondiscriminatory.

(2) Classifications that are per se discriminatory. A classification that, on its face, makes fringe benefits available principally to highly compensated employees is per se discriminatory. In addition, a classification that is based on either an amount or rate of compensation is per se discriminatory if it favors those with the higher amount or rate of compensation. On the other hand, a classification that is based on factors such as seniority, full-time vs. part-time employment, or job description is not per se discriminatory but may be discriminatory as applied to the workforce of a particular employer.

(3) Former employees. When determining whether a classification is discriminatory, former employees shall be tested separately from other employees of the employer. Therefore, a classification is not discriminatory solely because the employer does not make fringe benefits available to any former employee. Whether a classification of former employees discriminates in favor of highly compensated employees will depend upon the particular facts and circumstances.

(4) Restructuring of benefits. For purposes of testing whether a particular group of employees would constitute a discriminatory classification for purposes of this section, an employer may restructure its fringe benefit program as described in this paragraph. If a fringe benefit is provided to more than one group of employees, and one or more such groups would constitute a discriminatory classification if considered by itself, then for purposes of this section, the employer may restructure its fringe benefit program so that all or some of the members of such group may be aggregated with another group, provided that each member of the restructured group will have available to him or her the same benefit upon the same terms and conditions. For example, assume that all highly compensated employees of an employer have fewer than five years of service and all nonhighly compensated employees have over five years of service. If the employer provided a five percent discount to employees with under five years of service and a ten percent discount to employees with over five years of service, the discount program available to the highly compensated employees would not satisfy the nondiscriminatory classification test; however, as a result of the rule described in this paragraph (d)(4), the employer could structure the program to consist of a five percent discount for all employees and a five percent additional discount for nonhighly compensated employees.

(5) Employer-operated eating facilities for employees—(i) General rule. If access to an employer-operated eating facility for employees is available to a classification of employees that discriminates in favor of highly compensated employees, then the classification will not be treated as discriminating in favor of highly compensated employees unless the facility is used by one or more executive group employees more than a de minimis amount.

(ii) Executive group employee. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(5), an employee is an “executive group employee” if the definition of paragraph (f)(1) of this section is satisfied. For purposes of identifying such employees, the phrase “top one percent of the employees” is substituted for the phrase “top ten percent of the employees” in section 414(q)(4) (relating to the definition of “top-paid group”).

(e) Cash bonuses or rebates. A cash bonus or rebate provided to an employee by an employer that is determined with reference to the value of employer-provided property or services purchased by the employee, is treated as an equivalent employee discount. For example, assume a department store provides a 20 percent merchandise discount to all employees under a fringe benefit program. In addition, assume that the department store provides cash bonuses to a group of employees defined under a classification which discriminates in favor of highly compensated employees. Assume further that such cash bonuses equal 15 percent of the value of merchandise purchased by each employee. This arrangement is substantively identical to the example described in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section concerning related fringe benefit programs. Thus, both the 20 percent merchandise discount and the 15 percent cash bonus provided to the highly compensated employees are includible in such employees' gross incomes.

(f) Highly compensated employee—(1) Government and nongovernment employees. A highly compensated employee of any employer is any employee who, during the year or the preceding year—

(i) Was a 5-percent owner,

(ii) Received compensation from the employer in excess of $75,000,

(iii) Received compensation from the employer in excess of $50,000 and was in the top-paid group of employees for such year, or

(iv) Was at any time an officer and received compensation greater than 150 percent of the amount in effect under section 415(c)(1)(A) for such year.

For purposes of determining whether an employee is a highly compensated employee, the rules of sections 414 (q), (s), and (t) apply.

(2) Former employees. A former employee shall be treated as a highly compensated employee if—

(i) The employee was a highly compensated employee when the employee separated from service, or

(ii) The employee was a highly compensated employee at any time after attaining age 55.

[T.D. 8256, 54 FR 28618, July 6, 1989]

§ 1.132-9 Qualified transportation fringes.

(a) Table of contents. This section contains a list of the questions and answers in § 1.132-9.

(1) General rules.

Q-1. What is a qualified transportation fringe?

Q-2. What is transportation in a commuter highway vehicle?

Q-3. What are transit passes?

Q-4. What is qualified parking?

Q-5. May qualified transportation fringes be provided to individuals who are not employees?

Q-6. Must a qualified transportation fringe benefit plan be in writing?

(2) Dollar limitations.

Q-7. Is there a limit on the value of qualified transportation fringes that may be excluded from an employee's gross income?

Q-8. What amount is includible in an employee's wages for income and employment tax purposes if the value of the qualified transportation fringe exceeds the applicable statutory monthly limit?

Q-9. Are excludable qualified transportation fringes calculated on a monthly basis?

Q-10. May an employee receive qualified transportation fringes from more than one employer?

(3) Compensation reduction.

Q-11. May qualified transportation fringes be provided to employees pursuant to a compensation reduction agreement?

Q-12. What is a compensation reduction election for purposes of section 132(f)?

Q-13. Is there a limit to the amount of the compensation reduction?

Q-14. When must the employee have made a compensation reduction election and under what circumstances may the amount be paid in cash to the employee?

Q-15. May an employee whose qualified transportation fringe costs are less than the employee's compensation reduction carry over this excess amount to subsequent periods?

(4) Expense reimbursements.

Q-16. How does section 132(f) apply to expense reimbursements?

Q-17. May an employer provide nontaxable cash reimbursement under section 132(f) for periods longer than one month?

Q-18. What are the substantiation requirements if an employer distributes transit passes?

Q-19. May an employer choose to impose substantiation requirements in addition to those described in this regulation?

(5) Special rules for parking and vanpools.

Q-20. How is the value of parking determined?

Q-21. How do the qualified transportation fringe rules apply to van pools?

(6) Reporting and employment taxes.

Q-22. What are the reporting and employment tax requirements for qualified transportation fringes?

(7) Interaction with other fringe benefits.

Q-23. How does section 132(f) interact with other fringe benefit rules?

(8) Application to individuals who are not employees.

Q-24. May qualified transportation fringes be provided to individuals who are partners, 2-percent shareholders of S-corporations, or independent contractors?

(9) Effective date.

Q-25. What is the effective date of this section?

(b) Questions and answers.

Q-1. What is a qualified transportation fringe?

A-1. (a) The following benefits are qualified transportation fringe benefits:

(1) Transportation in a commuter highway vehicle.

(2) Transit passes.

(3) Qualified parking.

(b) An employer may simultaneously provide an employee with any one or more of these three benefits.

Q-2. What is transportation in a commuter highway vehicle?

A-2. Transportation in a commuter highway vehicle is transportation provided by an employer to an employee in connection with travel between the employee's residence and place of employment. A commuter highway vehicle is a highway vehicle with a seating capacity of at least 6 adults (excluding the driver) and with respect to which at least 80 percent of the vehicle's mileage for a year is reasonably expected to be—

(a) For transporting employees in connection with travel between their residences and their place of employment; and

(b) On trips during which the number of employees transported for commuting is at least one-half of the adult seating capacity of the vehicle (excluding the driver).

Q-3. What are transit passes?

A-3. A transit pass is any pass, token, farecard, voucher, or similar item (including an item exchangeable for fare media) that entitles a person to transportation—

(a) On mass transit facilities (whether or not publicly owned); or

(b) Provided by any person in the business of transporting persons for compensation or hire in a highway vehicle with a seating capacity of at least 6 adults (excluding the driver).

Q-4. What is qualified parking?

A-4. (a) Qualified parking is parking provided to an employee by an employer—

(1) On or near the employer's business premises; or

(2) At a location from which the employee commutes to work (including commuting by carpool, commuter highway vehicle, mass transit facilities, or transportation provided by any person in the business of transporting persons for compensation or hire).

(b) For purposes of section 132(f), parking on or near the employer's business premises includes parking on or near a work location at which the employee provides services for the employer. However, qualified parking does not include—

(1) The value of parking provided to an employee that is excludable from gross income under section 132(a)(3) (as a working condition fringe), or

(2) Reimbursement paid to an employee for parking costs that is excludable from gross income as an amount treated as paid under an accountable plan. See § 1.62-2.

(c) However, parking on or near property used by the employee for residential purposes is not qualified parking.

(d) Parking is provided by an employer if—

(1) The parking is on property that the employer owns or leases;

(2) The employer pays for the parking; or

(3) The employer reimburses the employee for parking expenses (see Q/A-16 of this section for rules relating to cash reimbursements).

Q-5. May qualified transportation fringes be provided to individuals who are not employees?

A-5. An employer may provide qualified transportation fringes only to individuals who are currently employees of the employer at the time the qualified transportation fringe is provided. The term employee for purposes of qualified transportation fringes is defined in § 1.132-1(b)(2)(i). This term includes only common law employees and other statutory employees, such as officers of corporations. See Q/A-24 of this section for rules regarding partners, 2-percent shareholders, and independent contractors.

Q-6. Must a qualified transportation fringe benefit plan be in writing?

A-6. No. Section 132(f) does not require that a qualified transportation fringe benefit plan be in writing.

Q-7. Is there a limit on the value of qualified transportation fringes that may be excluded from an employee's gross income?

A-7. (a) Transportation in a commuter highway vehicle and transit passes. Before January 1, 2002, up to $65 per month is excludable from the gross income of an employee for transportation in a commuter highway vehicle and transit passes provided by an employer. On January 1, 2002, this amount is increased to $100 per month.

(b) Parking. Up to $175 per month is excludable from the gross income of an employee for qualified parking.

(c) Combination. An employer may provide qualified parking benefits in addition to transportation in a commuter highway vehicle and transit passes.

(d) Cost-of-living adjustments. The amounts in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this Q/A-7 are adjusted annually, beginning with 2000, to reflect cost-of-living. The adjusted figures are announced by the Service before the beginning of the year.

Q-8. What amount is includible in an employee's wages for income and employment tax purposes if the value of the qualified transportation fringe exceeds the applicable statutory monthly limit?

A-8. (a) Generally, an employee must include in gross income the amount by which the fair market value of the benefit exceeds the sum of the amount, if any, paid by the employee and any amount excluded from gross income under section 132(a)(5). Thus, assuming no other statutory exclusion applies, if an employer provides an employee with a qualified transportation fringe that exceeds the applicable statutory monthly limit and the employee does not make any payment, the value of the benefits provided in excess of the applicable statutory monthly limit is included in the employee's wages for income and employment tax purposes. See § 1.61-21(b)(1).

(b) The following examples illustrate the principles of this Q/A-8:

Example 1.

(i) For each month in a year in which the statutory monthly transit pass limit is $100 (i.e., a year after 2001), Employer M provides a transit pass valued at $110 to Employee D, who does not pay any amount to Employer M for the transit pass.

(ii) In this Example 1, because the value of the monthly transit pass exceeds the statutory monthly limit by $10, $120 ($110—$100, times 12 months) must be included in D's wages for income and employment tax purposes for the year with respect to the transit passes.

Example 2.

(i) For each month in a year in which the statutory monthly qualified parking limit is $175, Employer M provides qualified parking valued at $195 to Employee E, who does not pay any amount to M for the parking.

(ii) In this Example 2, because the fair market value of the qualified parking exceeds the statutory monthly limit by $20, $240 ($195—$175, times 12 months) must be included in Employee E's wages for income and employment tax purposes for the year with respect to the qualified parking.

Example 3.

(i) For each month in a year in which the statutory monthly qualified parking limit is $175, Employer P provides qualified parking with a fair market value of $220 per month to its employees, but charges each employee $45 per month.

(ii) In this Example 3, because the sum of the amount paid by an employee ($45) plus the amount excludable for qualified parking ($175) is not less than the fair market value of the monthly benefit, no amount is includible in the employee's wages for income and employment tax purposes with respect to the qualified parking.

Q-9. Are excludable qualified transportation fringes calculated on a monthly basis?

A-9. (a) In general. Yes. The value of transportation in a commuter highway vehicle, transit passes, and qualified parking is calculated on a monthly basis to determine whether the value of the benefit has exceeded the applicable statutory monthly limit on qualified transportation fringes. Except in the case of a transit pass provided to an employee, the applicable statutory monthly limit applies to qualified transportation fringes used by the employee in a month. Monthly exclusion amounts are not combined to provide a qualified transportation fringe for any month exceeding the statutory limit. A month is a calendar month or a substantially equivalent period applied consistently.

(b) Transit passes. In the case of transit passes provided to an employee, the applicable statutory monthly limit applies to the transit passes provided by the employer to the employee in a month for that month or for any previous month in the calendar year. In addition, transit passes distributed in advance for more than one month, but not for more than twelve months, are qualified transportation fringes if the requirements in paragraph (c) of this Q/A-9 are met (relating to the income tax and employment tax treatment of advance transit passes). The applicable statutory monthly limit under section 132(f)(2) on the combined amount of transportation in a commuter highway vehicle and transit passes may be calculated by taking into account the monthly limits for all months for which the transit passes are distributed. In the case of a pass that is valid for more than one month, such as an annual pass, the value of the pass may be divided by the number of months for which it is valid for purposes of determining whether the value of the pass exceeds the statutory monthly limit.

(c) Rule if employee's employment terminates—(1) Income tax treatment. The value of transit passes provided in advance to an employee with respect to a month in which the individual is not an employee is included in the employee's wages for income tax purposes.

(2) Reporting and employment tax treatment. Transit passes distributed in advance to an employee are excludable from wages for employment tax purposes under sections 3121, 3306, and 3401 (FICA, FUTA, and income tax withholding) if the employer distributes transit passes to the employee in advance for not more than three months and, at the time the transit passes are distributed, there is not an established date that the employee's employment will terminate (for example, if the employee has given notice of retirement) which will occur before the beginning of the last month of the period for which the transit passes are provided. If the employer distributes transit passes to an employee in advance for not more than three months and at the time the transit passes are distributed there is an established date that the employee's employment will terminate, and the employee's employment does terminate before the beginning of the last month of the period for which the transit passes are provided, the value of transit passes provided for months beginning after the date of termination during which the employee is not employed by the employer is included in the employee's wages for employment tax purposes. If transit passes are distributed in advance for more than three months, the value of transit passes provided for the months during which the employee is not employed by the employer is includible in the employee's wages for employment tax purposes regardless of whether at the time the transit passes were distributed there was an established date of termination of the employee's employment.

(d) Examples. The following examples illustrate the principles of this Q/A-9:

Example 1.

(i) Employee E incurs $150 for qualified parking used during the month of June of a year in which the statutory monthly parking limit is $175, for which E is reimbursed $150 by Employer R. Employee E incurs $180 in expenses for qualified parking used during the month of July of that year, for which E is reimbursed $180 by Employer R.

(ii) In this Example 1, because monthly exclusion amounts may not be combined to provide a benefit in any month greater than the applicable statutory limit, the amount by which the amount reimbursed for July exceeds the applicable statutory monthly limit ($180 minus $175 equals $5) is includible in Employee E's wages for income and employment tax purposes.

Example 2.

(i) Employee F receives transit passes from Employer G with a value of $195 in March of a year (for which the statutory monthly transit pass limit is $65) for January, February, and March of that year. F was hired during January and has not received any transit passes from G.

(ii) In this Example 2, the value of the transit passes (three months times $65 equals $195) is excludable from F's wages for income and employment tax purposes.

Example 3.

(i) Employer S has a qualified transportation fringe benefit plan under which its employees receive transit passes near the beginning of each calendar quarter for that calendar quarter. All employees of Employer S receive transit passes from Employer S with a value of $195 on March 31 for the second calendar quarter covering the months April, May, and June (of a year in which the statutory monthly transit pass limit is $65).

(ii) In this Example 3, because the value of the transit passes may be calculated by taking into account the monthly limits for all months for which the transit passes are distributed, the value of the transit passes (three months times $65 equals $195) is excludable from the employees' wages for income and employment tax purposes.

Example 4.

(i) Same facts as in Example 3, except that Employee T, an employee of Employer S, terminates employment with S on May 31. There was not an established date of termination for Employee T at the time the transit passes were distributed.

(ii) In this Example 4, because at the time the transit passes were distributed there was not an established date of termination for Employee T, the value of the transit passes provided for June ($65) is excludable from T's wages for employment tax purposes. However, the value of the transit passes distributed to Employee T for June ($65) is not excludable from T's wages for income tax purposes.

(iii) If Employee T's May 31 termination date was established at the time the transit passes were provided, the value of the transit passes provided for June ($65) is included in T's wages for both income and employment tax purposes.

Example 5.

(i) Employer F has a qualified transportation fringe benefit plan under which its employees receive transit passes semi-annually in advance of the months for which the transit passes are provided. All employees of Employer F, including Employee X, receive transit passes from F with a value of $390 on June 30 for the 6 months of July through December (of a year in which the statutory monthly transit pass limit is $65). Employee X's employment terminates and his last day of work is August 1. Employer F's other employees remain employed throughout the remainder of the year.

(ii) In this Example 5, the value of the transit passes provided to Employee X for the months September, October, November, and December ($65 times 4 months equals $260) of the year is included in X's wages for income and employment tax purposes. The value of the transit passes provided to Employer F's other employees is excludable from the employees' wages for income and employment tax purposes.

Example 6.

(i) Each month during a year in which the statutory monthly transit pass limit is $65, Employer R distributes transit passes with a face amount of $70 to each of its employees. Transit passes with a face amount of $70 can be purchased from the transit system by any individual for $65.

(ii) In this Example 6, because the value of the transit passes distributed by Employer R does not exceed the applicable statutory monthly limit ($65), no portion of the value of the transit passes is included as wages for income and employment tax purposes.

Q-10. May an employee receive qualified transportation fringes from more than one employer?

A-10. (a) General rule. Yes. The statutory monthly limits described in Q/A-7 of this section apply to benefits provided by an employer to its employees. For this purpose, all employees treated as employed by a single employer under section 414(b), (c), (m), or (o) are treated as employed by a single employer. See section 414(t) and § 1.132-1(c). Thus, qualified transportation fringes paid by entities under common control under section 414(b), (c), (m), or (o) are combined for purposes of applying the applicable statutory monthly limit. In addition, an individual who is treated as a leased employee of the employer under section 414(n) is treated as an employee of that employer for purposes of section 132. See section 414(n)(3)(C).

(b) Examples. The following examples illustrate the principles of this Q/A-10:

Example 1.

(i) During a year in which the statutory monthly qualified parking limit is $175, Employee E works for Employers M and N, who are unrelated and not treated as a single employer under section 414(b), (c), (m), or (o). Each month, M and N each provide qualified parking benefits to E with a value of $100.

(ii) In this Example 1, because M and N are unrelated employers, and the value of the monthly parking benefit provided by each is not more than the applicable statutory monthly limit, the parking benefits provided by each employer are excludable as qualified transportation fringes assuming that the other requirements of this section are satisfied.

Example 2.

(i) Same facts as in Example 1, except that Employers M and N are treated as a single employer under section 414(b).

(ii) In this Example 2, because M and N are treated as a single employer, the value of the monthly parking benefit provided by M and N must be combined for purposes of determining whether the applicable statutory monthly limit has been exceeded. Thus, the amount by which the value of the parking benefit exceeds the monthly limit ($200 minus the monthly limit amount of $175 equals $25) for each month in the year is includible in E's wages for income and employment tax purposes.

Q-11. May qualified transportation fringes be provided to employees pursuant to a compensation reduction agreement?

A-11. Yes. An employer may offer employees a choice between cash compensation and any qualified transportation fringe. An employee who is offered this choice and who elects qualified transportation fringes is not required to include the cash compensation in income if—

(a) The election is pursuant to an arrangement described in Q/A-12 of this section;

(b) The amount of the reduction in cash compensation does not exceed the limitation in Q/A-13 of this section;

(c) The arrangement satisfies the timing and reimbursement rules in Q/A-14 and 16 of this section; and

(d) The related fringe benefit arrangement otherwise satisfies the requirements set forth elsewhere in this section.

Q-12. What is a compensation reduction election for purposes of section 132(f)?

A-12. (a) Election requirements generally. A compensation reduction arrangement is an arrangement under which the employer provides the employee with the right to elect whether the employee will receive either a fixed amount of cash compensation at a specified future date or a fixed amount of qualified transportation fringes to be provided for a specified future period (such as qualified parking to be used during a future calendar month). The employee's election must be in writing or another form, such as electronic, that includes, in a permanent and verifiable form, the information required to be in the election. The election must contain the date of the election, the amount of the compensation to be reduced, and the period for which the benefit will be provided. The election must relate to a fixed dollar amount or fixed percentage of compensation reduction. An election to reduce compensation for a period by a set amount for such period may be automatically renewed for subsequent periods.

(b) Automatic election permitted. An employer may provide under its qualified transportation fringe benefit plan that a compensation reduction election will be deemed to have been made if the employee does not elect to receive cash compensation in lieu of the qualified transportation fringe, provided that the employee receives adequate notice that a compensation reduction will be made and is given adequate opportunity to choose to receive the cash compensation instead of the qualified transportation fringe. See § 1.401(a)-21 of this chapter for rules permitting the use of electronic media to make participant elections with respect to employee benefit arrangements.

Q-13. Is there a limit to the amount of the compensation reduction?

A-13. Yes. Each month, the amount of the compensation reduction may not exceed the combined applicable statutory monthly limits for transportation in a commuter highway vehicle, transit passes, and qualified parking. For example, for a year in which the statutory monthly limit is $65 for transportation in a commuter highway vehicle and transit passes, and $175 for qualified parking, an employee could elect to reduce compensation for any month by no more than $240 ($65 plus $175) with respect to qualified transportation fringes. If an employee were to elect to reduce compensation by $250 for a month, the excess $10 ($250 minus $240) would be includible in the employee's wages for income and employment tax purposes.

Q-14. When must the employee have made a compensation reduction election and under what circumstances may the amount be paid in cash to the employee?

A-14. (a) The compensation reduction election must satisfy the requirements set forth under paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this Q/A-14.

(b) Timing of election. The compensation reduction election must be made before the employee is able currently to receive the cash or other taxable amount at the employee's discretion. The determination of whether the employee is able currently to receive the cash does not depend on whether it has been constructively received for purposes of section 451. The election must specify that the period (such as a calendar month) for which the qualified transportation fringe will be provided must not begin before the election is made. Thus, a compensation reduction election must relate to qualified transportation fringes to be provided after the election. For this purpose, the date a qualified transportation fringe is provided is—

(1) The date the employee receives a voucher or similar item; or

(2) In any other case, the date the employee uses the qualified transportation fringe.

(c) Revocability of elections. The employee may not revoke a compensation reduction election after the employee is able currently to receive the cash or other taxable amount at the employee's discretion. In addition, the election may not be revoked after the beginning of the period for which the qualified transportation fringe will be provided.

(d) Compensation reduction amounts not refundable. Unless an election is revoked in a manner consistent with paragraph (c) of this Q/A-14, an employee may not subsequently receive the compensation (in cash or any form other than by payment of a qualified transportation fringe under the employer's plan). Thus, an employer's qualified transportation fringe benefit plan may not provide that an employee who ceases to participate in the employer's qualified transportation fringe benefit plan (such as in the case of termination of employment) is entitled to receive a refund of the amount by which the employee's compensation reductions exceed the actual qualified transportation fringes provided to the employee by the employer.

(e) Examples. The following examples illustrate the principles of this Q/A-14:

Example 1.

(i) Employer P maintains a qualified transportation fringe benefit arrangement during a year in which the statutory monthly limit is $100 for transportation in a commuter highway vehicle and transit passes (2002 or later) and $180 for qualified parking. Employees of P are paid cash compensation twice per month, with the payroll dates being the first and the fifteenth day of the month. Under P's arrangement, an employee is permitted to elect at any time before the first day of a month to reduce his or her compensation payable during that month in an amount up to the applicable statutory monthly limit ($100 if the employee elects coverage for transportation in a commuter highway vehicle or a mass transit pass, or $180 if the employee chooses qualified parking) in return for the right to receive qualified transportation fringes up to the amount of the election. If such an election is made, P will provide a mass transit pass for that month with a value not exceeding the compensation reduction amount elected by the employee or will reimburse the cost of other qualified transportation fringes used by the employee on or after the first day of that month up to the compensation reduction amount elected by the employee. Any compensation reduction amount elected by the employee for the month that is not used for qualified transportation fringes is not refunded to the employee at any future date.

(ii) In this Example 1, the arrangement satisfies the requirements of this Q/A-14 because the election is made before the employee is able currently to receive the cash and the election specifies the future period for which the qualified transportation fringes will be provided. The arrangement would also satisfy the requirements of this Q/A-14 and Q/A-13 of this section if employees are allowed to elect to reduce compensation up to $280 per month ($100 plus $180).

(iii) The arrangement would also satisfy the requirements of this Q/A-14 (and Q/A-13 of this section) if employees are allowed to make an election at any time before the first or the fifteenth day of the month to reduce their compensation payable on that payroll date by an amount not in excess of one-half of the applicable statutory monthly limit (depending on the type of qualified transportation fringe elected by the employee) and P provides a mass transit pass on or after the applicable payroll date for the compensation reduction amount elected by the employee for the payroll date or reimburses the cost of other qualified transportation fringes used by the employee on or after the payroll date up to the compensation reduction amount elected by the employee for that payroll date.

Example 2.

(i) Employee Q elects to reduce his compensation payable on March 1 of a year (for which the statutory monthly mass transit limit is $65) by $195 in exchange for a mass transit voucher to be provided in March. The election is made on the preceding February 27. Employee Q was hired in January of the year. On March 10 of the year, the employer of Employee Q delivers to Employee Q a mass transit voucher worth $195 for the months of January, February, and March.

(ii) In this Example 2, $65 is included in Employee Q's wages for income and employment tax purposes because the compensation reduction election fails to satisfy the requirement in this Q/A-14 and Q/A-12 of this section that the period for which the qualified transportation fringe will be provided not begin before the election is made to the extent the election relates to $65 worth of transit passes for January of the year. The $65 for February is not taxable because the election was for a future period that includes at least one day in February.

(iii) However, no amount would be included in Employee Q's wages as a result of the election if $195 worth of mass transit passes were instead provided to Q for the months of February, March, and April (because the compensation reduction would relate solely to fringes to be provided for a period not beginning before the date of the election and the amount provided does not exceed the aggregate limit for the period, i.e., the sum of $65 for each of February, March, and April). See Q/A-9 of this section for rules governing transit passes distributed in advance for more than one month.

Example 3.

(i) Employee R elects to reduce his compensation payable on March 1 of a year (for which the statutory monthly parking limit is $175) by $185 in exchange for reimbursement by Employer T of parking expenses incurred by Employee R for parking on or near Employer T's business premises during the period beginning after the date of the election through March. The election is made on the preceding February 27. Employee R incurs $10 in parking expenses on February 28 of the year, and $175 in parking expenses during the month of March. On April 5 of the year, Employer T reimburses Employee R $185 for the parking expenses incurred on February 28, and during March, of the year.

(ii) In this Example 3, no amount would be includible in Employee R's wages for income and employment tax purposes because the compensation reduction related solely to parking on or near Employer R's business premises used during a period not beginning before the date of the election and the amount reimbursed for parking used in any one month does not exceed the statutory monthly limitation.

Q-15. May an employee whose qualified transportation fringe costs are less than the employee's compensation reduction carry over this excess amount to subsequent periods?

A-15. (a) Yes. An employee may carry over unused compensation reduction amounts to subsequent periods under the plan of the employee's employer.

(b) The following example illustrates the principles of this Q/A-15:

Example.

(i) By an election made before November 1 of a year for which the statutory monthly mass transit limit is $65, Employee E elects to reduce compensation in the amount of $65 for the month of November. E incurs $50 in employee-operated commuter highway vehicle expenses during November for which E is reimbursed $50 by Employer R, E's employer. By an election made before December, E elects to reduce compensation by $65 for the month of December. E incurs $65 in employee-operated commuter highway vehicle expenses during December for which E is reimbursed $65 by R. Before the following January, E elects to reduce compensation by $50 for the month of January. E incurs $65 in employee-operated commuter highway vehicle expenses during January for which E is reimbursed $65 by R because R allows E to carry over to the next year the $15 amount by which the compensation reductions for November and December exceeded the employee-operated commuter highway vehicle expenses incurred during those months.

(ii) In this Example, because Employee E is reimbursed in an amount not exceeding the applicable statutory monthly limit, and the reimbursement does not exceed the amount of employee-operated commuter highway vehicle expenses incurred during the month of January, the amount reimbursed ($65) is excludable from E's wages for income and employment tax purposes.

Q-16. How does section 132(f) apply to expense reimbursements?

A-16. (a) In general. The term qualified transportation fringe includes cash reimbursement by an employer to an employee for expenses incurred or paid by an employee for transportation in a commuter highway vehicle or qualified parking. The term qualified transportation fringe also includes cash reimbursement for transit passes made under a bona fide reimbursement arrangement, but, in accordance with section 132(f)(3), only if permitted under paragraph (b) of this Q/A-16. The reimbursement must be made under a bona fide reimbursement arrangement which meets the rules of paragraph (c) of this Q/A-16. A payment made before the date an expense has been incurred or paid is not a reimbursement. In addition, a bona fide reimbursement arrangement does not include an arrangement that is dependent solely upon an employee certifying in advance that the employee will incur expenses at some future date.

(b) Special rule for transit passes—(1) In general. The term qualified transportation fringe includes cash reimbursement for transit passes made under a bona fide reimbursement arrangement, but, in accordance with section 132(f)(3), only if no voucher or similar item that may be exchanged only for a transit pass is readily available for direct distribution by the employer to employees. If a voucher is readily available, the requirement that a voucher be distributed in-kind by the employer is satisfied if the voucher is distributed by the employer or by another person on behalf of the employer (for example, if a transit operator credits amounts to the employee's fare card as a result of payments made to the operator by the employer).

(2) Voucher or similar item. For purposes of the special rule in paragraph (b) of this Q/A-16, a transit system voucher is an instrument that may be purchased by employers from a voucher provider that is accepted by one or more mass transit operators (e.g., train, subway, and bus) in an area as fare media or in exchange for fare media. Thus, for example, a transit pass that may be purchased by employers directly from a voucher provider is a transit system voucher.

(3) Voucher provider. The term voucher provider means any person in the trade or business of selling transit system vouchers to employers, or any transit system or transit operator that sells vouchers to employers for the purpose of direct distribution to employees. Thus, a transit operator might or might not be a voucher provider. A voucher provider is not, for example, a third-party employee benefits administrator that administers a transit pass benefit program for an employer using vouchers that the employer could obtain directly.

(4) Readily available. For purposes of this paragraph (b), a voucher or similar item is readily available for direct distribution by the employer to employees if and only if an employer can obtain it from a voucher provider that—

(i) does not impose fare media charges that cause vouchers to not be readily available as described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section; and

(ii) does not impose other restrictions that cause vouchers to not be readily available as described in paragraph (b)(6) of this section.

(5) Fare media charges. For purposes of paragraph (b)(4) of this section, fare media charges relate only to fees paid by the employer to voucher providers for vouchers. The determination of whether obtaining a voucher would result in fare media charges that cause vouchers to not be readily available as described in this paragraph (b) is made with respect to each transit system voucher. If more than one transit system voucher is available for direct distribution to employees, the employer must consider the fees imposed for the lowest cost monthly voucher for purposes of determining whether the fees imposed by the voucher provider satisfy this paragraph. However, if transit system vouchers for multiple transit systems are required in an area to meet the transit needs of the individual employees in that area, the employer has the option of averaging the costs applied to each transit system voucher for purposes of determining whether the fare media charges for transit system vouchers satisfy this paragraph. Fare media charges are described in this paragraph (b)(5), and therefore cause vouchers to not be readily available, if and only if the average annual fare media charges that the employer reasonably expects to incur for transit system vouchers purchased from the voucher provider (disregarding reasonable and customary delivery charges imposed by the voucher provider, e.g., not in excess of $15) are more than 1 percent of the average annual value of the vouchers for a transit system.

(6) Other restrictions. For purposes of paragraph (b)(4) of this section, restrictions that cause vouchers to not be readily available are restrictions imposed by the voucher provider other than fare media charges that effectively prevent the employer from obtaining vouchers appropriate for distribution to employees. Examples of such restrictions include—

(i) Advance purchase requirements. Advance purchase requirements cause vouchers to not be readily available only if the voucher provider does not offer vouchers at regular intervals or fails to provide the voucher within a reasonable period after receiving payment for the voucher. For example, a requirement that vouchers may be purchased only once per year may effectively prevent an employer from obtaining vouchers for distribution to employees. An advance purchase requirement that vouchers be purchased not more frequently than monthly does not effectively prevent the employer from obtaining vouchers for distribution to employees.

(ii) Purchase quantity requirements. Purchase quantity requirements cause vouchers to not be readily available if the voucher provider does not offer vouchers in quantities that are reasonably appropriate to the number of the employer's employees who use mass transportation (for example, the voucher provider requires a $1,000 minimum purchase and the employer seeks to purchase only $200 of vouchers).

(iii) Limitations on denominations of vouchers that are available. If the voucher provider does not offer vouchers in denominations appropriate for distribution to the employer's employees, vouchers are not readily available. For example, vouchers provided in $5 increments up to the monthly limit are appropriate for distribution to employees, while vouchers available only in a denomination equal to the monthly limit are not appropriate for distribution to employees if the amount of the benefit provided to the employer's employees each month is normally less than the monthly limit.

(7) Example. The following example illustrates the principles of this paragraph (b):

Example.

(i) Company C in City X sells mass transit vouchers to employers in the metropolitan area of X in various denominations appropriate for distribution to employees. Employers can purchase vouchers monthly in reasonably appropriate quantities. Several different bus, rail, van pool, and ferry operators service X, and a number of the operators accept the vouchers either as fare media or in exchange for fare media. To cover its operating expenses, C imposes on each voucher a 50 cents charge, plus a reasonable and customary $15 charge for delivery of each order of vouchers. Employer M disburses vouchers purchased from C to its employees who use operators that accept the vouchers and M reasonably expects that $55 is the average value of the voucher it will purchase from C for the next calendar year.

(ii) In this Example, vouchers for X are readily available for direct distribution by the employer to employees because the expected cost of the vouchers disbursed to M's employees for the next calendar year is not more than 1 percent of the value of the vouchers (50 cents divided by $55 equals 0.91 percent), the delivery charges are disregarded because they are reasonable and customary, and there are no other restrictions that cause the vouchers to not be readily available. Thus, any reimbursement of mass transportation costs in X would not be a qualified transportation fringe.

(c) Substantiation requirements. Employers that make cash reimbursements must establish a bona fide reimbursement arrangement to establish that their employees have, in fact, incurred expenses for transportation in a commuter highway vehicle, transit passes, or qualified parking. For purposes of section 132(f), whether cash reimbursements are made under a bona fide reimbursement arrangement may vary depending on the facts and circumstances, including the method or methods of payment utilized within the mass transit system. The employer must implement reasonable procedures to ensure that an amount equal to the reimbursement was incurred for transportation in a commuter highway vehicle, transit passes, or qualified parking. The expense must be substantiated within a reasonable period of time. An expense substantiated to the payor within 180 days after it has been paid will be treated as having been substantiated within a reasonable period of time. An employee certification at the time of reimbursement in either written or electronic form may be a reasonable reimbursement procedure depending on the facts and circumstances. Examples of reasonable reimbursement procedures are set forth in paragraph (d) of this Q/A-16.

(d) Illustrations of reasonable reimbursement procedures. The following are examples of reasonable reimbursement procedures for purposes of paragraph (c) of this Q/A-16. In each case, the reimbursement is made at or within a reasonable period after the end of the events described in paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(3) of this section.

(1) An employee presents to the employer a parking expense receipt for parking on or near the employer's business premises, the employee certifies that the parking was used by the employee, and the employer has no reason to doubt the employee's certification.

(2) An employee either submits a used time-sensitive transit pass (such as a monthly pass) to the employer and certifies that he or she purchased it or presents an unused or used transit pass to the employer and certifies that he or she purchased it and the employee certifies that he or she has not previously been reimbursed for the transit pass. In both cases, the employer has no reason to doubt the employee's certification.

(3) If a receipt is not provided in the ordinary course of business (e.g., if the employee uses metered parking or if used transit passes cannot be returned to the user), the employee certifies to the employer the type and the amount of expenses incurred, and the employer has no reason to doubt the employee's certification.

Q-17. May an employer provide nontaxable cash reimbursement under section 132(f) for periods longer than one month?

A-17. (a) General rule. Yes. Qualified transportation fringes include reimbursement to employees for costs incurred for transportation in more than one month, provided the reimbursement for each month in the period is calculated separately and does not exceed the applicable statutory monthly limit for any month in the period. See Q/A-8 and 9 of this section if the limit for a month is exceeded.

(b) Example. The following example illustrates the principles of this Q/A-17:

Example.

(i) Employee R pays $100 per month for qualified parking used during the period from April 1 through June 30 of a year in which the statutory monthly qualified parking limit is $175. After receiving adequate substantiation from Employee R, R's employer reimburses R $300 in cash on June 30 of that year.

(ii) In this Example, because the value of the reimbursed expenses for each month did not exceed the applicable statutory monthly limit, the $300 reimbursement is excludable from R's wages for income and employment tax purposes as a qualified transportation fringe.

Q-18. What are the substantiation requirements if an employer distributes transit passes?

A-18. There are no substantiation requirements if the employer distributes transit passes. Thus, an employer may distribute a transit pass for each month with a value not more than the statutory monthly limit without requiring any certification from the employee regarding the use of the transit pass.

Q-19. May an employer choose to impose substantiation requirements in addition to those described in this regulation?

A-19. Yes.

Q-20. How is the value of parking determined?

A-20. Section 1.61-21(b)(2) applies for purposes of determining the value of parking.

Q-21. How do the qualified transportation fringe rules apply to van pools?

A-21. (a) Van pools generally. Employer and employee-operated van pools, as well as private or public transit-operated van pools, may qualify as qualified transportation fringes. The value of van pool benefits which are qualified transportation fringes may be excluded up to the applicable statutory monthly limit for transportation in a commuter highway vehicle and transit passes, less the value of any transit passes provided by the employer for the month.

(b) Employer-operated van pools. The value of van pool transportation provided by or for an employer to its employees is excludable as a qualified transportation fringe, provided the van qualifies as a commuter highway vehicle as defined in section 132(f)(5)(B) and Q/A-2 of this section. A van pool is operated by or for the employer if the employer purchases or leases vans to enable employees to commute together or the employer contracts with and pays a third party to provide the vans and some or all of the costs of operating the vans, including maintenance, liability insurance and other operating expenses.

(c) Employee-operated van pools. Cash reimbursement by an employer to employees for expenses incurred for transportation in a van pool operated by employees independent of their employer are excludable as qualified transportation fringes, provided that the van qualifies as a commuter highway vehicle as defined in section 132(f)(5)(B) and Q/A-2 of this section. See Q/A-16 of this section for the rules governing cash reimbursements.

(d) Private or public transit-operated van pool transit passes. The qualified transportation fringe exclusion for transit passes is available for travel in van pools owned and operated either by public transit authorities or by any person in the business of transporting persons for compensation or hire. In accordance with paragraph (b) of Q/A-3 of this section, the van must seat at least 6 adults (excluding the driver). See Q/A-16(b) and (c) of this section for a special rule for cash reimbursement for transit passes and the substantiation requirements for cash reimbursement.

(e) Value of van pool transportation benefits. Section 1.61-21(b)(2) provides that the fair market value of a fringe benefit is based on all the facts and circumstances. Alternatively, transportation in an employer-provided commuter highway vehicle may be valued under the automobile lease valuation rule in § 1.61-21(d), the vehicle cents-per-mile rule in § 1.61-21(e), or the commuting valuation rule in § 1.61-21(f). If one of these special valuation rules is used, the employer must use the same valuation rule to value the use of the commuter highway vehicle by each employee who share the use. See § 1.61-21(c)(2)(i)(B).

(f) Qualified parking prime member. If an employee obtains a qualified parking space as a result of membership in a car or van pool, the applicable statutory monthly limit for qualified parking applies to the individual to whom the parking space is assigned. This individual is the prime member. In determining the tax consequences to the prime member, the statutory monthly limit amounts of each car pool member may not be combined. If the employer provides access to the space and the space is not assigned to a particular individual, then the employer must designate one of its employees as the prime member who will bear the tax consequences. The employer may not designate more than one prime member for a car or van pool during a month. The employer of the prime member is responsible for including the value of the qualified parking in excess of the statutory monthly limit in the prime member's wages for income and employment tax purposes.

Q-22. What are the reporting and employment tax requirements for qualified transportation fringes?

A-22. (a) Employment tax treatment generally. Qualified transportation fringes not exceeding the applicable statutory monthly limit described in Q/A-7 of this section are not wages for purposes of the Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA), the Federal Unemployment Tax Act (FUTA), and federal income tax withholding. Any amount by which an employee elects to reduce compensation as provided in Q/A-11 of this section is not subject to the FICA, the FUTA, and federal income tax withholding. Qualified transportation fringes exceeding the applicable statutory monthly limit described in Q/A-7 of this section are wages for purposes of the FICA, the FUTA, and federal income tax withholding and are reported on the employee's Form W-2, Wage and Tax Statement.

(b) Employment tax treatment of cash reimbursement exceeding monthly limits. Cash reimbursement to employees (for example, cash reimbursement for qualified parking) in excess of the applicable statutory monthly limit under section 132(f) is treated as paid for employment tax purposes when actually or constructively paid. See §§ 31.3121(a)-2(a), 31.3301-4, 31.3402(a)-1(b) of this chapter. Employers must report and deposit the amounts withheld in addition to reporting and depositing other employment taxes. See Q/A-16 of this section for rules governing cash reimbursements.

(c) Noncash fringe benefits exceeding monthly limits. If the value of noncash qualified transportation fringes exceeds the applicable statutory monthly limit, the employer may elect, for purposes of the FICA, the FUTA, and federal income tax withholding, to treat the noncash taxable fringe benefits as paid on a pay period, quarterly, semi-annual, annual, or other basis, provided that the benefits are treated as paid no less frequently than annually.

Q-23. How does section 132(f) interact with other fringe benefit rules?

A-23. For purposes of section 132, the terms working condition fringe and de minimis fringe do not include any qualified transportation fringe under section 132(f). If, however, an employer provides local transportation other than transit passes (without any direct or indirect compensation reduction election), the value of the benefit may be excludable, either totally or partially, under fringe benefit rules other than the qualified transportation fringe rules under section 132(f). See §§ 1.132-6(d)(2)(i) (occasional local transportation fare), 1.132-6(d)(2)(iii) (transportation provided under unusual circumstances), and 1.61-21(k) (valuation of local transportation provided to qualified employees). See also Q/A-4(b) of this section.

Q-24. May qualified transportation fringes be provided to individuals who are partners, 2-percent shareholders of S-corporations, or independent contractors?

A-24. (a) General rule. Section 132(f)(5)(E) states that self-employed individuals who are employees within the meaning of section 401(c)(1) are not employees for purposes of section 132(f). Therefore, individuals who are partners, sole proprietors, or other independent contractors are not employees for purposes of section 132(f). In addition, under section 1372(a), 2-percent shareholders of S corporations are treated as partners for fringe benefit purposes. Thus, an individual who is both a 2-percent shareholder of an S corporation and a common law employee of that S corporation is not considered an employee for purposes of section 132(f). However, while section 132(f) does not apply to individuals who are partners, 2-percent shareholders of S corporations, or independent contractors, other exclusions for working condition and de minimis fringes may be available as described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Q/A-24. See §§ 1.132-1(b)(2) and 1.132-1(b)(4).

(b) Transit passes. The working condition and de minimis fringe exclusions under section 132(a)(3) and (4) are available for transit passes provided to individuals who are partners, 2-percent shareholders, and independent contractors. For example, tokens or farecards provided by a partnership to an individual who is a partner that enable the partner to commute on a public transit system (not including privately-operated van pools) are excludable from the partner's gross income if the value of the tokens and farecards in any month does not exceed the dollar amount specified in § 1.132-6(d)(1). However, if the value of a pass provided in a month exceeds the dollar amount specified in § 1.132-6(d)(1), the full value of the benefit provided (not merely the amount in excess of the dollar amount specified in § 1.132-6(d)(1)) is includible in gross income.

(c) Parking. The working condition fringe rules under section 132(d) do not apply to commuter parking. See § 1.132-5(a)(1). However, the de minimis fringe rules under section 132(e) are available for parking provided to individuals who are partners, 2-percent shareholders, or independent contractors that qualifies under the de minimis rules. See § 1.132-6(a) and (b).

(d) Example. The following example illustrates the principles of this Q/A-24:

Example.

(i) Individual G is a partner in partnership P. Individual G commutes to and from G's office every day and parks free of charge in P's lot.

(ii) In this Example, the value of the parking is not excluded under section 132(f), but may be excluded under section 132(e) if the parking is a de minimis fringe under § 1.132-6.

Q-25. What is the effective date of this section?

A-25. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Q/A-25, this section is applicable for employee taxable years beginning after December 31, 2001. For this purpose, an employer may assume that the employee taxable year is the calendar year.

(b) The last sentence of paragraph (b)(5) of Q/A-16 of this section (relating to whether transit system vouchers for transit passes are readily available) is applicable for employee taxable years beginning after December 31, 2003. For this purpose, an employer may assume that the employee taxable year is the calendar year.

[T.D. 8933, 66 FR 2244, Jan. 11, 2001; 66 FR 18190, Apr. 6, 2001, as amended by T.D. 9294, 71 FR 61883, Oct. 20, 2006]

§ 1.133-1T Questions and answers relating to interest on certain loans used to acquire employer securities (temporary).

Q-1: What does section 133 provide?

A-1: In general, section 133 provides that certain commercial lenders may exclude from gross income fifty percent of the interest received with respect to securities acquisition loans. A securities acquisition loan is any loan to an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) (as defined in section 4975(e)(7)) that qualifies as an exempt loan under §§ 54.4975-7 and -11 to the extent that the proceeds are used to acquire employer securities (within the meaning of section 409(l)) for the ESOP. A loan made to a corporation sponsoring an ESOP (or to a person related to such corporation under section 133(b)(2)) may also qualify as a securities acquisition loan to the extent and for the period that the proceeds are (a) loaned to the corporation's ESOP under a loan that qualifies as an exempt loan under §§ 54.4975-7 and -11 and that has substantially similar terms as the loan from the commercial lender to the sponsoring corporation, and (b) used to acquire employer securities for the ESOP. The terms of the loan between the commercial lender and the sponsoring corporation (or a related corporation) and the loan between such corporation and the ESOP shall be treated as substantially similar only if the timing and rate at which employer securities would be released from encumbrance if the loan from the commercial lender were the exempt loan under the applicable rule of § 54.4975-7(b)(8) are substantially similar to the timing and rate at which employer securities will actually be released from encumbrance in accordance with such rule. For this purpose, if the loan from the commercial lender to the sponsoring corporation states a variable rate of interest and the loan between the corporation and the ESOP states a fixed rate of interest, whether the terms of the loans are substantially similar shall be determined at the time the obligations are initially issued by taking into account the adjustment interval on the variable rate loan and the maturity of the fixed rate loan. For example, if the rate on the loan from the commercial lender to the sponsoring corporation adjusts each six months and the loan from the corporation to the ESOP has a ten year term, the initial interest rate on the variable rate loan could be compared to the rate on the fixed rate loan by comparing the yields on 6 month and ten year Treasury obligations. Similarly, if the rates on the two loans are based on different compounding assumptions, whether the terms of the loans are substantially similar shall be determined by taking into account the different compounding assumptions. A securities acquisition loan may be evidenced by any note, bond, debenture, or certificate. Also, section 133(b)(2) provides that certain loans between related persons are not securities acquisition loans. In addition, a loan from a commercial lender to an ESOP or sponsoring corporation to purchase employer securities will not be treated as a securities acquisition loan to the extent that such loan is used, either directly or indirectly, to purchase employer securities from any other qualified plan, including any other ESOP, maintained by the employer or any other corporation which is a member of the same controlled group (as defined in section 409(l)(4)).

Q-2: What lenders are eligible to receive the fifty percent interest exclusion?

A-2: Under section 133(a), a bank (within the meaning of section 581), an insurance company to which subchapter L applies, or a corporation (other than a subchapter S corporation) actively engaged in the business of lending money may exclude from gross income fifty percent of the interest received with respect to a securities acquisition loan (as defined in Q&A-1 of § 1.133-1T). For purposes of section 133(a)(3), a corporation is actively engaged in the business of lending money if it lends money to the public on a regular and continuing basis (other than in connection with the purchase by the public of goods and services from the lender or a related party). A corporation is not actively engaged in the business of lending money if a predominant share of the original value of the loans it makes to unrelated parties (other than in connection with the purchase by the public of goods and services from the lender or a related party) are securities acquisition loans.

Q-3: May loans which qualify for the fifty percent interest exclusion under section 133 be syndicated to other lending institutions?

A-3: Securities acquisition loans under section 133 may be syndicated to other lending institutions provided that such lending institutions are described in section 133(a) (1), (2) or (3) and the loan was originated by a qualified holder. Subsequent holders of the debt instrument may qualify for the partial interest exclusion of section 133 if such holders satisfy the requirements of section 133 and such loan does not fail to be a securities acquisition loan under section 133(b)(2).

Q-4: When is section 133 effective?

A-4: Section 133 applies to securities acquisition loans made after July 18, 1984, and used to acquire employer securities after July 18, 1984. The provision does not apply to loans made after July 18, 1984, to the extent that such loans are renegotiations, directly or indirectly, of loans outstanding on such date. A loan extended to an ESOP or sponsoring corporation after July 18, 1984, will be treated as a renegotiation of an outstanding loan if the loan proceeds are used to refinance acquisitions of employer securities made prior to July 19, 1984. For example, if an ESOP borrowed money prior to July 19, 1984, to purchase employer securities and after July 18, 1984, borrows other funds from the same or a different commercial lender to repay the first loan, the second loan will be treated as a renegotiation of an outstanding loan to the extent of the repaid amount. Similarly, if, after July 18, 1984, an ESOP sells employer securities, uses the proceeds to retire a pre-July 19, 1984, loan and obtains a second loan to acquire replacement employer securities, the second loan will be treated as a renegotiation of an outstanding loan.

[T.D. 8073, 51 FR 4319, Feb. 4, 1986]

§ 1.139E-0 Table of contents.

This section lists the major captions for §§ 1.139E-1 and 1.139E-2.

§ 1.139E-1 Tribal general welfare benefits.

(a) Overview.

(b) Definitions.

(1) Act.

(2) Benefit.

(3) Code.

(4) Indian Tribal Government.

(5) Indian Tribal Government Program.

(6) Tribal General Welfare Benefit.

(7) Tribe.

(8) Tribal Program Participant.

(9) Tribal Member.

(10) Dependent.

(c) Indian Tribal Government Program.

(1) In general.

(2) Program must be established.

(3) Program must be administered under specified guidelines.

(4) Program cannot discriminate in favor of members of the governing body of the Tribe.

(5) No limitation on source of funds.

(d) Tribal General Welfare Benefits.

(1) In general.

(2) Benefits must be for the promotion of general welfare.

(3) Benefits must be available.

(4) Benefits cannot be lavish or extravagant.

(5) Benefits cannot be compensation for services.

(6) Loans from an Indian Tribal Government to a Tribal Program Participant.

(e) Cultural or ceremonial activities.

(1) In general.

(2) Application.

(3) Examples.

(f) Section 2(c) of the Act.

(g) Audit suspension.

(h) Applicability date.

§ 1.139E-2 Alaska Native regional or village corporations.

[TD 10040, 90 FR 58400, Dec. 16, 2025]

§ 1.139E-1 Tribal general welfare benefits.

(a) Overview. Under section 139E of the Code and this section, the gross income of a Tribal Program Participant for the taxable year does not include the value of any Tribal General Welfare Benefit provided by an Indian Tribal Government Program during the year to or on behalf of the Tribal Program Participant. Paragraph (b) of this section provides definitions that apply for purposes of this section. Paragraph (c) of this section provides the requirements that any program must satisfy to qualify as an Indian Tribal Government Program for purposes of this section. Paragraph (d) of this section provides the requirements that any benefit provided to or on behalf of a Tribal Program Participant must satisfy to qualify as a Tribal General Welfare Benefit for purposes of this section. Paragraph (e) of this section provides special rules related to cultural or ceremonial activities solely for purposes of this section. Paragraph (f) of this section restates the deference provided to Indian Tribal governments under section 2(c) of the Act. Paragraph (g) of this section describes the audit suspension provisions in section 4(a) of the Act. Paragraph (h) of this section provides the date of applicability of this section.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply for purposes of this section:

(1) Act. The term Act means the Tribal General Welfare Exclusion Act of 2014, Public Law 113-168, 128 Stat. 1883 (2014).

(2) Benefit. The term benefit means any money, property, services, or other item of value provided to or on behalf of an individual.

(3) Code. The term Code means the Internal Revenue Code.

(4) Indian Tribal Government. The term Indian Tribal Government means an Indian Tribal Government as defined by section 7701(a)(40) of the Code and includes any agencies or instrumentalities of such an Indian Tribal Government.

(5) Indian Tribal Government Program. The term Indian Tribal Government Program means a program that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.

(6) Tribal General Welfare Benefit. The term Tribal General Welfare Benefit means any benefit provided to or on behalf of a Tribal Program Participant that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section for exclusion from gross income as an “Indian general welfare benefit” under section 139E of the Code.

(7) Tribe. The term Tribe means any Indian Tribe, band, nation, pueblo, or other organized group or community, including any Alaska Native village as defined in 43 U.S.C. 1602(c), that is recognized as eligible for the special programs and services provided by the United States to Indians because of their status as Indians.

(8) Tribal Program Participant—(i) In general. The term Tribal Program Participant means a Tribal Member, spouse of a Tribal Member within the meaning of § 301.7701-18 of this chapter, spouse of a Tribal Member under applicable Tribal law, dependent of a Tribal Member, or other individual who has been determined by the Indian Tribal Government to be eligible for a Tribal General Welfare Benefit because such individual is, with respect to a Tribal Member, an ancestor, descendant, former spouse, widow or widower, legally recognized domestic partner or former domestic partner, or an individual for whom a Tribal Member is a caregiver authorized under Tribal or State law.

(ii) Special rule for ceremonial or cultural activities. Solely for purposes of paragraph (e) of this section, the term Tribal Program Participant may include a member or citizen of a Tribe that is different from the Tribe that establishes or maintains the Indian Tribal Government Program that provides the Tribal General Welfare Benefit, and other individuals described in paragraph (b)(8)(i) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(8)(ii), in applying paragraph (b)(8)(i) of this section, such member or citizen of another Tribe will be treated as a Tribal Member.

(9) Tribal Member. The term Tribal Member means an individual who is a member or citizen of the Tribe that establishes or maintains the Indian Tribal Government Program because the individual meets the requirements established by applicable Tribal law for enrollment in the Tribe, and:

(i) Is listed on the Tribal rolls of the Tribe if such rolls are kept;

(ii) Is recognized as a member by the Tribe if Tribal rolls are not kept; or

(iii) Is an Indian child as defined in 25 U.S.C. 1903.

(10) Dependent. The term dependent means an individual who is a qualifying child or a qualifying relative, as defined in section 152 of the Code, of a Tribal Member for the taxable year determined:

(i) Without regard to whether the Tribal Member was a qualifying child or qualifying relative, each as defined in section 152, of another taxpayer for a taxable year of the other taxpayer beginning in that calendar year.

(ii) Without regard to whether the individual filed a joint return with the individual's spouse (as defined in section 6013 of the Code) for the taxable year beginning in that calendar year; and

(iii) Without regard to the individual's gross income for the calendar year in which the individual's taxable year begins.

(c) Indian Tribal Government Program—(1) In general. A program is an Indian Tribal Government Program only if the program:

(i) Is established by the Indian Tribal Government, as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section;

(ii) Is administered under specified guidelines, as described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section; and

(iii) Does not discriminate in favor of members of the governing body of the Tribe, as described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.

(2) Program must be established—(i) In general. A program must be established by an Indian Tribal Government. A program established by Tribal custom or government practice, or by formal action of the Indian Tribal Government, is a program established by the Indian Tribal Government. Formal action means authorization of the program pursuant to applicable Tribal law. The formal action must be in writing to the extent such writing is required under applicable Tribal law. For example, written documentation that evidences the formal action of the Indian Tribal Government to establish the program is required if such written documentation is required under applicable Tribal law. Similarly, no written documentation of the formal action of the Indian Tribal Government to establish the program is required if, under applicable Tribal law, no written documentation of such action is required. As an additional example, a program may be established by a voice vote if such voice vote would otherwise constitute formal action of the Indian Tribal Government under applicable Tribal law. To the extent permitted under applicable Tribal law, an Indian Tribal Government may delegate the authority for establishing a program to a designated individual or entity of the Indian Tribal Government.

(ii) Examples. The requirements of this paragraph (c)(2) are illustrated by the following examples, which are not intended to be an exhaustive or exclusive illustration of the rules provided in this paragraph (c)(2):

(A) Example 1. A, a Tribe, operates under the direction of its Indian Tribal Government (the Council). According to the laws of A, all expenditures of A must be approved by a majority of the Council at the Council's annual meeting or by written unanimous consent if the action is taken without a meeting. During the annual meeting of A's Council, a majority of the Council vote to approve establishing a program. A's Council has established the program under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.

(B) Example 2—(1) Facts. The facts are the same as in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section (Example 1), except that, based on a recommendation from the Tribal Education office, A's Council determines to provide funding for a scholarship program to pay 100% of education related expenses for any Tribal Member who graduates from high school or receives a GED during the calendar year. Because the next Council meeting is scheduled in December 2024, and to avoid potential impact on eligible students, in February 2024, Council adopts by unanimous written consent the following education program:

(i) Approving $X of funding for the 2024 year for the scholarship program; and

(ii) Authorizing the director of the Tribal Education office to use the approved funds for the scholarship program.

(2) Analysis. A's Council has established the education program under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.

(C) Example 3. The facts are the same as in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section (Example 2) except that A's Council approves $X of annual funding to be provided for the education program, and delegates to the Tribal Education office authority to establish a scholarship program. A's Council has established the education program under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.

(3) Program must be administered under specified guidelines. A program must be administered under specified guidelines. The specified guidelines must include, at a minimum, a description of the program to provide Tribal General Welfare Benefits, the eligibility requirements for the program, a description of the type of benefits authorized by the program, and the process for receiving benefits under the program. A program is administered under specified guidelines if the program is operated in accordance with such guidelines. Indian Tribal Governments may choose to, but are not required to, set forth the specified guidelines of the program in writing.

(4) Program cannot discriminate in favor of members of the governing body of the Tribe—(i) In general. Except in the case of a program described in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section, a program cannot discriminate in favor of members of the governing body of the Tribe. For the purposes of this paragraph (c)(4), a governing body means the legislative body of the Tribe, such as the Tribal Council, or the representative equivalent of the legislative body of the Tribe.

(ii) General council Tribes. A program is treated as being in compliance with this paragraph (c)(4) if the governing body of a Tribe consists of the entire adult membership of the Tribe.

(iii) Facts and circumstances test. Except in the case of a program described in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section, a program fails to satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (c)(4) if, based on all the facts and circumstances, the program, either by its terms or in its administration, discriminates in favor of members of the governing body of the Tribe. A program discriminates in favor of the members of the governing body of the Tribe if the program by its terms is available only to members of the governing body. Thus, for example, a program established to provide benefits solely to the children of members of the governing body of the Tribe (unless the Tribe is a general council Tribe) and thus defrays costs otherwise borne by members of the governing body fails to satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (c)(4). Additionally, the administration of a program discriminates in favor of members of the governing body of the Tribe if, based on the totality of the facts and circumstances, the benefits provided during the year disproportionately favor members of the governing body of the Tribe because of their status as members of the governing body.

(5) No limitation on source of funds—(i) In general. Benefits under the Indian Tribal Government Program may be funded by any source of revenue or funds. For example, an Indian Tribal Government may use funds derived from levies, taxes, and service fees; settlements; revenues from Tribally owned businesses, including casino revenues; funds from Federal, State, or local governments; and funds from other sources, including grants and loans, to provide benefits under an Indian Tribal Government Program.

(ii) Benefits funded by net gaming revenues. Benefits under the Indian Tribal Government Program may be funded by net gaming revenues as permitted under the Indian Gaming Regulatory Act, 25 U.S.C. 2701-2721 (IGRA). However, per capita payments, as defined under IGRA, are subject to Federal taxation under IGRA and are not excludable from gross income under section 139E or this section. For purposes of section 139E and this section, a payment is a per capita payment if it is identified by the Indian Tribal Government as a per capita payment in a Revenue Allocation Plan that is approved by the Department of the Interior (see 25 U.S.C. 2710(b)(3) and 25 CFR 290.11) and in effect at the time of the payment.

(iii) Benefits paid as distributions from certain trusts. Benefits under the Indian Tribal Government Program may be provided to Tribal Program Participants as distributions from the portion of a trust of which the Indian Tribal Government is treated as owner under sections 671 through 677. For purposes of section 139E and this section, the determination of whether a benefit is a Tribal General Welfare Benefit is made at the time the benefit is distributed from the trust to the Tribal Program Participant. A benefit, or a portion thereof, that an Indian Tribal Government Program distributes from a trust is a Tribal General Welfare Benefit under section 139E if it otherwise satisfies the requirements of section 139E and this section.

(d) Tribal General Welfare Benefits—(1) In general. A benefit does not qualify as a Tribal General Welfare Benefit unless the benefit is:

(i) Provided pursuant to an Indian Tribal Government Program, as described in paragraph (c) of this section;

(ii) Provided for the promotion of general welfare, as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section;

(iii) Available to any eligible Tribal Program Participant, as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section;

(iv) Not lavish or extravagant, as described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section; and

(v) Not compensation for services, as described in paragraph (d)(5) of this section.

(2) Benefits must be for the promotion of general welfare—(i) In general. Tribal General Welfare Benefits must be for the promotion of general welfare. For purposes of section 139E and this paragraph (d)(2), the Indian Tribal Government determines that a benefit is for the promotion of general welfare at the time it establishes the Tribal General Welfare Program meeting the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section. An Indian Tribal Government has sole discretion to determine whether a benefit is for the promotion of general welfare and the Internal Revenue Service will defer to the Indian Tribal Government's determination that a benefit is for the promotion of general welfare. Benefits may be provided without regard to the financial or other need of Tribal Program Participants and may be provided on a uniform or pro-rata basis to Tribal Program Participants. Thus, for example, an Indian Tribal Government determines whether benefits are for the promotion of general welfare under programs such as cultural programs, housing assistance programs, programs to provide education benefits, programs for training or retraining to acquire new skills or to obtain better employment opportunities, programs to provide assistance for disasters or emergency situations, funeral or burial assistance programs, legal aid programs, wellness and health-related programs, or any programs that provide benefits to specific categories of individuals, such as elderly individuals or minors. Moreover, an Indian Tribal Government may also determine that providing a benefit to a Tribal Program Participant to support, develop, operate, expand or start a trade or business is a benefit for the promotion of general welfare. However, a benefit paid to or on behalf of a Tribal Program Participant for a trade or business must be paid to or on behalf of the Tribal Program Participant in the Tribal Program Participant's capacity as an individual (for example, the benefit cannot be paid to or on behalf of the Tribal Program Participant's corporation or partnership).

(ii) Examples. The requirements of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section are illustrated by the following examples. Items listed in these examples following the term “including” are not intended to be an exhaustive or exclusive illustration of the application of the rules in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section. For the examples in this paragraph (d)(2)(ii), assume the Indian Tribal Government has determined that the benefits provided are for the promotion of general welfare.

(A) Example 1: Housing programs. Indian Tribal Government A administers a program, B, pursuant to which the following benefits are provided in connection with A's Tribal Members' principal residences and ancillary structures: payments for Tribal Members to use to make mortgage payments, down payments, and rent payments (including security deposits); payments for Tribal Members to enhance habitability of housing, such as by remedying water, sewage, sanitation service, safety (including mold remediation), and heating or cooling issues; payments for Tribal Members to provide for basic housing repairs or rehabilitation (including roof repair and replacement); and payments to Tribal Members to pay utility bills and charges (including water, electricity, gas, and basic communications services such as phone, internet, and cable). The payments made by A under B are for the promotion of general welfare as described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.

(B) Example 2: Educational programs. Indian Tribal Government C administers a program, D, pursuant to which the following benefits are provided: provision to students (including post-secondary students) of transportation to and from school, tutors, and supplies (including clothing, backpacks, laptop computers, textbooks, musical instruments, and sports equipment) for use in school activities and extracurricular activities; tuition payments for students (as well as allowances for room and board on or off campus for the student, spouse, domestic partner, and dependents) to attend preschool, school, college or university, online school, educational seminars, vocational education, technical education, adult education, continuing education, or alternative education; provision of care of children away from their homes to help their parents or other relatives responsible for their care to be gainfully employed or to pursue education; and provision of job counseling and programs for which the primary objective is job placement or training, including allowances for expenses for interviewing or training away from home (including travel, auto expenses, lodging, and food), tutoring, and appropriate clothing for a job interview or training (including an interview suit or a uniform required during a period of training). The payments made by C under D are for the promotion of general welfare as described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.

(C) Example 3: Elder and disabled programs. Indian Tribal Government E administers a program, F, pursuant to which the following benefits are provided to Tribal Members who have attained age 55 or are mentally or physically disabled (as defined under applicable law, including an Indian Tribal Government's disability laws): meals through home-delivered meals programs or at a community center or similar facility; home care such as assistance with preparing meals or doing chores, or day care outside the home; local transportation assistance; and improvements to adapt housing to special needs (including but not limited to grab bars and ramps). The payments made by E under F are for the promotion of general welfare as described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.

(D) Example 4: Transportation programs. Indian Tribal Government G administers a program, H, pursuant to which the following benefits are provided: payment of transportation costs, including for rental cars, mileage, and fares for taxis, ride-sharing or ride-hailing services, buses, and other public transportation. The payments made by G under H are for the promotion of general welfare as described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.

(E) Example 5: Medical programs. Indian Tribal Government J administers a program, K, pursuant to which the following benefits are provided: payments for the cost of transportation, temporary meals, and lodging of a Tribal Program Participant while the individual is receiving medical care away from home, or to pay the cost of nonprescription drugs (including traditional Tribal medicines). The payments made by J under K are for the promotion of general welfare as described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.

(F) Example 6: Emergency programs. Indian Tribal Government L administers a program, M, pursuant to which the following benefits are provided to individuals in exigent circumstances (including victims of abuse): assistance to cover costs, including the costs of food, clothing, shelter, transportation, auto repair bills, and similar expenses; payment of costs for temporary relocation and shelter for individuals involuntarily displaced from their homes (including situations in which a home is destroyed by a fire or natural disaster); and assistance for transportation emergencies (for example, when stranded away from home) in the form of transportation costs, a hotel room, and meals. The payments made by L under M are for the promotion of general welfare as described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.

(G) Example 7: Cultural and religious programs. Indian Tribal Government N administers a program, P, pursuant to which the following benefits are provided: payment of expenses (including admission fees, transportation, food, and lodging) to attend or participate in a Tribe's cultural, social, religious, or community activities, including powwows, potlatches, ceremonies, and traditional dances; payment of expenses (including admission fees, transportation, food, and lodging) to visit sites that are culturally or historically significant for the Tribe, including other Indian reservations; payment of the costs of receiving instruction about a Tribe's culture, history, and traditions (including traditional language, music, and dances); payment of funeral and burial expenses and expenses of hosting or attending wakes, funerals, burials, other bereavement events, and subsequent honoring events; payment of transportation costs and admission fees to attend educational, social, or cultural programs offered or supported by the Tribe or another Tribe; and cash or property provided as prizes or awards in connection with cultural, social, religious, or community activities (including powwows, potlatches, ceremonies, and traditional dances). In addition, the benefits provided by program P include the payment of expenses to assist in the preparation and clean-up activities related to the Tribe's cultural, social, religious, or community activities. The payments made by N under P are for the promotion of general welfare as described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.

(H) Example 8: Economic development benefits. Indian Tribal Government Q administers a program, R, pursuant to which Q provides benefits to Tribal Program Participants to support, develop, operate, expand or start a trade or business. Q provides benefits under program R, which include: a nonreimbursable grant paid directly to a Tribal Program Participant; an interest-free or other below-market loan to a Tribal Program Participant; and a cash benefit to a Tribal Program Participant to pay rent on a commercial lease. The benefits provided by Q to Tribal Program Participants under R, are for the promotion of general welfare as described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.

(3) Benefits must be available. The benefits provided under an Indian Tribal Government Program must be available to any Tribal Program Participant who meets the specified guidelines of the program required under paragraph (c)(3) of this section, subject to budgetary constraints. However, the Indian Tribal Government has discretion to determine the category of individuals who are Tribal Program Participants under the Indian Tribal Government Program, provided that such determination is consistent with the specified guidelines described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section and subject to the prohibition on discrimination under paragraph (c)(4) of this section. Thus, for example, an Indian Tribal Government is permitted to limit eligibility for an Indian Tribal Government Program to dependents of Tribal Members who have attained a specified age, or, as another example, to a Tribal Member's household.

(4) Benefits cannot be lavish or extravagant—(i) Facts and circumstances test. The benefit provided by an Indian Tribal Government Program cannot be lavish or extravagant. Whether a benefit is lavish or extravagant for purposes of this section is based on the facts and circumstances at the time the benefit is provided. Relevant facts and circumstances include a Tribe's culture and cultural practices, history, geographic area, traditions, resources, and economic conditions or factors. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(4)(i), the Internal Revenue Service will defer to an Indian Tribal Government's attestations of the fact and circumstances but may also consider other facts and circumstances that are not attested to by the Indian Tribal government at the time that the benefit is provided to the Tribal Program Participant.

(ii) Presumption for written specified guidelines. A benefit will be presumed to not be lavish or extravagant if it is described in, and provided in accordance with, the written specified guidelines of an Indian Tribal Government Program that exist at the time that the benefit is provided to the Tribal Program Participant.

(5) Benefits cannot be compensation for services. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a Tribal General Welfare Benefit does not include benefits that are provided as compensation for services to any person. Under section 61(a) of the Code, compensation for services includes fees, commissions, fringe benefits, and similar items, whether paid in money or property.

(6) Loans from an Indian Tribal Government to a Tribal Program Participant. Except as provided in § 1.7872-5(a)(2), section 7872 of the Code does not apply to a loan from an Indian Tribal Government to a Tribal Program Participant pursuant to an Indian Tribal Government Program.

(e) Cultural or ceremonial activities—(1) In general. For purposes of section 139E and paragraph (d)(5) of this section, a benefit is not compensation for services if:

(i) The benefit is provided to a Tribal Program Participant for the Tribal Program Participant's participation in cultural or ceremonial activities for the transmission of Tribal culture as determined by the Indian Tribal Government (including but not limited to: powwows; rite of passage ceremonies; funerals; wakes; burials; other bereavement events; honoring events; Tribal community service events, such as a neighborhood clean-up or a youth woodcutting program to benefit elders; participation in training in traditional construction techniques; Tribal language education; and other activities, including, for example, those described in paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(G) of this section); and

(ii) The benefit consists of an item of cultural significance as determined by the Indian Tribal Government, the reimbursement of costs, or a cash honorarium.

(2) Application. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (e)(2), an Indian Tribal Government has sole discretion to determine whether an item is an item of cultural significance and whether an activity is a cultural or ceremonial activity, and the Internal Revenue Service will defer to these determinations by the Indian Tribal Government. A benefit provided under this paragraph (e) can be a prize or award given to a Tribal Program Participant for the Tribal Program Participant's participation in cultural or ceremonial activities for the transmission of Tribal culture. However, cash, gift cards, or vehicles are generally not items of cultural significance.

(3) Examples. The application of this paragraph (e) is illustrated by the following examples, which are not intended to be an exhaustive or exclusive illustration of the rules provided in this paragraph (e):

(i) Example 1: Benefits for cultural or ceremonial activities not compensation for services. Tribe B regularly holds a gathering during the fall season to celebrate its cultural traditions. During the gathering, Tribal Members of B, as well as Tribal members of other Tribes from around the region, are invited to participate. The Indian Tribal Government of B (ITG-B) allocates funds for the gathering, some of which are used for the following payments:

(A) Tribal Member of B. Individual 1, a Tribal Member of B, provides traditional blessings on the first and final days of the gathering. ITG-B gives Individual 1 a cash honorarium in recognition of providing the blessings. The cash honorarium that Individual 1 receives from ITG-B is not compensation for services under this paragraph (e).

(B) Tribal Member of different Tribe. Individual 2, a Tribal Member of Tribe C, participates as a drummer for a ceremonial dance on the second day of the gathering. ITG-B gives Individual 2 a piece of culturally significant jewelry. Under paragraph (b)(8)(ii) of this section, Individual 2 is a Tribal Program Participant solely for purposes of this paragraph (e). The jewelry that Individual 2 receives from ITG-B is not compensation for services under this paragraph (e).

(ii) Example 2: Benefits for cultural or ceremonial activities not compensation for services. Tribe C operates a language preservation center in which Individual 3, a Tribal Member of C, who speaks the traditional language that is common to C and other regional Tribes, volunteers to come in every Saturday to discuss and teach the traditional language of C to other Tribal Members of C. The Indian Tribal Government of C (ITG-C), reimburses Individual 3 for travel expenses and teaching supplies used in Individual 3's language lessons. The reimbursement of costs that Individual 3 receives from ITG-C is not compensation for services under this paragraph (e).

(f) Section 2(c) of the Act. Section 2(c) of the Act provides that ambiguities in section 139E of the Internal Revenue Code, as added by the Act, shall be resolved in favor of Indian Tribal governments and deference shall be given to Indian Tribal governments for the programs administered and authorized by the Tribe to benefit the general welfare of the Tribal community.

(g) Audit suspension. After December 16, 2025, the Department of the Treasury and the Internal Revenue Service will, in consultation with the Treasury Tribal Advisory Committee, establish and require the education and training prescribed in section 3(b)(2) of the Act. The temporary suspension of audits and examinations (see sections 7602 and 7605 of the Code) described in section 4(a) of the Act applies to Indian Tribal governments and Tribal Program Participants and will not be lifted until after the education and training prescribed by section 3(b)(2) of the Act is completed. An inquiry into a taxpayer's eligibility for the audit suspension does not constitute an audit or examination for purposes of the audit suspension described in section 4(a) of the Act.

(h) Applicability date. This section applies to taxable years of Tribal Program Participants that begin on or after January 1, 2027. Indian Tribal Governments and Tribal Program Participants may choose to apply the provisions of this section, in their entirety, to taxable years that begin before January 1, 2027.

[TD 10040, 90 FR 58400, Dec. 16, 2025]

§ 1.139E-2 Alaska Native regional or village corporations.

An Alaska Native regional or village corporation, as defined in, or established pursuant to, the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1601 et seq.), may choose to apply the rules in § 1.139E-1 until rules that specifically address the application of the requirements of section 139E of the Internal Revenue Code to Alaska Native regional or village corporations are published under this section. However, an Alaska Native regional or village corporation that chooses to apply the rules in § 1.139E-1 must apply all of the rules of § 1.139E-1 with respect to any general welfare benefits provided to a shareholder of the Alaska Native regional or village corporation (and the shareholder's spouse and dependents) and other Tribal Program Participants (as defined in § 1.139E-1(b)).

[TD 10040, 90 FR 58400, Dec. 16, 2025]

§ 1.141-0 Table of contents.

This section lists the captioned paragraphs contained in §§ 1.141-1 through 1.141-16.

§ 1.141-1 Definitions and rules of general application.

(a) In general.

(b) Certain general definitions.

(c) Elections.

(d) Related parties.

(e) Partnerships.

§ 1.141-2 Private activity bond tests.

(a) Overview.

(b) Scope.

(c) General definition of private activity bond.

(d) Reasonable expectations and deliberate actions.

(1) In general.

(2) Reasonable expectations test.

(3) Deliberate action defined.

(4) Special rule for dispositions of personal property in the ordinary course of an established governmental program.

(5) Special rule for general obligation bond programs that finance a large number of separate purposes.

(e) When a deliberate action occurs.

(f) Certain remedial actions.

(g) Examples.

§ 1.141-3 Definition of private business use.

(a) General rule.

(1) In general.

(2) Indirect use.

(3) Aggregation of private business use.

(b) Types of private business use arrangements.

(1) In general.

(2) Ownership.

(3) Leases.

(4) Management contracts.

(5) Output contracts.

(6) Research agreements.

(7) Other actual or beneficial use.

(c) Exception for general public use.

(1) In general.

(2) Use on the same basis.

(3) Long-term arrangements not treated as general public use.

(4) Relation to other use.

(d) Other exceptions.

(1) Agents.

(2) Use incidental to financing arrangements.

(3) Exceptions for arrangements other than arrangements resulting in ownership of financed property by a nongovernmental person.

(4) Temporary use by developers.

(5) Incidental use.

(6) Qualified improvements.

(e) Special rule for tax assessment bonds.

(f) Examples.

(g) Measurement of private business use.

(1) In general.

(2) Measurement period.

(3) Determining average percentage of private business use.

(4) Determining the average amount of private business use for a 1-year period.

(5) Common areas.

(6) Allocation of neutral costs.

(7) Commencement of measurement of private business use.

(8) Examples.

§ 1.141-4 Private security or payment test.

(a) General rule.

(1) Private security or payment.

(2) Aggregation of private payments and security.

(3) Underlying arrangement.

(b) Measurement of private payments and security.

(1) Scope.

(2) Present value measurement.

(c) Private payments.

(1) In general.

(2) Payments taken into account.

(3) Allocation of payments.

(d) Private security.

(1) In general.

(2) Security taken into account.

(3) Pledge of unexpended proceeds.

(4) Secured by any interest in property or payments.

(5) Payments in respect of property.

(6) Allocation of security among issues.

(e) Generally applicable taxes.

(1) General rule.

(2) Definition of generally applicable taxes.

(3) Special charges.

(4) Manner of determination and collection.

(5) Payments in lieu of taxes.

(f) Certain waste remediation bonds.

(1) Scope.

(2) Persons that are not private users.

(3) Persons that are private users.

(g) Examples.

§ 1.141-5 Private loan financing test.

(a) In general.

(b) Measurement of test.

(c) Definition of private loan.

(1) In general.

(2) Application only to purpose investments.

(3) Grants.

(4) Hazardous waste remediation bonds.

(d) Tax assessment loan exception.

(1) General rule.

(2) Tax assessment loan defined.

(3) Mandatory tax or other assessment.

(4) Specific essential governmental function.

(5) Equal basis requirement.

(6) Coordination with private business tests.

(e) Examples.

§ 1.141-6 Allocation and accounting rules.

(a) Allocation of proceeds to expenditures, projects, and uses in general.

(1) Allocations to expenditures.

(2) Allocations of sources to a project and its uses.

(3) Definition of project.

(b) Special allocation rules for eligible mixed-use projects.

(1) In general.

(2) Definition of eligible mixed-use project.

(3) Definition of qualified equity.

(4) Same plan of financing.

(c) Allocations of private payments.

(d) Allocations of proceeds to common costs of an issue.

(e) Allocations of proceeds to bonds.

(f) Examples.

§ 1.141-7 Special rules for output facilities.

(a) Overview.

(b) Definitions.

(1) Available output.

(2) Measurement period.

(3) Sale at wholesale.

(4) Take contract and take or pay contract.

(5) Requirements contract.

(6) Nonqualified amount.

(c) Output contracts.

(1) General rule.

(2) Take contract or take or pay contract.

(3) Requirements contract.

(4) Output contract properly characterized as a lease.

(d) Measurement of private business use.

(e) Measurement of private security or payment.

(f) Exceptions for certain contracts.

(1) Small purchases of output.

(2) Swapping and pooling arrangements.

(3) Short-term output contracts.

(4) Certain conduit parties disregarded.

(g) Special rules for electric output facilities used to provide open access.

(1) Operation of transmission facilities by nongovernmental persons.

(2) Certain use by nongovernmental persons under output contracts.

(3) Ancillary services.

(4) Exceptions to deliberate action rules.

(5) Additional transactions as permitted by the Commissioner.

(h) Allocations of output facilities and systems.

(1) Facts and circumstances analysis.

(2) Illustrations.

(3) Transmission and distribution contracts.

(4) Allocation of payments.

(i) Examples.

§ 1.141-8 $15 million limitation for output facilities.

(a) In general.

(1) General rule.

(2) Reduction in $15 million output limitation for outstanding issues.

(3) Benefits and burdens test applicable.

(b) Definition of project.

(1) General rule.

(2) Separate ownership.

(3) Generating property.

(4) Transmission and distribution.

(5) Subsequent improvements.

(6) Replacement property.

(c) Examples.

§ 1.141-9 Unrelated or disproportionate use test.

(a) General rules.

(1) Description of test.

(2) Application of unrelated or disproportionate use test.

(b) Unrelated use.

(1) In general.

(2) Use for the same purpose as government use.

(c) Disproportionate use.

(1) Definition of disproportionate use.

(2) Aggregation of related uses.

(3) Allocation rule.

(d) Maximum use taken into account.

(e) Examples.

§ 1.141-10 Coordination with volume cap. [Reserved]

§ 1.141-11 Acquisition of nongovernmental output property. [Reserved]

§ 1.141-12 Remedial actions.

(a) Conditions to taking remedial action.

(1) Reasonable expectations test met.

(2) Maturity not unreasonably long.

(3) Fair market value consideration.

(4) Disposition proceeds treated as gross proceeds for arbitrage purposes.

(5) Proceeds expended on a governmental purpose.

(b) Effect of a remedial action.

(1) In general.

(2) Effect on bonds that have been advance refunded.

(c) Disposition proceeds.

(1) Definition.

(2) Allocating disposition proceeds to an issue.

(3) Allocating disposition proceeds to different sources of funding.

(d) Redemption or defeasance of nonqualified bonds.

(1) In general.

(2) Special rule for dispositions for cash.

(3) Anticipatory remedial action.

(4) Notice of defeasance.

(5) Special limitation.

(6) Defeasance escrow defined.

(e) Alternative use of disposition proceeds.

(1) In general.

(2) Special rule for use by 501(c)(3) organizations.

(f) Alternative use of facility.

(g) Rules for deemed reissuance.

(h) Authority of Commissioner to provide for additional remedial actions.

(i) Effect of remedial action on continuing compliance.

(j) Nonqualified bonds.

(1) Amount of nonqualified bonds.

(2) Allocation of nonqualified bonds.

(k) Examples.

§ 1.141-13 Refunding issues.

(a) In general.

(b) Application of private business use test and private loan financing test.

(1) Allocation of proceeds.

(2) Determination of amount of private business use.

(c) Application of private security or payment test.

(1) Separate issue treatment.

(2) Combined issue treatment.

(3) Special rule for arrangements not entered into in contemplation of the refunding issue.

(d) Multipurpose issue allocations.

(1) In general.

(2) Exceptions.

(e) Application of reasonable expectations test to certain refunding bonds.

(f) Special rule for refundings of certain general obligation bonds.

(g) Examples.

§ 1.141-14 Anti-abuse rules.

(a) Authority of Commissioner to reflect substance of transactions.

(b) Examples.

§ 1.141-15 Effective/applicability dates.

(a) Scope.

(b) Effective dates.

(1) In general.

(2) Certain short-term arrangements.

(3) Certain prepayments.

(4) Certain remedial actions.

(c) Refunding bonds.

(d) Permissive application of regulations.

(e) Permissive retroactive application of certain sections.

(1) In general.

(2) Transition rule for pre-effective date bonds.

(f) Effective dates for certain regulations relating to output facilities.

(1) General rule.

(2) Transition rule for requirements contracts.

(g) Refunding bonds for output facilities.

(h) Permissive retroactive application.

(i) Permissive application of certain regulations relating to output facilities.

(j) Effective dates for certain regulations relating to refundings.

(k) Effective/applicability dates for certain regulations relating to generally applicable taxes and payments in lieu of tax.

(l) Applicability date for certain regulations related to allocation and accounting.

(1) In general.

(2) Refunding bonds.

(3) Permissive application.

(m) Permissive retroactive application of certain regulations.

(n) Effective/applicability dates for certain regulations relating to certain definitions.

§ 1.141-16 Effective dates for qualified private activity bond provisions.

(a) Scope.

(b) Effective dates.

(c) Permissive application.

(d) Certain remedial actions.

(1) General rule.

(2) Special rule for allocations of nonqualified bonds.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2283, Jan. 16, 1997, as amended by T.D. 8757, 63 FR 3259, Jan. 22, 1998; T.D. 8941, 66 FR 4664, Jan. 18, 2001; T.D. 9016, 67 FR 59759, Sept. 23, 2002; T.D. 9085, 68 FR 45775, Aug. 4, 2003; T.D. 9150, 69 FR 50066, Aug. 13, 2004; T.D. 9234, 70 FR 75031, Dec. 19, 2005; T.D. 9429, 73 FR 63374, Oct. 24, 2008; T.D. 9741, 80 FR 65642, Oct. 27, 2015; T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46591, July 18, 2016]

Tax Exemption Requirements for State and Local Bonds

§ 1.141-1 Definitions and rules of general application.

(a) In general. For purposes of §§ 1.141-0 through 1.141-16, the following definitions and rules apply: The definitions in this section, the definitions in § 1.150-1, the definition of placed in service in § 1.150-2(c), the definition of reasonably required reserve or replacement fund in § 1.148-2(f), and the definitions in § 1.148-1 of bond year, commingled fund, fixed yield issue, higher yielding investments, investment, investment proceeds, issue price, issuer, nonpurpose investment, purpose investment, qualified guarantee, qualified hedge, reasonable expectations or reasonableness, rebate amount, replacement proceeds, sale proceeds, variable yield issue and yield.

(b) Certain general definitions.

Common areas means portions of a facility that are equally available to all users of a facility on the same basis for uses that are incidental to the primary use of the facility. For example, hallways and elevators generally are treated as common areas if they are used by the different lessees of a facility in connection with the primary use of that facility.

Consistently applied means applied uniformly to account for proceeds and other amounts.

Deliberate action is defined in § 1.141-2(d)(3).

Discrete portion means a portion of a facility that consists of any separate and discrete portion of a facility to which use is limited, other than common areas. A floor of a building and a portion of a building separated by walls, partitions, or other physical barriers are examples of a discrete portion.

Disposition is defined in § 1.141-12(c)(1).

Disposition proceeds is defined in § 1.141-12(c)(1).

Essential governmental function is defined in § 1.141-5(d)(4)(ii).

Financed means constructed, reconstructed, or acquired with proceeds of an issue.

Governmental bond has the same meaning as in § 1.150-1(b), except that, for purposes of § 1.141-13, governmental bond is defined in § 1.141-13(b)(2)(iv).

Governmental person means a state or local governmental unit as defined in § 1.103-1 or any instrumentality thereof. It does not include the United States or any agency or instrumentality thereof.

Hazardous waste remediation bonds is defined in § 1.141-4(f)(1).

Measurement period is defined in § 1.141-3(g)(2).

Nongovernmental person means a person other than a governmental person.

Output facility means electric and gas generation, transmission, distribution, and related facilities, and water collection, storage, and distribution facilities.

Private business tests means the private business use test and the private security or payment test of section 141(b).

Proceeds means the sale proceeds of an issue (other than those sale proceeds used to retire bonds of the issue that are not deposited in a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund). Proceeds also include any investment proceeds from investments that accrue during the project period (net of rebate amounts attributable to the project period). Disposition proceeds of an issue are treated as proceeds to the extent provided in § 1.141-12. The Commissioner may treat any replaced amounts as proceeds.

Project period means the period beginning on the issue date and ending on the date that the project is placed in service. In the case of a multipurpose issue, the issuer may elect to treat the project period for the entire issue as ending on either the expiration of the temporary period described in § 1.148-2(e)(2) or the end of the fifth bond year after the issue date.

Public utility property means public utility property as defined in section 168(i)(10).

Qualified bond means a qualified bond as defined in section 141(e).

Renewal option means a provision under which either party has a legally enforceable right to renew the contract. Thus, for example, a provision under which a contract is automatically renewed for 1-year periods absent cancellation by either party is not a renewal option (even if it is expected to be renewed).

Replaced amounts means replacement proceeds other than amounts that are treated as replacement proceeds solely because they are sinking funds or pledged funds.

Weighted average maturity is determined under section 147(b).

Weighted average reasonably expected economic life is determined under section 147(b). The reasonably expected economic life of property may be determined by reference to the class life of the property under section 168.

(c) Elections. Elections must be made in writing on or before the issue date and retained as part of the bond documents, and, once made, may not be revoked without the permission of the Commissioner.

(d) Related parties. Except as otherwise provided, all related parties are treated as one person and any reference to “person” includes any related party.

(e) Partnerships. A partnership (as defined in section 7701(a)(2)) is treated as an aggregate of its partners, rather than as an entity.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2284, Jan. 16, 1997, as amended by T.D. 9234, 70 FR 75032, Dec. 19, 2005; T.D. 9741, 80 FR 65643, Oct. 27, 2015; T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46592, July 18, 2016]

§ 1.141-2 Private activity bond tests.

(a) Overview. Interest on a private activity bond is not excludable from gross income under section 103(a) unless the bond is a qualified bond. The purpose of the private activity bond tests of section 141 is to limit the volume of tax-exempt bonds that finance the activities of nongovernmental persons, without regard to whether a financing actually transfers benefits of tax-exempt financing to a nongovernmental person. The private activity bond tests serve to identify arrangements that have the potential to transfer the benefits of tax-exempt financing, as well as arrangements that actually transfer these benefits. The regulations under section 141 may not be applied in a manner that is inconsistent with these purposes.

(b) Scope. Sections 1.141-0 through 1.141-16 apply generally for purposes of the private activity bond limitations under section 141.

(c) General definition of private activity bond. Under section 141, bonds are private activity bonds if they meet either the private business use test and private security or payment test of section 141(b) or the private loan financing test of section 141(c). The private business use and private security or payment tests are described in §§ 1.141-3 and 1.141-4. The private loan financing test is described in § 1.141-5.

(d) Reasonable expectations and deliberate actions—(1) In general. An issue is an issue of private activity bonds if the issuer reasonably expects, as of the issue date, that the issue will meet either the private business tests or the private loan financing test. An issue is also an issue of private activity bonds if the issuer takes a deliberate action, subsequent to the issue date, that causes the conditions of either the private business tests or the private loan financing test to be met.

(2) Reasonable expectations test—(i) In general. In general, the reasonable expectations test must take into account reasonable expectations about events and actions over the entire stated term of an issue.

(ii) Special rule for issues with mandatory redemption provisions. An action that is reasonably expected, as of the issue date, to occur after the issue date and to cause either the private business tests or the private loan financing test to be met may be disregarded for purposes of those tests if—

(A) The issuer reasonably expects, as of the issue date, that the financed property will be used for a governmental purpose for a substantial period before the action;

(B) The issuer is required to redeem all nonqualifying bonds (regardless of the amount of disposition proceeds actually received) within 6 months of the date of the action;

(C) The issuer does not enter into any arrangement with a nongovernmental person, as of the issue date, with respect to that specific action; and

(D) The mandatory redemption of bonds meets all of the conditions for remedial action under § 1.141-12(a).

(3) Deliberate action defined—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (d)(3), a deliberate action is any action taken by the issuer that is within its control. An intent to violate the requirements of section 141 is not necessary for an action to be deliberate.

(ii) Safe harbor exceptions. An action is not treated as a deliberate action if—

(A) It would be treated as an involuntary or compulsory conversion under section 1033; or

(B) It is taken in response to a regulatory directive made by the federal government. See § 1.141-7(g)(4).

(4) Special rule for dispositions of personal property in the ordinary course of an established governmental program—(i) In general. Dispositions of personal property in the ordinary course of an established governmental program are not treated as deliberate actions if—

(A) The weighted average maturity of the bonds financing that personal property is not greater than 120 percent of the reasonably expected actual use of that property for governmental purposes;

(B) The issuer reasonably expects on the issue date that the fair market value of that property on the date of disposition will be not greater than 25 percent of its cost; and

(C) The property is no longer suitable for its governmental purposes on the date of disposition.

(ii) Reasonable expectations test. The reasonable expectation that a disposition described in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section may occur in the ordinary course while the bonds are outstanding will not cause the issue to meet the private activity bond tests if the issuer is required to deposit amounts received from the disposition in a commingled fund with substantial tax or other governmental revenues and the issuer reasonably expects to spend the amounts on governmental programs within 6 months from the date of commingling.

(iii) Separate issue treatment. An issuer may treat the bonds properly allocable to the personal property eligible for this exception as a separate issue under § 1.150-1(c)(3).

(5) Special rule for general obligation bond programs that finance a large number of separate purposes. The determination of whether bonds of an issue are private activity bonds may be based solely on the issuer's reasonable expectations as of the issue date if all of the requirements of paragraphs (d)(5)(i) through (vii) of this section are met.

(i) The issue is an issue of general obligation bonds of a general purpose governmental unit that finances at least 25 separate purposes (as defined in § 1.150-1(c)(3)) and does not predominantly finance fewer than 4 separate purposes.

(ii) The issuer has adopted a fund method of accounting for its general governmental purposes that makes tracing the bond proceeds to specific expenditures unreasonably burdensome.

(iii) The issuer reasonably expects on the issue date to allocate all of the net proceeds of the issue to capital expenditures within 6 months of the issue date and adopts reasonable procedures to verify that net proceeds are in fact so expended. A program to randomly spot check that 10 percent of the net proceeds were so expended generally is a reasonable verification procedure for this purpose.

(iv) The issuer reasonably expects on the issue date to expend all of the net proceeds of the issue before expending proceeds of a subsequent issue of similar general obligation bonds.

(v) The issuer reasonably expects on the issue date that it will not make any loans to nongovernmental persons with the proceeds of the issue.

(vi) The issuer reasonably expects on the issue date that the capital expenditures that it could make during the 6-month period beginning on the issue date with the net proceeds of the issue that would not meet the private business tests are not less than 125 percent of the capital expenditures to be financed with the net proceeds of the issue.

(vii) The issuer reasonably expects on the issue date that the weighted average maturity of the issue is not greater than 120 percent of the weighted average reasonably expected economic life of the capital expenditures financed with the issue. To determine reasonably expected economic life for this purpose an issuer may use reasonable estimates based on the type of expenditures made from a fund.

(e) When a deliberate action occurs. A deliberate action occurs on the date the issuer enters into a binding contract with a nongovernmental person for use of the financed property that is not subject to any material contingencies.

(f) Certain remedial actions. See § 1.141-12 for certain remedial actions that prevent a deliberate action with respect to property financed by an issue from causing that issue to meet the private business use test or the private loan financing test.

(g) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this section:

Example 1 Involuntary action.

City B issues bonds to finance the purchase of land. On the issue date, B reasonably expects that it will be the sole user of the land for the entire term of the bonds. Subsequently, the federal government acquires the land in a condemnation action. B sets aside the condemnation proceeds to pay debt service on the bonds but does not redeem them on their first call date. The bonds are not private activity bonds because B has not taken a deliberate action after the issue date. See, however, § 1.141-14(b), Example 2.

Example 2 Reasonable expectations test—involuntary action.

The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that, on the issue date, B reasonably expects that the federal government will acquire the land in a condemnation action during the term of the bonds. On the issue date, the present value of the amount that B reasonably expects to receive from the federal government is greater than 10 percent of the present value of the debt service on the bonds. The terms of the bonds do not require that the bonds be redeemed within 6 months of the acquisition by the federal government. The bonds are private activity bonds because the issuer expects as of the issue date that the private business tests will be met.

Example 3 Reasonable expectations test—mandatory redemption.

City C issues bonds to rehabilitate an existing hospital that it currently owns. On the issue date of the bonds, C reasonably expects that the hospital will be used for a governmental purpose for a substantial period. On the issue date, C also plans to construct a new hospital, but the placed in service date of that new hospital is uncertain. C reasonably expects that, when the new hospital is placed in service, it will sell or lease the rehabilitated hospital to a private hospital corporation. The bond documents require that the bonds must be redeemed within 6 months of the sale or lease of the rehabilitated hospital (regardless of the amount actually received from the sale). The bonds meet the reasonable expectations requirement of the private activity bond tests if the mandatory redemption of bonds meets all of the conditions for a remedial action under § 1.141-12(a).

Example 4 Dispositions in the ordinary course of an established governmental program.

City D issues bonds with a weighted average maturity of 6 years for the acquisition of police cars. D reasonably expects on the issue date that the police cars will be used solely by its police department, except that, in the ordinary course of its police operations, D sells its police cars to a taxicab corporation after 5 years of use because they are no longer suitable for police use. Further, D reasonably expects that the value of the police cars when they are no longer suitable for police use will be no more than 25 percent of cost. D subsequently sells 20 percent of the police cars after only 3 years of actual use. At that time, D deposits the proceeds from the sale of the police cars in a commingled fund with substantial tax revenues and reasonably expects to spend the proceeds on governmental programs within 6 months of the date of deposit. D does not trace the actual use of these commingled amounts. The sale of the police cars does not cause the private activity bond tests to be met because the requirements of paragraph (d)(4) of this section are met.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2284, Jan. 16, 1997, as amended by T.D. 8757, 63 FR 3260, Jan. 22, 1998; T.D. 9016, 67 FR 59759, Sept. 23, 2002]

§ 1.141-3 Definition of private business use.

(a) General rule—(1) In general. The private business use test relates to the use of the proceeds of an issue. The 10 percent private business use test of section 141(b)(1) is met if more than 10 percent of the proceeds of an issue is used in a trade or business of a nongovernmental person. For this purpose, the use of financed property is treated as the direct use of proceeds. Any activity carried on by a person other than a natural person is treated as a trade or business. Unless the context or a provision clearly requires otherwise, this section also applies to the private business use test under sections 141(b)(3) (unrelated or disproportionate use), 141(b)(4) ($15 million limitation for certain output facilities), and 141(b)(5) (the coordination with the volume cap where the nonqualified amount exceeds $15 million).

(2) Indirect use. In determining whether an issue meets the private business use test, it is necessary to look to both the indirect and direct uses of proceeds. For example, a facility is treated as being used for a private business use if it is leased to a nongovernmental person and subleased to a governmental person or if it is leased to a governmental person and then subleased to a nongovernmental person, provided that in each case the nongovernmental person's use is in a trade or business. Similarly, the issuer's use of the proceeds to engage in a series of financing transactions for property to be used by nongovernmental persons in their trades or businesses may cause the private business use test to be met. In addition, proceeds are treated as used in the trade or business of a nongovernmental person if a nongovernmental person, as a result of a single transaction or a series of related transactions, uses property acquired with the proceeds of an issue.

(3) Aggregation of private business use. The use of proceeds by all nongovernmental persons is aggregated to determine whether the private business use test is met.

(b) Types of private business use arrangements—(1) In general. Both actual and beneficial use by a nongovernmental person may be treated as private business use. In most cases, the private business use test is met only if a nongovernmental person has special legal entitlements to use the financed property under an arrangement with the issuer. In general, a nongovernmental person is treated as a private business user of proceeds and financed property as a result of ownership; actual or beneficial use of property pursuant to a lease, or a management or incentive payment contract; or certain other arrangements such as a take or pay or other output-type contract.

(2) Ownership. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this section, ownership by a nongovernmental person of financed property is private business use of that property. For this purpose, ownership refers to ownership for federal income tax purposes.

(3) Leases. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the lease of financed property to a nongovernmental person is private business use of that property. For this purpose, any arrangement that is properly characterized as a lease for federal income tax purposes is treated as a lease. In determining whether a management contract is properly characterized as a lease, it is necessary to consider all of the facts and circumstances, including the following factors—

(i) The degree of control over the property that is exercised by a nongovernmental person; and

(ii) Whether a nongovernmental person bears risk of loss of the financed property.

(4) Management contracts—(i) Facts and circumstances test. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, a management contract (within the meaning of paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section) with respect to financed property may result in private business use of that property, based on all of the facts and circumstances. A management contract with respect to financed property generally results in private business use of that property if the contract provides for compensation for services rendered with compensation based, in whole or in part, on a share of net profits from the operation of the facility.

(ii) Management contract defined. For purposes of this section, a management contract is a management, service, or incentive payment contract between a governmental person and a service provider under which the service provider provides services involving all, a portion of, or any function of, a facility. For example, a contract for the provision of management services for an entire hospital, a contract for management services for a specific department of a hospital, and an incentive payment contract for physician services to patients of a hospital are each treated as a management contract.

(iii) Arrangements generally not treated as management contracts. The arrangements described in paragraphs (b)(4)(iii)(A) through (D) of this section generally are not treated as management contracts that give rise to private business use.

(A) Contracts for services that are solely incidental to the primary governmental function or functions of a financed facility (for example, contracts for janitorial, office equipment repair, hospital billing, or similar services).

(B) The mere granting of admitting privileges by a hospital to a doctor, even if those privileges are conditioned on the provision of de minimis services, if those privileges are available to all qualified physicians in the area, consistent with the size and nature of its facilities.

(C) A contract to provide for the operation of a facility or system of facilities that consists predominantly of public utility property, if the only compensation is the reimbursement of actual and direct expenses of the service provider and reasonable administrative overhead expenses of the service provider.

(D) A contract to provide for services, if the only compensation is the reimbursement of the service provider for actual and direct expenses paid by the service provider to unrelated parties.

(iv) Management contracts that are properly treated as other types of private business use. A management contract with respect to financed property results in private business use of that property if the service provider is treated as the lessee or owner of financed property for federal income tax purposes, unless an exception under paragraph (d) of this section applies to the arrangement.

(5) Output contracts. See § 1.141-7 for special rules for contracts for the purchase of output of output facilities.

(6) Research agreements—(i) Facts and circumstances test. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, an agreement by a nongovernmental person to sponsor research performed by a governmental person may result in private business use of the property used for the research, based on all of the facts and circumstances.

(ii) Research agreements that are properly treated as other types of private business use. A research agreement with respect to financed property results in private business use of that property if the sponsor is treated as the lessee or owner of financed property for federal income tax purposes, unless an exception under paragraph (d) of this section applies to the arrangement.

(7) Other actual or beneficial use—(i) In general. Any other arrangement that conveys special legal entitlements for beneficial use of bond proceeds or of financed property that are comparable to special legal entitlements described in paragraphs (b)(2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of this section results in private business use. For example, an arrangement that conveys priority rights to the use or capacity of a facility generally results in private business use.

(ii) Special rule for facilities not used by the general public. In the case of financed property that is not available for use by the general public (within the meaning of paragraph (c) of this section), private business use may be established solely on the basis of a special economic benefit to one or more nongovernmental persons, even if those nongovernmental persons have no special legal entitlements to use of the property. In determining whether special economic benefit gives rise to private business use it is necessary to consider all of the facts and circumstances, including one or more of the following factors—

(A) Whether the financed property is functionally related or physically proximate to property used in the trade or business of a nongovernmental person;

(B) Whether only a small number of nongovernmental persons receive the special economic benefit; and

(C) Whether the cost of the financed property is treated as depreciable by any nongovernmental person.

(c) Exception for general public use—(1) In general. Use as a member of the general public (general public use) is not private business use. Use of financed property by nongovernmental persons in their trades or businesses is treated as general public use only if the property is intended to be available and in fact is reasonably available for use on the same basis by natural persons not engaged in a trade or business.

(2) Use on the same basis. In general, use under an arrangement that conveys priority rights or other preferential benefits is not use on the same basis as the general public. Arrangements providing for use that is available to the general public at no charge or on the basis of rates that are generally applicable and uniformly applied do not convey priority rights or other preferential benefits. For this purpose, rates may be treated as generally applicable and uniformly applied even if—

(i) Different rates apply to different classes of users, such as volume purchasers, if the differences in rates are customary and reasonable; or

(ii) A specially negotiated rate arrangement is entered into, but only if the user is prohibited by federal law from paying the generally applicable rates, and the rates established are as comparable as reasonably possible to the generally applicable rates.

(3) Long-term arrangements not treated as general public use. An arrangement is not treated as general public use if the term of the use under the arrangement, including all renewal options, is greater than 200 days. For this purpose, a right of first refusal to renew use under the arrangement is not treated as a renewal option if—

(i) The compensation for the use under the arrangement is redetermined at generally applicable, fair market value rates that are in effect at the time of renewal; and

(ii) The use of the financed property under the same or similar arrangements is predominantly by natural persons who are not engaged in a trade or business.

(4) Relation to other use. Use of financed property by the general public does not prevent the proceeds from being used for a private business use because of other use under this section.

(d) Other exceptions—(1) Agents. Use of proceeds by nongovernmental persons solely in their capacity as agents of a governmental person is not private business use. For example, use by a nongovernmental person that issues obligations on behalf of a governmental person is not private business use to the extent the nongovernmental person's use of proceeds is in its capacity as an agent of the governmental person.

(2) Use incidental to financing arrangements. Use by a nongovernmental person that is solely incidental to a financing arrangement is not private business use. A use is solely incidental to a financing arrangement only if the nongovernmental person has no substantial rights to use bond proceeds or financed property other than as an agent of the bondholders. For example, a nongovernmental person that acts solely as an owner of title in a sale and leaseback financing transaction with a city generally is not a private business user of the property leased to the city, provided that the nongovernmental person has assigned all of its rights to use the leased facility to the trustee for the bondholders upon default by the city. Similarly, bond trustees, servicers, and guarantors are generally not treated as private business users.

(3) Exceptions for arrangements other than arrangements resulting in ownership of financed property by a nongovernmental person—(i) Arrangements not available for use on the same basis by natural persons not engaged in a trade or business. Use by a nongovernmental person pursuant to an arrangement, other than an arrangement resulting in ownership of financed property by a nongovernmental person, is not private business use if—

(A) The term of the use under the arrangement, including all renewal options, is not longer than 100 days;

(B) The arrangement would be treated as general public use, except that it is not available for use on the same basis by natural persons not engaged in a trade or business because generally applicable and uniformly applied rates are not reasonably available to natural persons not engaged in a trade or business; and

(C) The property is not financed for a principal purpose of providing that property for use by that nongovernmental person.

(ii) Negotiated arm's-length arrangements. Use by a nongovernmental person pursuant to an arrangement, other than an arrangement resulting in ownership of financed property by a nongovernmental person, is not private business use if—

(A) The term of the use under the arrangement, including all renewal options, is not longer than 50 days;

(B) The arrangement is a negotiated arm's-length arrangement, and compensation under the arrangement is at fair market value; and

(C) The property is not financed for a principal purpose of providing that property for use by that nongovernmental person.

(4) Temporary use by developers. Use during an initial development period by a developer of an improvement that carries out an essential governmental function is not private business use if the issuer and the developer reasonably expect on the issue date to proceed with all reasonable speed to develop the improvement and property benefited by that improvement and to transfer the improvement to a governmental person, and if the improvement is in fact transferred to a governmental person promptly after the property benefited by the improvement is developed.

(5) Incidental use—(i) General rule. Incidental uses of a financed facility are disregarded, to the extent that those uses do not exceed 2.5 percent of the proceeds of the issue used to finance the facility. A use of a facility by a nongovernmental person is incidental if—

(A) Except for vending machines, pay telephones, kiosks, and similar uses, the use does not involve the transfer to the nongovernmental person of possession and control of space that is separated from other areas of the facility by walls, partitions, or other physical barriers, such as a night gate affixed to a structural component of a building (a nonpossessory use);

(B) The nonpossessory use is not functionally related to any other use of the facility by the same person (other than a different nonpossessory use); and

(C) All nonpossessory uses of the facility do not, in the aggregate, involve the use of more than 2.5 percent of the facility.

(ii) Illustrations. Incidental uses may include pay telephones, vending machines, advertising displays, and use for television cameras, but incidental uses may not include output purchases.

(6) Qualified improvements. Proceeds that provide a governmentally owned improvement to a governmentally owned building (including its structural components and land functionally related and subordinate to the building) are not used for a private business use if—

(i) The building was placed in service more than 1 year before the construction or acquisition of the improvement is begun;

(ii) The improvement is not an enlargement of the building or an improvement of interior space occupied exclusively for any private business use;

(iii) No portion of the improved building or any payments in respect of the improved building are taken into account under section 141(b)(2)(A) (the private security test); and

(iv) No more than 15 percent of the improved building is used for a private business use.

(e) Special rule for tax assessment bonds. In the case of a tax assessment bond that satisfies the requirements of § 1.141-5(d), the loan (or deemed loan) of the proceeds to the borrower paying the assessment is disregarded in determining whether the private business use test is met. However, the use of the loan proceeds is not disregarded in determining whether the private business use test is met.

(f) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section. In each example, assume that the arrangements described are the only arrangements with nongovernmental persons for use of the financed property.

Example 1.

Nongovernmental ownership. State A issues 20-year bonds to purchase land and equip and construct a factory. A then enters into an arrangement with Corporation X to sell the factory to X on an installment basis while the bonds are outstanding. The issue meets the private business use test because a nongovernmental person owns the financed facility. See also § 1.141-2 (relating to the private activity bond tests), and § 1.141-5 (relating to the private loan financing test).

Example 2 Lease to a nongovernmental person.

(i) The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that A enters into an arrangement with X to lease the factory to X for 3 years rather than to sell it to X. The lease payments will be made annually and will be based on the tax-exempt interest rate on the bonds. The issue meets the private business use test because a nongovernmental person leases the financed facility. See also § 1.141-14 (relating to anti-abuse rules).

(ii) The facts are the same as in Example 2(i), except that the annual payments made by X will equal fair rental value of the facility and exceed the amount necessary to pay debt service on the bonds for the 3 years of the lease. The issue meets the private business use test because a nongovernmental person leases the financed facility and the test does not require that the benefits of tax-exempt financing be passed through to the nongovernmental person.

Example 3. Management contract in substance a lease.

City L issues 30-year bonds to finance the construction of a city hospital. L enters into a 15-year contract with M, a nongovernmental person that operates a health maintenance organization relating to the treatment of M's members at L's hospital. The contract provides for reasonable fixed compensation to M for services rendered with no compensation based, in whole or in part, on a share of net profits from the operation of the hospital. However, the contract also provides that 30 percent of the capacity of the hospital will be exclusively available to M's members and M will bear the risk of loss of that portion of the capacity of the hospital so that, under all of the facts and circumstances, the contract is properly characterized as a lease for federal income tax purposes. The issue meets the private business use test because a nongovernmental person leases the financed facility.

Example 4. Ownership of title in substance a leasehold interest.

Nonprofit Corporation R issues bonds on behalf of City P to finance the construction of a hospital. R will own legal title to the hospital. In addition, R will operate the hospital, but R is not treated as an agent of P in its capacity as operator of the hospital. P has certain rights to the hospital that establish that it is properly treated as the owner of the property for federal income tax purposes. P does not have rights, however, to directly control operation of the hospital while R owns legal title to it and operates it. The issue meets the private business use test because the arrangement provides a nongovernmental person an interest in the financed facility that is comparable to a leasehold interest. See paragraphs (a)(2) and (b)(7)(i) of this section.

Example 5. Rights to control use of property treated as private business use—parking lot.

Corporation C and City D enter into a plan to finance the construction of a parking lot adjacent to C's factory. Pursuant to the plan, C conveys the site for the parking lot to D for a nominal amount, subject to a covenant running with the land that the property be used only for a parking lot. In addition, D agrees that C will have the right to approve rates charged by D for use of the parking lot. D issues bonds to finance construction of the parking lot on the site. The parking lot will be available for use by the general public on the basis of rates that are generally applicable and uniformly applied. The issue meets the private business use test because a nongovernmental person has special legal entitlements for beneficial use of the financed facility that are comparable to an ownership interest. See paragraph (b)(7)(i) of this section.

Example 6. Other actual or beneficial use—hydroelectric enhancements.

J, a political subdivision, owns and operates a hydroelectric generation plant and related facilities. Pursuant to a take or pay contract, J sells 15 percent of the output of the plant to Corporation K, an investor-owned utility. K is treated as a private business user of the plant. Under the license issued to J for operation of the plant, J is required by federal regulations to construct and operate various facilities for the preservation of fish and for public recreation. J issues its obligations to finance the fish preservation and public recreation facilities. K has no special legal entitlements for beneficial use of the financed facilities. The fish preservation facilities are functionally related to the operation of the plant. The recreation facilities are available to natural persons on a short-term basis according to generally applicable and uniformly applied rates. Under paragraph (c) of this section, the recreation facilities are treated as used by the general public. Under paragraph (b)(7) of this section, K's use is not treated as private business use of the recreation facilities because K has no special legal entitlements for beneficial use of the recreation facilities. The fish preservation facilities are not of a type reasonably available for use on the same basis by natural persons not engaged in a trade or business. Under all of the facts and circumstances (including the functional relationship of the fish preservation facilities to property used in K's trade or business) under paragraph (b)(7)(ii) of this section, K derives a special economic benefit from the fish preservation facilities. Therefore, K's private business use may be established solely on the basis of that special economic benefit, and K's use of the fish preservation facilities is treated as private business use.

Example 7. Other actual or beneficial use—pollution control facilities.

City B issues obligations to finance construction of a specialized pollution control facility on land that it owns adjacent to a factory owned by Corporation N. B will own and operate the pollution control facility, and N will have no special legal entitlements to use the facility. B, however, reasonably expects that N will be the only user of the facility. The facility will not be reasonably available for use on the same basis by natural persons not engaged in a trade or business. Under paragraph (b)(7)(ii) of this section, because under all of the facts and circumstances the facility is functionally related and is physically proximate to property used in N's trade or business, N derives a special economic benefit from the facility. Therefore, N's private business use may be established solely on the basis of that special economic benefit, and N's use is treated as private business use of the facility. See paragraph (b)(7)(ii) of this section.

Example 8. General public use—airport runway.

(i) City I issues bonds and uses all of the proceeds to finance construction of a runway at a new city-owned airport. The runway will be available for take-off and landing by any operator of an aircraft desiring to use the airport, including general aviation operators who are natural persons not engaged in a trade or business. It is reasonably expected that most of the actual use of the runway will be by private air carriers (both charter airlines and commercial airlines) in connection with their use of the airport terminals leased by those carriers. These leases for the use of terminal space provide no priority rights or other preferential benefits to the air carriers for use of the runway. Moreover, under the leases the lease payments are determined without taking into account the revenues generated by runway landing fees (that is, the lease payments are not determined on a “residual” basis). Although the lessee air carriers receive a special economic benefit from the use of the runway, this economic benefit is not sufficient to cause the air carriers to be private business users, because the runway is available for general public use. The issue does not meet the private business use test. See paragraphs (b)(7)(ii) and (c) of this section.

(ii) The facts are the same as in Example 8(i), except that the runway will be available for use only by private air carriers. The use by these private air carriers is not for general public use, because the runway is not reasonably available for use on the same basis by natural persons not engaged in a trade or business. Depending on all of the facts and circumstances, including whether there are only a small number of lessee private air carriers, the issue may meet the private business use test solely because the private air carriers receive a special economic benefit from the runway. See paragraph (b)(7)(ii) of this section.

(iii) The facts are the same as in Example 8(i), except that the lease payments under the leases with the private air carriers are determined on a residual basis by taking into account the net revenues generated by runway landing fees. These leases cause the private business use test to be met with respect to the runway because they are arrangements that convey special legal entitlements to the financed facility to nongovernmental persons. See paragraph (b)(7)(i) of this section.

Example 9. General public use—airport parking garage.

City S issues bonds and uses all of the proceeds to finance construction of a city-owned parking garage at the city-owned airport. S reasonably expects that more than 10 percent of the actual use of the parking garage will be by employees of private air carriers (both charter airlines and commercial airlines) in connection with their use of the airport terminals leased by those carriers. The air carriers' use of the parking garage, however, will be on the same basis as passengers and other members of the general public using the airport. The leases for the use of the terminal space provide no priority rights to the air carriers for use of the parking garage, and the lease payments are determined without taking into account the revenues generated by the parking garage. Although the lessee air carriers receive a special economic benefit from the use of the parking garage, this economic benefit is not sufficient to cause the air carriers to be private business users, because the parking garage is available for general public use. The issue does not meet the private business use test. See paragraphs (b)(7)(ii) and (c) of this section.

Example 10. Long-term arrangements not treated as general public use—insurance fund.

Authority T deposits all of the proceeds of its bonds in its insurance fund and invests all of those proceeds in tax-exempt bonds. The insurance fund provides insurance to a large number of businesses and natural persons not engaged in a trade or business. Each participant receives insurance for a term of 1 year. The use by the participants, other than participants that are natural persons not engaged in a trade or business, is treated as private business use of the proceeds of the bonds because the participants have special legal entitlements to the use of bond proceeds, even though the contractual rights are not necessarily properly characterized as ownership, leasehold, or similar interests listed in paragraph (b) of this section. Use of the bond proceeds is not treated as general public use because the term of the insurance is greater than 200 days. See paragraphs (b)(7)(i) and (c)(3) of this section.

Example 11. General public use—port road.

Highway Authority W uses all of the proceeds of its bonds to construct a 25-mile road to connect an industrial port owned by Corporation Y with existing roads owned and operated by W. Other than the port, the nearest residential or commercial development to the new road is 12 miles away. There is no reasonable expectation that development will occur in the area surrounding the new road. W and Y enter into no arrangement (either by contract or ordinance) that conveys special legal entitlements to Y for the use of the road. Use of the road will be available without restriction to all users, including natural persons who are not engaged in a trade or business. The issue does not meet the private business use test because the road is treated as used only by the general public.

Example 12. General public use of governmentally owned hotel.

State Q issues bonds to purchase land and construct a hotel for use by the general public (that is, tourists, visitors, and business travelers). The bond documents provide that Q will own and operate the project for the term of the bonds. Q will not enter into a lease or license with any user for use of rooms for a period longer than 200 days (although users may actually use rooms for consecutive periods in excess of 200 days). Use of the hotel by hotel guests who are travelling in connection with trades or businesses of nongovernmental persons is not a private business use of the hotel by these persons because the hotel is intended to be available and in fact is reasonably available for use on the same basis by natural persons not engaged in a trade or business. See paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

Example 13. General public use with rights of first refusal.

Authority V uses all of the proceeds of its bonds to construct a parking garage. At least 90 percent of the spaces in the garage will be available to the general public on a monthly first-come, first-served basis. V reasonably expects that the spaces will be predominantly leased to natural persons not engaged in a trade or business who have priority rights to renew their spaces at then current fair market value rates. More than 10 percent of the spaces will be leased to nongovernmental persons acting in a trade or business. These leases are not treated as arrangements with a term of use greater than 200 days. The rights to renew are not treated as renewal options because the compensation for the spaces is redetermined at generally applicable, fair market value rates that will be in effect at the time of renewal and the use of the spaces under similar arrangements is predominantly by natural persons who are not engaged in a trade or business. The issue does not meet the private business use test because at least 90 percent of the use of the parking garage is general public use. See paragraph (c)(3) of this section.

Example 14. General public use with a specially negotiated rate agreement with agency of United States.

G, a sewage collection and treatment district, operates facilities that were financed with its bonds. F, an agency of the United States, has a base located within G. Approximately 20 percent of G's facilities are used to treat sewage produced by F under a specially negotiated rate agreement. Under the specially negotiated rate agreement, G uses its best efforts to charge F as closely as possible the same amount for its use of G's services as its other customers pay for the same amount of services, although those other customers pay for services based on standard district charges and tax levies. F is prohibited by federal law from paying for the services based on those standard district charges and tax levies. The use of G's facilities by F is on the same basis as the general public. See paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.

Example 15. Arrangements not available for use by natural persons not engaged in a trade or business—federal use of prisons.

Authority E uses all of the proceeds of its bonds to construct a prison. E contracts with federal agency F to house federal prisoners on a space-available, first-come, first-served basis, pursuant to which F will be charged approximately the same amount for each prisoner as other persons that enter into similar transfer agreements. It is reasonably expected that other persons will enter into similar agreements. The term of the use under the contract is not longer than 100 days, and F has no right to renew, although E reasonably expects to renew the contract indefinitely. The prison is not financed for a principal purpose of providing the prison for use by F. It is reasonably expected that during the term of the bonds, more than 10 percent of the prisoners at the prison will be federal prisoners. F's use of the facility is not general public use because this type of use (leasing space for prisoners) is not available for use on the same basis by natural persons not engaged in a trade or business. The issue does not meet the private business use test, however, because the leases satisfy the exception of paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section.

Example 16. Negotiated arm's-length arrangements—auditorium reserved in advance.

(i) City Z issues obligations to finance the construction of a municipal auditorium that it will own and operate. The use of the auditorium will be open to anyone who wishes to use it for a short period of time on a rate-scale basis. Z reasonably expects that the auditorium will be used by schools, church groups, sororities, and numerous commercial organizations. Corporation H, a nongovernmental person, enters into an arm's-length arrangement with Z to use the auditorium for 1 week for each year for a 10-year period (a total of 70 days), pursuant to which H will be charged a specific price reflecting fair market value. On the date the contract is entered into, Z has not established generally applicable rates for future years. Even though the auditorium is not financed for a principal purpose of providing use of the auditorium to H, H is not treated as using the auditorium as a member of the general public because its use is not on the same basis as the general public. Because the term of H's use of the auditorium is longer than 50 days, the arrangement does not meet the exception under paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section.

(ii) The facts are the same as in Example 16(i), except that H will enter into an arm's-length arrangement with Z to use the auditorium for 1 week for each year for a 4-year period (a total of 28 days), pursuant to which H will be charged a specific price reflecting fair market value. H is not treated as a private business user of the auditorium because its contract satisfies the exception of paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section for negotiated arm's-length arrangements.

(g) Measurement of private business use—(1) In general. In general, the private business use of proceeds is allocated to property under § 1.141-6. The amount of private business use of that property is determined according to the average percentage of private business use of that property during the measurement period.

(2) Measurement period—(i) General rule. Except as provided in this paragraph (g)(2), the measurement period of property financed by an issue begins on the later of the issue date of that issue or the date the property is placed in service and ends on the earlier of the last date of the reasonably expected economic life of the property or the latest maturity date of any bond of the issue financing the property (determined without regard to any optional redemption dates). In general, the period of reasonably expected economic life of the property for this purpose is based on reasonable expectations as of the issue date.

(ii) Special rule for refundings of short-term obligations. For an issue of short-term obligations that the issuer reasonably expects to refund with a long-term financing (such as bond anticipation notes), the measurement period is based on the latest maturity date of any bond of the last refunding issue with respect to the financed property (determined without regard to any optional redemption dates).

(iii) Special rule for reasonably expected mandatory redemptions. If an issuer reasonably expects on the issue date that an action will occur during the term of the bonds to cause either the private business tests or the private loan financing test to be met and is required to redeem bonds to meet the reasonable expectations test of § 1.141-2(d)(2), the measurement period ends on the reasonably expected redemption date.

(iv) Special rule for ownership by a nongovernmental person. The amount of private business use resulting from ownership by a nongovernmental person is the greatest percentage of private business use in any 1-year period.

(v) Special rule for partners that are nongovernmental persons—(A) The amount of private business use by a nongovernmental person resulting from the use of property by a partnership in which that nongovernmental person is a partner is that nongovernmental partner's share of the amount of use of the property by the partnership. For this purpose, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (g)(2)(v)(B) of this section, a nongovernmental partner's share of the partnership's use of the property is the nongovernmental partner's greatest percentage share under section 704(b) of any partnership item of income, gain, loss, deduction, or credit attributable to the period that the partnership uses the property during the measurement period. For example, if a partnership has a nongovernmental partner and that partner's share of partnership items varies, with the greatest share being 25 percent, then that nongovernmental partner's share of the partnership's use of property is 25 percent.

(B) An issuer may determine a nongovernmental partner's share of the partnership's use of the property under guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see § 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b) of this chapter).

(vi) Anti-abuse rule. If an issuer establishes the term of an issue for a period that is longer than is reasonably necessary for the governmental purposes of the issue for a principal purpose of increasing the permitted amount of private business use, the Commissioner may determine the amount of private business use according to the greatest percentage of private business use in any 1-year period.

(3) Determining average percentage of private business use. The average percentage of private business use is the average of the percentages of private business use during the 1-year periods within the measurement period. Appropriate adjustments must be made for beginning and ending periods of less than 1 year.

(4) Determining the average amount of private business use for a 1-year period—(i) In general. The percentage of private business use of property for any 1-year period is the average private business use during that year. This average is determined by comparing the amount of private business use during the year to the total amount of private business use and use that is not private business use (government use) during that year. Paragraphs (g)(4) (ii) through (v) of this section apply to determine the average amount of private business use for a 1-year period.

(ii) Uses at different times. For a facility in which actual government use and private business use occur at different times (for example, different days), the average amount of private business use generally is based on the amount of time that the facility is used for private business use as a percentage of the total time for all actual use. In determining the total amount of actual use, periods during which the facility is not in use are disregarded.

(iii) Simultaneous use. In general, for a facility in which government use and private business use occur simultaneously, the entire facility is treated as having private business use. For example, a governmentally owned facility that is leased or managed by a nongovernmental person in a manner that results in private business use is treated as entirely used for a private business use. If, however, there is also private business use and actual government use on the same basis, the average amount of private business use may be determined on a reasonable basis that properly reflects the proportionate benefit to be derived by the various users of the facility (for example, reasonably expected fair market value of use). For example, the average amount of private business use of a garage with unassigned spaces that is used for government use and private business use is generally based on the number of spaces used for private business use as a percentage of the total number of spaces.

(iv) Discrete portion. For purposes of this paragraph (g), measurement of the use of proceeds allocated to a discrete portion of a facility is determined by treating that discrete portion as a separate facility.

(v) Relationship to fair market value. For purposes of paragraphs (g)(4) (ii) through (iv) of this section, if private business use is reasonably expected as of the issue date to have a significantly greater fair market value than government use, the average amount of private business use must be determined according to the relative reasonably expected fair market values of use rather than another measure, such as average time of use. This determination of relative fair market value may be made as of the date the property is acquired or placed in service if making this determination as of the issue date is not reasonably possible (for example, if the financed property is not identified on the issue date). In general, the relative reasonably expected fair market value for a period must be determined by taking into account the amount of reasonably expected payments for private business use for the period in a manner that properly reflects the proportionate benefit to be derived from the private business use.

(5) Common areas. The amount of private business use of common areas within a facility is based on a reasonable method that properly reflects the proportionate benefit to be derived by the users of the facility. For example, in general, a method that is based on the average amount of private business use of the remainder of the entire facility reflects proportionate benefit.

(6) Allocation of neutral costs. Proceeds that are used to pay costs of issuance, invested in a reserve or replacement fund, or paid as fees for a qualified guarantee or a qualified hedge must be allocated ratably among the other purposes for which the proceeds are used.

(7) Commencement of measurement of private business use. Generally, private business use commences on the first date on which there is a right to actual use by the nongovernmental person. However, if an issuer enters into an arrangement for private business use a substantial period before the right to actual private business use commences and the arrangement transfers ownership or is an arrangement for other long-term use (such as a lease for a significant portion of the remaining economic life of financed property), private business use commences on the date the arrangement is entered into, even if the right to actual use commences after the measurement period. For this purpose, 10 percent of the measurement period is generally treated as a substantial period.

(8) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this paragraph (g):

Example 1. Research facility.

University U, a state owned and operated university, owns and operates a research facility. U proposes to finance general improvements to the facility with the proceeds of an issue of bonds. U enters into sponsored research agreements with nongovernmental persons that result in private business use because the sponsors will own title to any patents resulting from the research. The governmental research conducted by U and the research U conducts for the sponsors take place simultaneously in all laboratories within the research facility. All laboratory equipment is available continuously for use by workers who perform both types of research. Because it is not possible to predict which research projects will be successful, it is not reasonably practicable to estimate the relative revenues expected to result from the governmental and nongovernmental research. U contributed 90 percent of the cost of the facility and the nongovernmental persons contributed 10 percent of the cost. Under this section, the nongovernmental persons are using the facility for a private business use on the same basis as the government use of the facility. The portions of the costs contributed by the various users of the facility provide a reasonable basis that properly reflects the proportionate benefit to be derived by the users of the facility. The nongovernmental persons are treated as using 10 percent of the proceeds of the issue.

Example 2. Stadium.

(i) City L issues bonds and uses all of the proceeds to construct a stadium. L enters into a long-term contract with a professional sports team T under which T will use the stadium 20 times during each year. These uses will occur on nights and weekends. L reasonably expects that the stadium will be used more than 180 other times each year, none of which will give rise to private business use. This expectation is based on a feasibility study and historical use of the old stadium that is being replaced by the new stadium. There is no significant difference in the value of T's uses when compared to the other uses of the stadium, taking into account the payments that T is reasonably expected to make for its use. Assuming no other private business use, the issue does not meet the private business use test because not more than 10 percent of the use of the facility is for a private business use.

(ii) The facts are the same as in Example 2(i), except that L reasonably expects that the stadium will be used not more than 60 other times each year, none of which will give rise to private business use. The issue meets the private business use test because 25 percent of the proceeds are used for a private business use.

Example 3. Airport terminal areas treated as common areas.

City N issues bonds to finance the construction of an airport terminal. Eighty percent of the leasable space of the terminal will be leased to private air carriers. The remaining 20 percent of the leasable space will be used for the term of the bonds by N for its administrative purposes. The common areas of the terminal, including waiting areas, lobbies, and hallways are treated as 80 percent used by the air carriers for purposes of the private business use test.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2286, Jan. 16, 1997, as amended by T.D. 8967, 66 FR 58062, Nov. 20, 2001; T.D. 9741, 80 FR 65643, Oct. 27, 2015]

§ 1.141-4 Private security or payment test.

(a) General rule—(1) Private security or payment. The private security or payment test relates to the nature of the security for, and the source of, the payment of debt service on an issue. The private payment portion of the test takes into account the payment of the debt service on the issue that is directly or indirectly to be derived from payments (whether or not to the issuer or any related party) in respect of property, or borrowed money, used or to be used for a private business use. The private security portion of the test takes into account the payment of the debt service on the issue that is directly or indirectly secured by any interest in property used or to be used for a private business use or payments in respect of property used or to be used for a private business use. For additional rules for output facilities, see § 1.141-7.

(2) Aggregation of private payments and security. For purposes of the private security or payment test, payments taken into account as private payments and payments or property taken into account as private security are aggregated. However, the same payments are not taken into account as both private security and private payments.

(3) Underlying arrangement. The security for, and payment of debt service on, an issue is determined from both the terms of the bond documents and on the basis of any underlying arrangement. An underlying arrangement may result from separate agreements between the parties or may be determined on the basis of all of the facts and circumstances surrounding the issuance of the bonds. For example, if the payment of debt service on an issue is secured by both a pledge of the full faith and credit of a state or local governmental unit and any interest in property used or to be used in a private business use, the issue meets the private security or payment test.

(b) Measurement of private payments and security—(1) Scope. This paragraph (b) contains rules that apply to both private security and private payments.

(2) Present value measurement—(i) Use of present value. In determining whether an issue meets the private security or payment test, the present value of the payments or property taken into account is compared to the present value of the debt service to be paid over the term of the issue.

(ii) Debt service—(A) Debt service paid from proceeds. Debt service does not include any amount paid or to be paid from sale proceeds or investment proceeds. For example, debt service does not include payments of capitalized interest funded with proceeds.

(B) Adjustments to debt service. Debt service is adjusted to take into account payments and receipts that adjust the yield on an issue for purposes of section 148(f). For example, debt service includes fees paid for qualified guarantees under § 1.148-4(f) and is adjusted to take into account payments and receipts on qualified hedges under § 1.148-4(h).

(iii) Computation of present value—(A) In general. Present values are determined by using the yield on the issue as the discount rate and by discounting all amounts to the issue date. See, however, § 1.141-13 for special rules for refunding bonds.

(B) Fixed yield issues. For a fixed yield issue, yield is determined on the issue date and is not adjusted to take into account subsequent events.

(C) Variable yield issues. The yield on a variable yield issue is determined over the term of the issue. To determine the reasonably expected yield as of any date, the issuer may assume that the future interest rate on a variable yield bond will be the then-current interest rate on the bonds determined under the formula prescribed in the bond documents. A deliberate action requires a recomputation of the yield on the variable yield issue to determine the present value of payments under that arrangement. In that case, the issuer must use the yield determined as of the date of the deliberate action for purposes of determining the present value of payments under the arrangement causing the deliberate action. See paragraph (g) of this section, Example 3.

(iv) Application to private security. For purposes of determining the present value of debt service that is secured by property, the property is valued at fair market value as of the first date on which the property secures bonds of the issue.

(c) Private payments—(1) In general. This paragraph (c) contains rules that apply to private payments.

(2) Payments taken into account—(i) Payments for use—(A) In general. Both direct and indirect payments made by any nongovernmental person that is treated as using proceeds of the issue are taken into account as private payments to the extent allocable to the proceeds used by that person. Payments are taken into account as private payments only to the extent that they are made for the period of time that proceeds are used for a private business use. Payments for a use of proceeds include payments (whether or not to the issuer) in respect of property financed (directly or indirectly) with those proceeds, even if not made by a private business user. Payments are not made in respect of financed property if those payments are directly allocable to other property being directly used by the person making the payment and those payments represent fair market value compensation for that other use. See paragraph (g) of this section, Example 4 and Example 5. See also paragraph (c)(3) of this section for rules relating to allocation of payments to the source or sources of funding of property.

(B) Payments not to exceed use. Payments with respect to proceeds that are used for a private business use are not taken into account to the extent that the present value of those payments exceeds the present value of debt service on those proceeds. Payments need not be directly derived from a private business user, however, to be taken into account. Thus, if 7 percent of the proceeds of an issue is used by a person over the measurement period, payments with respect to the property financed with those proceeds are taken into account as private payments only to the extent that the present value of those payments does not exceed the present value of 7 percent of the debt service on the issue.

(C) Payments for operating expenses. Payments by a person for a use of proceeds do not include the portion of any payment that is properly allocable to the payment of ordinary and necessary expenses (as defined under section 162) directly attributable to the operation and maintenance of the financed property used by that person. For this purpose, general overhead and administrative expenses are not directly attributable to those operations and maintenance. For example, if an issuer receives $5,000 rent during the year for use of space in a financed facility and during the year pays $500 for ordinary and necessary expenses properly allocable to the operation and maintenance of that space and $400 for general overhead and general administrative expenses properly allocable to that space, $500 of the $5,000 received would not be considered a payment for the use of the proceeds allocable to that space (regardless of the manner in which that $500 is actually used).

(ii) Refinanced debt service. Payments of debt service on an issue to be made from proceeds of a refunding issue are taken into account as private payments in the same proportion that the present value of the payments taken into account as private payments for the refunding issue bears to the present value of the debt service to be paid on the refunding issue. For example, if all the debt service on a note is paid with proceeds of a refunding issue, the note meets the private security or payment test if (and to the same extent that) the refunding issue meets the private security or payment test. This paragraph (c)(2)(ii) does not apply to payments that arise from deliberate actions that occur more than 3 years after the retirement of the prior issue that are not reasonably expected on the issue date of the refunding issue. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii), whether an issue is a refunding issue is determined without regard to § 1.150-1(d)(2)(i) (relating to certain payments of interest).

(3) Allocation of payments—(i) In general. Private payments for the use of property are allocated to the source or different sources of funding of property. The allocation to the source or different sources of funding is based on all of the facts and circumstances, including whether an allocation is consistent with the purposes of section 141. In general, a private payment for the use of property is allocated to a source of funding based upon the nexus between the payment and both the financed property and the source of funding. For this purpose, different sources of funding may include different tax-exempt issues, taxable issues, and amounts that are not derived from a borrowing, such as revenues of an issuer (equity).

(ii) Payments for use of discrete property. Payments for the use of a discrete facility (or a discrete portion of a facility) are allocated to the source or different sources of funding of that discrete property.

(iii) Allocations among two or more sources of funding. In general, except as provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(iv) and (v) of this section, if a payment is made for the use of property financed with two or more sources of funding (for example, equity and a tax-exempt issue), that payment must be allocated to those sources of funding in a manner that reasonably corresponds to the relative amounts of those sources of funding that are expended on that property. If an issuer has not retained records of amounts expended on the property (for example, records of costs of a building that was built 30 years before the allocation), an issuer may use reasonable estimates of those expenditures. For this purpose, costs of issuance and other similar neutral costs are allocated ratably among expenditures in the same manner as in § 1.141-3(g)(6). A payment for the use of property may be allocated to two or more issues that finance property according to the relative amounts of debt service (both paid and accrued) on the issues during the annual period for which the payment is made, if that allocation reasonably reflects the economic substance of the arrangement. In general, allocations of payments according to relative debt service reasonably reflect the economic substance of the arrangement if the maturity of the bonds reasonably corresponds to the reasonably expected economic life of the property and debt service payments on the bonds are approximately level from year to year.

(iv) Payments made under an arrangement entered into in connection with issuance of bonds. A private payment for the use of property made under an arrangement that is entered into in connection with the issuance of the issue that finances that property generally is allocated to that issue. Whether an arrangement is entered into in connection with the issuance of an issue is determined on the basis of all of the facts and circumstances. An arrangement is ordinarily treated as entered into in connection with the issuance of an issue if—

(A) The issuer enters into the arrangement during the 3-year period beginning 18 months before the issue date; and

(B) The amount of payments reflects all or a portion of debt service on the issue.

(v) Allocations to equity. A private payment for the use of property may be allocated to equity before payments are allocated to an issue only if—

(A) Not later than 60 days after the date of the expenditure of those amounts, the issuer adopts an official intent (in a manner comparable to § 1.150-2(e)) indicating that the issuer reasonably expects to be repaid for the expenditure from a specific arrangement; and

(B) The private payment is made not later than 18 months after the later of the date the expenditure is made or the date the project is placed in service.

(d) Private security—(1) In general. This paragraph (d) contains rules that relate to private security.

(2) Security taken into account. The property that is the security for, or the source of, the payment of debt service on an issue need not be property financed with proceeds. For example, unimproved land or investment securities used, directly or indirectly, in a private business use that secures an issue provides private security. Private security (other than financed property and private payments) for an issue is taken into account under section 141(b), however, only to the extent it is provided, directly or indirectly, by a user of proceeds of the issue.

(3) Pledge of unexpended proceeds. Proceeds qualifying for an initial temporary period under § 1.148-2(e)(2) or (3) or deposited in a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund (as defined in § 1.148-2(f)(2)(i)) are not taken into account under this paragraph (d) before the date on which those amounts are either expended or loaned by the issuer to an unrelated party.

(4) Secured by any interest in property or payments. Property used or to be used for a private business use and payments in respect of that property are treated as private security if any interest in that property or payments secures the payment of debt service on the bonds. For this purpose, the phrase any interest in is to be interpreted broadly and includes, for example, any right, claim, title, or legal share in property or payments.

(5) Payments in respect of property. The payments taken into account as private security are payments in respect of property used or to be used for a private business use. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (d)(5) and paragraph (d)(6) of this section, the rules in paragraphs (c)(2)(i)(A) and (B) and (c)(2)(ii) of this section apply to determine the amount of payments treated as payments in respect of property used or to be used for a private business use. Thus, payments made by members of the general public for use of a facility used for a private business use (for example, a facility that is the subject of a management contract that results in private business use) are taken into account as private security to the extent that they are made for the period of time that property is used by a private business user.

(6) Allocation of security among issues. In general, property or payments from the disposition of that property that are taken into account as private security are allocated to each issue secured by the property or payments on a reasonable basis that takes into account bondholders' rights to the payments or property upon default.

(e) Generally applicable taxes—(1) General rule. For purposes of the private security or payment test, generally applicable taxes are not taken into account (that is, are not payments from a nongovernmental person and are not payments in respect of property used for a private business use).

(2) Definition of generally applicable taxes. A generally applicable tax is an enforced contribution exacted pursuant to legislative authority in the exercise of the taxing power that is imposed and collected for the purpose of raising revenue to be used for governmental or public purposes. A generally applicable tax must have a uniform tax rate that is applied to all persons of the same classification in the appropriate jurisdiction and a generally applicable manner of determination and collection.

(3) Special charges. A special charge (as defined in this paragraph (e)(3)) is not a generally applicable tax. For this purpose, a special charge means a payment for a special privilege granted or regulatory function (for example, a license fee), a service rendered (for example, a sanitation services fee), a use of property (for example, rent), or a payment in the nature of a special assessment to finance capital improvements that is imposed on a limited class of persons based on benefits received from the capital improvements financed with the assessment. Thus, a special assessment to finance infrastructure improvements in a new industrial park (such as sidewalks, streets, streetlights, and utility infrastructure improvements) that is imposed on a limited class of persons composed of property owners within the industrial park who benefit from those improvements is a special charge. By contrast, an otherwise qualified generally applicable tax (such as a generally applicable ad valorem tax on all real property within a governmental taxing jurisdiction) or an eligible PILOT under paragraph (e)(5) of this section that is based on such a generally applicable tax is not treated as a special charge merely because the taxes or PILOTs received are used for governmental or public purposes in a manner which benefits particular property owners.

(4) Manner of determination and collection—(i) In general. A tax does not have a generally applicable manner of determination and collection to the extent that one or more taxpayers make any impermissible agreements relating to payment of those taxes. An impermissible agreement relating to the payment of a tax is taken into account whether or not it is reasonably expected to result in any payments that would not otherwise have been made. For example, if an issuer uses proceeds to make a grant to a taxpayer to improve property, agreements that impose reasonable conditions on the use of the grant do not cause a tax on that property to fail to be a generally applicable tax. If an agreement by a taxpayer causes the tax imposed on that taxpayer not to be treated as a generally applicable tax, the entire tax paid by that taxpayer is treated as a special charge, unless the agreement is limited to a specific portion of the tax.

(ii) Impermissible agreements. The following are examples of agreements that cause a tax to fail to have a generally applicable manner of determination and collection: an agreement to be personally liable on a tax that does not generally impose personal liability, to provide additional credit support such as a third party guarantee, or to pay unanticipated shortfalls; an agreement regarding the minimum market value of property subject to property tax; and an agreement not to challenge or seek deferral of the tax.

(iii) Permissible agreements. The following are examples of agreements that do not cause a tax to fail to have a generally applicable manner of determination and collection: an agreement to use a grant for specified purposes (whether or not that agreement is secured); a representation regarding the expected value of the property following the improvement; an agreement to insure the property and, if damaged, to restore the property; a right of a grantor to rescind the grant if property taxes are not paid; and an agreement to reduce or limit the amount of taxes collected to further a bona fide governmental purpose. For example, an agreement to abate taxes to encourage a property owner to rehabilitate property in a distressed area is a permissible agreement.

(5) Payments in lieu of taxes. A tax equivalency payment or other payment in lieu of a tax (“PILOT”) is treated as a generally applicable tax if it meets the requirements of paragraphs (e)(5)(i) through (iv) of this section—

(i) Maximum amount limited by underlying generally applicable tax. The PILOT is not greater than the amount imposed by a statute for a generally applicable tax in each year.

(ii) Commensurate with a generally applicable tax. The PILOT is commensurate with the amount imposed by a statute for a generally applicable tax in each year under the commensurate standard set forth in this paragraph (e)(5)(ii). For this purpose, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (e)(5)(ii), a PILOT is commensurate with a generally applicable tax only if it is equal to a fixed percentage of the generally applicable tax that would otherwise apply in each year or it reflects a fixed adjustment to the generally applicable tax that would otherwise apply in each year. A PILOT based on a property tax does not fail to be commensurate with the property tax as a result of changes in the level of the percentage of or adjustment to that property tax for a reasonable phase-in period ending when the subject property is placed in service (as defined in § 1.150-2(c)). A PILOT based on a property tax must take into account the current assessed value of the property for property tax purposes for each year in which the PILOT is paid and that assessed value must be determined in the same manner and with the same frequency as property subject to the property tax. A PILOT is not commensurate with a generally applicable tax, however, if the PILOT is set at a fixed dollar amount (for example, fixed debt service on a bond issue) that cannot vary with changes in the level of the generally applicable tax on which it is based.

(iii) Use of PILOTs for governmental or public purposes. The PILOT is to be used for governmental or public purposes for which the generally applicable tax on which it is based may be used.

(iv) No special charges. The PILOT is not a special charge under paragraph (e)(3) of this section.

(f) Certain waste remediation bonds—(1) Scope. This paragraph (f) applies to bonds issued to finance hazardous waste clean-up activities on privately owned land (hazardous waste remediation bonds).

(2) Persons that are not private users. Payments from nongovernmental persons who are not (other than coincidentally) either users of the site being remediated or persons potentially responsible for disposing of hazardous waste on that site are not taken into account as private security. This paragraph (f)(2) applies to payments that secure (directly or indirectly) the payment of principal of, or interest on, the bonds under the terms of the bonds. This paragraph (f)(2) applies only if the payments are made pursuant to either a generally applicable state or local taxing statute or a state or local statute that regulates or restrains activities on an industry-wide basis of persons who are engaged in generating or handling hazardous waste, or in refining, producing, or transporting petroleum, provided that those payments do not represent, in substance, payment for the use of proceeds. For this purpose, a state or local statute that imposes payments that have substantially the same character as those described in Chapter 38 of the Code are treated as generally applicable taxes.

(3) Persons that are private users. If payments from nongovernmental persons who are either users of the site being remediated or persons potentially responsible for disposing of hazardous waste on that site do not secure (directly or indirectly) the payment of principal of, or interest on, the bonds under the terms of the bonds, the payments are not taken into account as private payments. This paragraph (f)(3) applies only if at the time the bonds are issued the payments from those nongovernmental persons are not material to the security for the bonds. For this purpose, payments are not material to the security for the bonds if—

(i) The payments are not required for the payment of debt service on the bonds;

(ii) The amount and timing of the payments are not structured or designed to reflect the payment of debt service on the bonds;

(iii) The receipt or the amount of the payment is uncertain (for example, as of the issue date, no final judgment has been entered into against the nongovernmental person);

(iv) The payments from those nongovernmental persons, when and if received, are used either to redeem bonds of the issuer or to pay for costs of any hazardous waste remediation project; and

(v) In the case when a judgment (but not a final judgment) has been entered by the issue date against a nongovernmental person, there are, as of the issue date, costs of hazardous waste remediation other than those financed with the bonds that may be financed with the payments.

(g) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this section:

Example 1.

Aggregation of payments. State B issues bonds with proceeds of $10 million. B uses $9.7 million of the proceeds to construct a 10-story office building. B uses the remaining $300,000 of proceeds to make a loan to Corporation Y. In addition, Corporation X leases 1 floor of the building for the term of the bonds. Under all of the facts and circumstances, it is reasonable to allocate 10 percent of the proceeds to that 1 floor. As a percentage of the present value of the debt service on the bonds, the present value of Y's loan repayments is 3 percent and the present value of X's lease payments is 8 percent. The bonds meet the private security or payment test because the private payments taken into account are more than 10 percent of the present value of the debt service on the bonds.

Example 2. Indirect private payments.

J, a political subdivision of a state, will issue several series of bonds from time to time and will use the proceeds to rehabilitate urban areas. Under all of the facts and circumstances, the private business use test will be met with respect to each issue that will be used for the rehabilitation and construction of buildings that will be leased or sold to nongovernmental persons for use in their trades or businesses. Nongovernmental persons will make payments for these sales and leases. There is no limitation either on the number of issues or the aggregate amount of bonds that may be outstanding. No group of bondholders has any legal claim prior to any other bondholders or creditors with respect to specific revenues of J, and there is no arrangement whereby revenues from a particular project are paid into a trust or constructive trust, or sinking fund, or are otherwise segregated or restricted for the benefit of any group of bondholders. There is, however, an unconditional obligation by J to pay the principal of, and the interest on, each issue. Although not directly pledged under the terms of the bond documents, the leases and sales are underlying arrangements. The payments relating to these leases and sales are taken into account as private payments to determine whether each issue of bonds meets the private security or payment test.

Example 3. Computation of payment in variable yield issues.

(i) City M issues general obligation bonds with proceeds of $10 million to finance a 5-story office building. The bonds bear interest at a variable rate that is recomputed monthly according to an index that reflects current market yields. The yield that the interest index would produce on the issue date is 6 percent. M leases 1 floor of the office building to Corporation T, a nongovernmental person, for the term of the bonds. Under all of the facts and circumstances, T is treated as using more than 10 percent of the proceeds. Using the 6 percent yield as the discount rate, M reasonably expects on the issue date that the present value of lease payments to be made by T will be 8 percent of the present value of the total debt service on the bonds. After the issue date of the bonds, interest rates decline significantly, so that the yield on the bonds over their entire term is 4 percent. Using this actual 4 percent yield as the discount rate, the present value of lease payments made by T is 12 percent of the present value of the actual total debt service on the bonds. The bonds are not private activity bonds because M reasonably expected on the issue date that the bonds would not meet the private security or payment test and because M did not take any subsequent deliberate action to meet the private security or payment test.

(ii) The facts are the same as Example 3(i), except that 5 years after the issue date M leases a second floor to Corporation S, a nongovernmental person, under a long-term lease. Because M has taken a deliberate action, the present value of the lease payments must be computed. On the date this lease is entered into, M reasonably expects that the yield on the bonds over their entire term will be 5.5 percent, based on actual interest rates to date and the then-current rate on the variable yield bonds. M uses this 5.5 percent yield as the discount rate. Using this 5.5 percent yield as the discount rate, as a percentage of the present value of the debt service on the bonds, the present value of the lease payments made by S is 3 percent. The bonds are private activity bonds because the present value of the aggregate private payments is greater than 10 percent of the present value of debt service.

Example 4. Payments not in respect of financed property.

In order to further public safety, City Y issues tax assessment bonds the proceeds of which are used to move existing electric utility lines underground. Although the utility lines are owned by a nongovernmental utility company, that company is under no obligation to move the lines. The debt service on the bonds will be paid using assessments levied by City Y on the customers of the utility. Although the utility lines are privately owned and the utility customers make payments to the utility company for the use of those lines, the assessments are payments in respect of the cost of relocating the utility line. Thus, the assessment payments are not made in respect of property used for a private business use. Any direct or indirect payments to Y by the utility company for the undergrounding are, however, taken into account as private payments.

Example 5. Payments from users of proceeds that are not private business users taken into account.

City P issues general obligation bonds to finance the renovation of a hospital that it owns. The hospital is operated for P by D, a nongovernmental person, under a management contract that results in private business use under § 1.141-3. P will use the revenues from the hospital (after the required payments to D and the payment of operation and maintenance expenses) to pay the debt service on the bonds. The bonds meet the private security or payment test because the revenues from the hospital are payments in respect of property used for a private business use.

Example 6. Limitation of amount of payments to amount of private business use not determined annually.

City Q issues bonds with a term of 15 years and uses the proceeds to construct an office building. The debt service on the bonds is level throughout the 15-year term. Q enters into a 5-year lease with Corporation R under which R is treated as a user of 11 percent of the proceeds. R will make lease payments equal to 20 percent of the annual debt service on the bonds for each year of the lease. The present value of R's lease payments is equal to 12 percent of the present value of the debt service over the entire 15-year term of the bonds. If, however, the lease payments taken into account as private payments were limited to 11 percent of debt service paid in each year of the lease, the present value of these payments would be only 8 percent of the debt service on the bonds over the entire term of the bonds. The bonds meet the private security or payment test, because R's lease payments are taken into account as private payments in an amount not to exceed 11 percent of the debt service of the bonds.

Example 7. Allocation of payments to funds not derived from a borrowing.

City Z purchases property for $1,250,000 using $1,000,000 of proceeds of its tax increment bonds and $250,000 of other revenues that are in its redevelopment fund. Within 60 days of the date of purchase, Z declared its intent to sell the property pursuant to a redevelopment plan and to use that amount to reimburse its redevelopment fund. The bonds are secured only by the incremental property taxes attributable to the increase in value of the property from the planned redevelopment of the property. Within 18 months after the issue date, Z sells the financed property to Developer M for $250,000, which Z uses to reimburse the redevelopment fund. The property that M uses is financed both with the proceeds of the bonds and Z's redevelopment fund. The payments by M are properly allocable to the costs of property financed with the amounts in Z's redevelopment fund. See paragraphs (c)(3) (i) and (v) of this section.

Example 8. Allocation of payments to different sources of funding—improvements.

In 1997, City L issues bonds with proceeds of $8 million to finance the acquisition of a building. In 2002, L spends $2 million of its general revenues to improve the heating system and roof of the building. At that time, L enters into a 10-year lease with Corporation M for the building providing for annual payments of $1 million to L. The lease payments are at fair market value, and the lease payments do not otherwise have a significant nexus to either the issue or to the expenditure of general revenues. Eighty percent of each lease payment is allocated to the issue and is taken into account under the private payment test because each lease payment is properly allocated to the sources of funding in a manner that reasonably corresponds to the relative amounts of the sources of funding that are expended on the building.

Example 9. Security not provided by users of proceeds not taken into account.

County W issues certificates of participation in a lease of a building that W owns and covenants to appropriate annual payments for the lease. A portion of each payment is specified as interest. More than 10 percent of the building is used for private business use. None of the proceeds of the obligations are used with respect to the building. W uses the proceeds of the obligations to make a grant to Corporation Y for the construction of a factory that Y will own. Y makes no payments to W, directly or indirectly, for its use of proceeds, and Y has no relationship to the users of the leased building. If W defaults under the lease, the trustee for the holders of the certificates of participation has a limited right of repossession under which the trustee may not foreclose but may lease the property to a new tenant at fair market value. The obligations are secured by an interest in property used for a private business use. However, because the property is not provided by a private business user and is not financed property, the obligations do not meet the private security or payment test.

Example 10. Allocation of payments among issues.

University L, a political subdivision, issued three separate series of revenue bonds during 1989, 1991, and 1993 under the same bond resolution. L used the proceeds to construct facilities exclusively for its own use. Bonds issued under the resolution are equally and ratably secured and payable solely from the income derived by L from rates, fees, and charges imposed by L for the use of the facilities. The bonds issued in 1989, 1991, and 1993 are not private activity bonds. In 1997, L issues another series of bonds under the resolution to finance additional facilities. L leases 20 percent of the new facilities for the term of the 1997 bonds to nongovernmental persons who will use the facilities in their trades or businesses. The present value of the lease payments from the nongovernmental users will equal 15 percent of the present value of the debt service on the 1997 bonds. L will commingle all of the revenues from all its bond-financed facilities in its revenue fund. The present value of the portion of the lease payments from nongovernmental lessees of the new facilities allocable to the 1997 bonds under paragraph (d) of this section is less than 10 percent of the present value of the debt service on the 1997 bonds because the bond documents provide that the bonds are equally and ratably secured. Accordingly, the 1997 bonds do not meet the private security test. The 1997 bonds meet the private payment test, however, because the private lease payments for the new facility are properly allocated to those bonds (that is, because none of the proceeds of the prior issues were used for the new facilities). See paragraph (c) of this section.

Example 11. Generally applicable tax.

(i) Authority N issues bonds to finance the construction of a stadium. Under a long-term lease, Corporation X, a professional sports team, will use more than 10 percent of the stadium. X will not, however, make any payments for this private business use. The security for the bonds will be a ticket tax imposed on each person purchasing a ticket for an event at the stadium. The portion of the ticket tax attributable to tickets purchased by persons attending X's events will, on a present value basis, exceed 10 percent of the present value of the debt service on N's bonds. The bonds meet the private security or payment test. The ticket tax is not a generally applicable tax and, to the extent that the tax receipts relate to X's events, the taxes are payments in respect of property used for a private business use.

(ii) The facts are the same as Example 11(i), except that the ticket tax is imposed by N on tickets purchased for events at a number of large entertainment facilities within the N's jurisdiction (for example, other stadiums, arenas, and concert halls), some of which were not financed with tax-exempt bonds. The ticket tax is a generally applicable tax and therefore the revenues from this tax are not payments in respect of property used for a private business use. The receipt of the ticket tax does not cause the bonds to meet the private security or payment test.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2291, Jan. 16, 1997, as amended by T.D. 9429, 73 FR 63374, Oct. 24, 2008]

§ 1.141-5 Private loan financing test.

(a) In general. Bonds of an issue are private activity bonds if more than the lesser of 5 percent or $5 million of the proceeds of the issue is to be used (directly or indirectly) to make or finance loans to persons other than governmental persons. Section 1.141-2(d) applies in determining whether the private loan financing test is met. In determining whether the proceeds of an issue are used to make or finance loans, indirect, as well as direct, use of the proceeds is taken into account.

(b) Measurement of test. In determining whether the private loan financing test is met, the amount actually loaned to a nongovernmental person is not discounted to reflect the present value of the loan repayments.

(c) Definition of private loan—(1) In general. Any transaction that is generally characterized as a loan for federal income tax purposes is a loan for purposes of this section. In addition, a loan may arise from the direct lending of bond proceeds or may arise from transactions in which indirect benefits that are the economic equivalent of a loan are conveyed. Thus, the determination of whether a loan is made depends on the substance of a transaction rather than its form. For example, a lease or other contractual arrangement (for example, a management contract or an output contract) may in substance constitute a loan if the arrangement transfers tax ownership of the facility to a nongovernmental person. Similarly, an output contract or a management contract with respect to a financed facility generally is not treated as a loan of proceeds unless the agreement in substance shifts significant burdens and benefits of ownership to the nongovernmental purchaser or manager of the facility.

(2) Application only to purpose investments—(i) In general. A loan may be either a purpose investment or a nonpurpose investment. A loan that is a nonpurpose investment does not cause the private loan financing test to be met. For example, proceeds invested in loans, such as obligations of the United States, during a temporary period, as part of a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund, as part of a refunding escrow, or as part of a minor portion (as each of those terms are defined in § 1.148-1 or § 1.148-2) are generally not treated as loans under the private loan financing test.

(ii) Certain prepayments treated as loans. Except as otherwise provided, a prepayment for property or services, including a prepayment for property or services that is made after the date that the contract to buy the property or services is entered into, is treated as a loan for purposes of the private loan financing test if a principal purpose for prepaying is to provide a benefit of tax-exempt financing to the seller. A prepayment is not treated as a loan for purposes of the private loan financing test if—

(A) Prepayments on substantially the same terms are made by a substantial percentage of persons who are similarly situated to the issuer but who are not beneficiaries of tax-exempt financing;

(B) The prepayment is made within 90 days of the reasonably expected date of delivery to the issuer of all of the property or services for which the prepayment is made; or

(C) The prepayment meets the requirements of § 1.148-1(e)(2)(iii)(A) or (B) (relating to certain prepayments to acquire a supply of natural gas or electricity).

(iii) Customary prepayments. The determination of whether a prepayment satisfies paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section is generally made based on all the facts and circumstances. In addition, a prepayment is deemed to satisfy paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section if—

(A) The prepayment is made for—

(1) Maintenance, repair, or an extended warranty with respect to personal property (for example, automobiles or electronic equipment); or

(2) Updates or maintenance or support services with respect to computer software; and

(B) The same maintenance, repair, extended warranty, updates or maintenance or support services, as applicable, are regularly provided to nongovernmental persons on the same terms.

(iv) Additional prepayments as permitted by the Commissioner. The Commissioner may, by published guidance, set forth additional circumstances in which a prepayment is not treated as a loan for purposes of the private loan financing test.

(3) Grants—(i) In general. A grant of proceeds is not a loan. Whether a transaction may be treated as a grant or a loan depends on all of the facts and circumstances.

(ii) Tax increment financing—(A) In general. Generally, a grant using proceeds of an issue that is secured by generally applicable taxes attributable to the improvements to be made with the grant is not treated as a loan, unless the grantee makes any impermissible agreements relating to the payment that results in the taxes imposed on that taxpayer not to be treated as generally applicable taxes under § 1.141-4(e).

(B) Amount of loan. If a grant is treated as a loan under this paragraph (c)(3), the entire grant is treated as a loan unless the impermissible agreement is limited to a specific portion of the tax. For this purpose, an arrangement with each unrelated grantee is treated as a separate grant.

(4) Hazardous waste remediation bonds. In the case of an issue of hazardous waste remediation bonds, payments from nongovernmental persons that are either users of the site being remediated or persons potentially responsible for disposing of hazardous waste on that site do not establish that the transaction is a loan for purposes of this section. This paragraph (c)(4) applies only if those payments do not secure the payment of principal of, or interest on, the bonds (directly or indirectly), under the terms of the bonds and those payments are not taken into account under the private payment test pursuant to § 1.141-4(f)(3).

(d) Tax assessment loan exception—(1) General rule. For purposes of this section, a tax assessment loan that satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (d) is not a loan for purposes of the private loan financing test.

(2) Tax assessment loan defined. A tax assessment loan is a loan that arises when a governmental person permits or requires property owners to finance any governmental tax or assessment of general application for an essential governmental function that satisfies each of the requirements of paragraphs (d) (3) through (5) of this section.

(3) Mandatory tax or other assessment. The tax or assessment must be an enforced contribution that is imposed and collected for the purpose of raising revenue to be used for a specific purpose (that is, to defray the capital cost of an improvement). Taxes and assessments do not include fees for services. The tax or assessment must be imposed pursuant to a state law of general application that can be applied equally to natural persons not acting in a trade or business and persons acting in a trade or business. For this purpose, taxes and assessments that are imposed subject to protest procedures are treated as enforced contributions.

(4) Specific essential governmental function—(i) In general. A mandatory tax or assessment that gives rise to a tax assessment loan must be imposed for one or more specific, essential governmental functions.

(ii) Essential governmental functions. For purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, improvements to utilities and systems that are owned by a governmental person and that are available for use by the general public (such as sidewalks, streets and street-lights; electric, telephone, and cable television systems; sewage treatment and disposal systems; and municipal water facilities) serve essential governmental functions. For other types of facilities, the extent to which the service provided by the facility is customarily performed (and financed with governmental bonds) by governments with general taxing powers is a primary factor in determining whether the facility serves an essential governmental function. For example, parks that are owned by a governmental person and that are available for use by the general public serve an essential governmental function. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (d)(4)(ii), commercial or industrial facilities and improvements to property owned by a nongovernmental person do not serve an essential governmental

function. Permitting installment payments of property taxes or other taxes is not an essential governmental function.

(5) Equal basis requirement—(i) In general. Owners of both business and nonbusiness property benefiting from the financed improvements must be eligible, or required, to make deferred payments of the tax or assessment giving rise to a tax assessment loan on an equal basis (the equal basis requirement). A tax or assessment does not satisfy the equal basis requirement if the terms for payment of the tax or assessment are not the same for all taxed or assessed persons. For example, the equal basis requirement is not met if certain property owners are permitted to pay the tax or assessment over a period of years while others must pay the entire tax or assessment immediately or if only certain property owners are required to prepay the tax or assessment when the property is sold.

(ii) General rule for guarantees. A guarantee of debt service on bonds, or of taxes or assessments, by a person that is treated as a borrower of bond proceeds violates the equal basis requirement if it is reasonable to expect on the date the guarantee is entered into that payments will be made under the guarantee.

(6) Coordination with private business tests. See §§ 1.141-3 and 1.141-4 for rules for determining whether tax assessment loans cause the bonds financing those loans to be private activity bonds under the private business use and the private security or payment tests.

(e) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this section:

Example 1.

Turnkey contract not treated as a loan. State agency Z and federal agency H will each contribute to rehabilitate a project owned by Z. H can only provide its funds through a contribution to Z to be used to acquire the rehabilitated project on a turnkey basis from an approved developer. Under H's turnkey program, the developer must own the project while it is rehabilitated. Z issues its notes to provide funds for construction. A portion of the notes will be retired using the H contribution, and the balance of the notes will be retired through the issuance by Z of long-term bonds. Z lends the proceeds of its notes to Developer B as construction financing and transfers title to B for a nominal amount. The conveyance is made on condition that B rehabilitate the property and reconvey it upon completion, with Z retaining the right to force reconveyance if these conditions are not satisfied. B must name Z as an additional insured on all insurance. Upon completion, B must transfer title to the project back to Z at a set price, which price reflects B's costs and profit, not fair market value. Further, this price is adjusted downward to reflect any cost-underruns. For purposes of section 141(c), this transaction does not involve a private loan.

Example 2. Essential government function requirement not met.

City D creates a special taxing district consisting of property owned by nongovernmental persons that requires environmental clean-up. D imposes a special tax on each parcel within the district in an amount that is related to the expected environmental clean-up costs of that parcel. The payment of the tax over a 20-year period is treated as a loan by the property owners for purposes of the private loan financing test. The special district issues bonds, acting on behalf of D, that are payable from the special tax levied within the district, and uses the proceeds to pay for the costs of environmental clean-up on the property within the district. The bonds meet the private loan financing test because more than 5 percent of the proceeds of the issue are loaned to nongovernmental persons. The issue does not meet the tax assessment loan exception because the improvements to property owned by a nongovernmental person are not an essential governmental function under section 141(c)(2). The issue also meets the private business tests of section 141(b).

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2296, Jan. 16, 1997, as amended by T.D. 9085, 68 FR 45775, Aug. 4, 2003]

§ 1.141-6 Allocation and accounting rules.

(a) Allocations of proceeds to expenditures, projects, and uses in general—(1) Allocations to expenditures. The allocations of proceeds and other sources of funds to expenditures under § 1.148-6(d) apply for purposes of §§ 1.141-1 through 1.141-15.

(2) Allocations of sources to a project and its uses. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section (regarding an eligible mixed-use project), if two or more sources of funding (including two or more tax-exempt issues) are allocated to capital expenditures (as defined in § 1.150-1(b)) for a project (as defined in paragraph (a)(3) of this section), those sources are allocated throughout that project to the governmental use and private business use of the project in proportion to the relative amounts of those sources of funding spent on the project.

(3) Definition of project—(i) In general. For purposes of this section, project means one or more facilities or capital projects, including land, buildings, equipment, or other property, financed in whole or in part with proceeds of the issue.

(ii) Output facilities. If an output facility has multiple undivided ownership interests (respectively owned by governmental persons or by both governmental and nongovernmental persons), each owner's interest in the facility is treated as a separate facility for purposes of this section, provided that all owners of the undivided ownership interests share the ownership and output in proportion to their contributions to the capital costs of the output facility.

(b) Special allocation rules for eligible mixed-use projects—(1) In general. The sources of funding allocated to capital expenditures for an eligible mixed-use project (as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section) are allocated to undivided portions of the eligible mixed-use project and the governmental use and private business use of the eligible mixed-use project in accordance with this paragraph (b). Qualified equity (as defined in paragraph (b)(3) of this section) is allocated first to the private business use of the eligible mixed-use project and then to governmental use, and proceeds are allocated first to the governmental use and then to private business use, using the percentages of the eligible mixed-use project financed with the respective sources and the percentages of the respective uses. Thus, if the percentage of the eligible mixed-use project financed with qualified equity is less than the percentage of private business use of the project, all of the qualified equity is allocated to the private business use. Proceeds are allocated to the balance of the private business use of the project. Similarly, if the percentage of the eligible mixed-use project financed with proceeds is less than the percentage of governmental use of the project, all of the proceeds are allocated to the governmental use, and qualified equity is allocated to the balance of the governmental use of the project. Further, if proceeds of more than one issue finance the eligible mixed-use project, proceeds of each issue are allocated ratably to the uses to which proceeds are allocated in proportion to the relative amounts of the proceeds of such issues allocated to the eligible mixed-use project. For private business use measured under § 1.141-3(g), qualified equity and proceeds are allocated to the uses of the eligible mixed-use project in each one-year period under § 1.141-3(g)(4). See Example 1 of paragraph (f) of this section.

(2) Definition of eligible mixed-use project. Eligible mixed-use project means a project (as defined in paragraph (a)(3) of this section) that is financed with proceeds of bonds that, when issued, purported to be governmental bonds (as defined in § 1.150-1(b)) (the applicable bonds) and with qualified equity pursuant to the same plan of financing (within the meaning of § 1.150-1(c)(1)(ii)). An eligible mixed-use project must be wholly owned by one or more governmental persons or by a partnership in which at least one governmental person is a partner.

(3) Definition of qualified equity. For purposes of this section, qualified equity means proceeds of bonds that are not tax-advantaged bonds and funds that are not derived from proceeds of a borrowing that are spent on the same eligible mixed-use project as the proceeds of the applicable bonds. Qualified equity does not include equity interests in real property or tangible personal property. Further, qualified equity does not include funds used to redeem or repay governmental bonds. See §§ 1.141-2(d)(2)(ii) and 1.141-12(i) (regarding the effects of certain redemptions as remedial actions).

(4) Same plan of financing. Qualified equity finances a project under the same plan of financing that includes the applicable bonds if the qualified equity pays for capital expenditures of the project on a date that is no earlier than a date on which such expenditures would be eligible for reimbursement by proceeds of the applicable bonds under § 1.150-2(d)(2) (regardless of whether the applicable bonds are reimbursement bonds) and, except for a reasonable retainage (within the meaning of § 1.148-7(h)), no later than the date on which the measurement period begins.

(c) Allocations of private payments. Except as provided in this paragraph (c), private payments for a project are allocated in accordance with § 1.141-4. Payments under an output contract that result in private business use of an eligible mixed-use project are allocated to the same source of funding (notwithstanding § 1.141-4(c)(3)(v) (regarding certain allocations of private payments to equity)) allocated to the private business use from such contract under paragraph (b) of this section.

(d) Allocations of proceeds to common costs of an issue. Proceeds used for expenditures for common costs (for example, issuance costs, qualified guarantee fees, or reasonably required reserve or replacement funds) are allocated in accordance with § 1.141-3(g)(6). Proceeds, as allocated under § 1.141-3(g)(6) to an eligible mixed-use project, are allocated to the uses of the project in the same proportions as the proceeds allocated to the uses under paragraph (b) of this section.

(e) Allocations of proceeds to bonds. In general, proceeds are allocated to bonds in accordance with the rules for allocations of proceeds to bonds for separate purposes of multipurpose issues in § 1.141-13(d). For an issue that is not a multipurpose issue (or is a multipurpose issue for which the issuer has not made a multipurpose allocation), proceeds are allocated to bonds ratably in a manner similar to the allocation of proceeds to projects under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.

(f) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this section:

Example 1.

Mixed-use project. City A issues $70x of bonds (the Bonds) and finances the construction of a 10-story office building costing $100x (the Project) with proceeds of the Bonds and $30x of qualified equity (the Qualified Equity). To the extent that the private business use of the Project does not exceed 30 percent in any particular year, the Qualified Equity is allocated to the private business use. If private business use of the Project were, for example, 44 percent in a year, the Qualified Equity would be allocated to 30 percent ($30x) private business use and proceeds of the Bonds would be allocated to the excess (that is, 14 percent or $14x), resulting in private business use of the Bonds in that year of 20 percent ($14x/$70x). Conversely, if private business use of the Project were 20 percent, Qualified Equity would be allocated to that 20 percent. The remaining Qualified Equity (that is, 10 percent or $10x) would be allocated to the governmental use in excess of the 70 percent to which the proceeds of the Bonds would be allocated.

Example 2.

Mixed-use output facility. Authority A is a governmental person that owns and operates an electric transmission facility. Several years ago, Authority A used its equity to pay capital expenditures of $1000x for the facility. Authority A wants to make capital improvements to the facility in the amount of $100x (the Project). Authority A reasonably expects that, after completion of the Project, it will sell 46 percent of the available output of the facility, as determined under § 1.141-7, under output contracts that result in private business use and it will sell 54 percent of the available output of the facility for governmental use. On January 1, 2017, Authority A issues $60x of bonds (the Bonds) and uses the proceeds of the Bonds and $40x of qualified equity (the Qualified Equity) to finance the Project. The Qualified Equity is allocated to 40 of the 46 percent private business use resulting from the output contracts. Proceeds of the Bonds are allocated to the 54 percent governmental use and thereafter to the remaining 6 percent private business use.

Example 3.

Subsequent improvements and replacements. County A owns a hospital, which opened in 2001, that it financed entirely with proceeds of bonds it issued in 1998 (the 1998 Bonds). In 2017, County A finances the cost of an addition to the hospital with proceeds of bonds (the 2017 Bonds) and qualified equity (the 2017 Qualified Equity). The original hospital is a project (the 1998 Project) and the addition is a project (the 2017 Project). Proceeds of the 2017 Bonds and the 2017 Qualified Equity are allocated to the 2017 Project. The 2017 Qualified Equity is allocated first to the private business use of the 2017 Project and then to the governmental use of the 2017 Project. Proceeds of the 2017 Bonds are allocated first to the governmental use of the 2017 Project and then to the private business use of that project. Neither proceeds of the 2017 Bonds nor 2017 Qualified Equity is allocated to the uses of the 1998 Project. Proceeds of the 1998 Bonds are not allocated to uses of the 2017 Project.

[T.D. 9741, 80 FR 65643, Oct. 27, 2015]

§ 1.141-7 Special rules for output facilities.

(a) Overview. This section provides special rules to determine whether arrangements for the purchase of output from an output facility cause an issue of bonds to meet the private business tests. For this purpose, unless otherwise stated, water facilities are treated as output facilities. Sections 1.141-3 and 1.141-4 generally apply to determine whether other types of arrangements for use of an output facility cause an issue to meet the private business tests.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section and § 1.141-8, the following definitions and rules apply:

(1) Available output. The available output of a facility financed by an issue is determined by multiplying the number of units produced or to be produced by the facility in one year by the number of years in the measurement period of that facility for that issue.

(i) Generating facilities. The number of units produced or to be produced by a generating facility in one year is determined by reference to its nameplate capacity or the equivalent (or where there is no nameplate capacity or the equivalent, its maximum capacity), which is not reduced for reserves, maintenance or other unutilized capacity.

(ii) Transmission and other output facilities—(A) In general. For transmission, distribution, cogeneration, and other output facilities, available output must be measured in a reasonable manner to reflect capacity.

(B) Electric transmission facilities. Measurement of the available output of all or a portion of electric transmission facilities may be determined in a manner consistent with the reporting rules and requirements for transmission networks promulgated by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC). For example, for a transmission network, the use of aggregate load and load share ratios in a manner consistent with the requirements of the FERC may be reasonable. In addition, depending on the facts and circumstances, measurement of the available output of transmission facilities using thermal capacity or transfer capacity may be reasonable.

(iii) Special rule for facilities with significant unutilized capacity. If an issuer reasonably expects on the issue date that persons that are treated as private business users will purchase more than 30 percent of the actual output of the facility financed with the issue, the Commissioner may determine the number of units produced or to be produced by the facility in one year on a reasonable basis other than by reference to nameplate or other capacity, such as the average expected annual output of the facility. For example, the Commissioner may determine the available output of a financed peaking electric generating unit by reference to the reasonably expected annual output of that unit if the issuer reasonably expects, on the issue date of bonds that finance the unit, that an investor-owned utility will purchase more than 30 percent of the actual output of the facility during the measurement period under a take or pay contract, even if the amount of output purchased is less than 10 percent of the available output determined by reference to nameplate capacity. The reasonably expected annual output of the generating facility must be consistent with the capacity reported for prudent reliability purposes.

(iv) Special rule for facilities with a limited source of supply. If a limited source of supply constrains the output of an output facility, the number of units produced or to be produced by the facility must be determined by reasonably taking into account those constraints. For this purpose, a limited source of supply shall include a physical limitation (for example, flow of water), but not an economic limitation (for example, cost of coal or gas). For example, the available output of a hydroelectric unit must be determined by reference to the reasonably expected annual flow of water through the unit.

(2) Measurement period. The measurement period of an output facility financed by an issue is determined under § 1.141-3(g).

(3) Sale at wholesale. A sale at wholesale means a sale of output to any person for resale.

(4) Take contract and take or pay contract. A take contract is an output contract under which a purchaser agrees to pay for the output under the contract if the output facility is capable of providing the output. A take or pay contract is an output contract under which a purchaser agrees to pay for the output under the contract, whether or not the output facility is capable of providing the output.

(5) Requirements contract. A requirements contract is an output contract, other than a take contract or a take or pay contract, under which a nongovernmental person agrees to purchase all or part of its output requirements.

(6) Nonqualified amount. The nonqualified amount with respect to an issue is determined under section 141(b)(8).

(c) Output contracts—(1) General rule. The purchase pursuant to a contract by a nongovernmental person of available output of an output facility (output contract) financed with proceeds of an issue is taken into account under the private business tests if the purchase has the effect of transferring the benefits of owning the facility and the burdens of paying the debt service on bonds used (directly or indirectly) to finance the facility (the benefits and burdens test). See paragraph (c)(4) of this section for the treatment of an output contract that is properly characterized as a lease for Federal income tax purposes. See paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section for rules regarding measuring the use of, and payments of debt service for, an output facility for determining whether the private business tests are met. See also § 1.141-8 for rules for when an issue that finances an output facility (other than a water facility) meets the private business tests because the nonqualified amount of the issue exceeds $15 million.

(2) Take contract or take or pay contract. The benefits and burdens test is met if a nongovernmental person agrees pursuant to a take contract or a take or pay contract to purchase available output of a facility.

(3) Requirements contract—(i) In general. A requirements contract may satisfy the benefits and burdens test under paragraph (c)(3)(ii) or (iii) of this section. See § 1.141-15(f)(2) for special effective dates for the application of this paragraph (c)(3) to issues financing facilities subject to requirements contracts.

(ii) Requirements contract similar to take contract or take or pay contract. A requirements contract generally meets the benefits and burdens test to the extent that it contains contractual terms that obligate the purchaser to make payments that are not contingent on the output requirements of the purchaser or that obligate the purchaser to have output requirements. For example, a requirements contract with an industrial purchaser meets the benefits and burdens test if the purchaser enters into additional contractual obligations with the issuer or another governmental unit not to cease operations. A requirements contract does not meet the benefits and burdens test, however, by reason of a provision that requires the purchaser to pay reasonable and customary damages (including liquidated damages) in the event of a default, or a provision that permits the purchaser to pay a specified amount to terminate the contract while the purchaser has requirements, in each case if the amount of the payment is reasonably related to the purchaser's obligation to buy requirements that is discharged by the payment.

(iii) Wholesale requirements contract—(A) In general. A requirements contract that is a sale at wholesale (a wholesale requirements contract) may satisfy the benefits and burdens test, depending on all the facts and circumstances.

(B) Significant factors. Significant factors that tend to establish that a wholesale requirements contract meets the benefits and burdens test include, but are not limited to—

(1) The term of the contract is substantial relative to the term of the issue or issues that finance the facility; and

(2) The amount of output to be purchased under the contract represents a substantial portion of the available output of the facility.

(C) Safe harbors. A wholesale requirements contract does not meet the benefits and burdens test if—

(1) The term of the contract, including all renewal options, does not exceed the lesser of 5 years or 30 percent of the term of the issue; or

(2) The amount of output to be purchased under the contract (and any other requirements contract with the same purchaser or a related party with respect to the facility) does not exceed 5 percent of the available output of the facility.

(iv) Retail requirements contract. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c)(3), a requirements contract that is not a sale at wholesale does not meet the benefits and burdens test.

(4) Output contract properly characterized as a lease. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an output contract that is properly characterized as a lease for Federal income tax purposes shall be tested under the rules contained in §§ 1.141-3 and 1.141-4 to determine whether it is taken into account under the private business tests.

(d) Measurement of private business use. If an output contract results in private business use under this section, the amount of private business use generally is the amount of output purchased under the contract.

(e) Measurement of private security or payment. The measurement of payments made or to be made by nongovernmental persons under output contracts as a percent of the debt service of an issue is determined under the rules provided in § 1.141-4.

(f) Exceptions for certain contracts—(1) Small purchases of output. An output contract for the use of a facility is not taken into account under the private business tests if the average annual payments to be made under the contract do not exceed 1 percent of the average annual debt service on all outstanding tax-exempt bonds issued to finance the facility, determined as of the effective date of the contract.

(2) Swapping and pooling arrangements. An agreement that provides for swapping or pooling of output by one or more governmental persons and one or more nongovernmental persons does not result in private business use of the output facility owned by the governmental person to the extent that—

(i) The swapped output is reasonably expected to be approximately equal in value (determined over periods of three years or less); and

(ii) The purpose of the agreement is to enable each of the parties to satisfy different peak load demands, to accommodate temporary outages, to diversify supply, or to enhance reliability in accordance with prudent reliability standards.

(3) Short-term output contracts. An output contract with a nongovernmental person is not taken into account under the private business tests if—

(i) The term of the contract, including all renewal options, is not longer than 3 years;

(ii) The contract either is a negotiated, arm's-length arrangement that provides for compensation at fair market value, or is based on generally applicable and uniformly applied rates; and

(iii) The output facility is not financed for a principal purpose of providing that facility for use by that nongovernmental person.

(4) Certain conduit parties disregarded. A nongovernmental person acting solely as a conduit for the exchange of output among governmentally owned and operated utilities is disregarded in determining whether the private business tests are met with respect to financed facilities owned by a governmental person.

(g) Special rules for electric output facilities used to provide open access—(1) Operation of transmission facilities by nongovernmental persons—(i) In general. The operation of an electric transmission facility by a nongovernmental person may result in private business use of the facility under § 1.141-3 and this section based on all the facts and circumstances. For example, a transmission facility is generally used for a private business use if a nongovernmental person enters into a contract to operate the facility and receives compensation based, in whole or in part, on a share of net profits from the operation of the facility.

(ii) Certain use by independent transmission operators. A contract for the operation of an electric transmission facility by an independent entity, such as a regional transmission organization or an independent system operator (independent transmission operator), does not constitute private business use of the facility if—

(A) The facility is owned by a governmental person;

(B) The operation of the facility by the independent transmission operator is approved by the FERC under one or more provisions of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 791a through 825r) (or by a state authority under comparable provisions of state law);

(C) No portion of the compensation of the independent transmission operator is based on a share of net profits from the operation of the facility; and

(D) The independent transmission operator does not bear risk of loss of the facility.

(2) Certain use by nongovernmental persons under output contracts—(i) Transmission facilities. The use of an electric transmission facility by a nongovernmental person pursuant to an output contract does not constitute private business use of the facility if—

(A) The facility is owned by a governmental person;

(B) The facility is operated by an independent transmission operator in a manner that satisfies paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section; and

(C) The facility is not financed for a principal purpose of providing that facility for use by that nongovernmental person.

(ii) Distribution facilities. The use of an electric distribution facility by a nongovernmental person pursuant to an output contract does not constitute private business use of the facility if—

(A) The facility is owned by a governmental person;

(B) The facility is available for use on a nondiscriminatory, open access basis by buyers and sellers of electricity in accordance with rates that are generally applicable and uniformly applied within the meaning of § 1.141-3(c)(2); and

(C) The facility is not financed for a principal purpose of providing that facility for use by that nongovernmental person (other than a retail end-user).

(3) Ancillary services. The use of an electric output facility to provide ancillary services required to be offered as part of an open access transmission tariff under rules promulgated by the FERC under the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 791a through 825r) (or by a state regulatory authority under comparable provisions of state law) does not result in private business use.

(4) Exceptions to deliberate action rules—(i) Mandated wheeling. Entering into a contract for the use of electric transmission or distribution facilities is not treated as a deliberate action under § 1.141-2(d) if—

(A) The contract is entered into in response to (or in anticipation of) an order by the United States under sections 211 and 212 of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 824j and 824k) (or a state regulatory authority under comparable provisions of state law); and

(B) The terms of the contract are bona fide and arm's-length, and the consideration paid is consistent with the provisions of section 212(a) of the Federal Power Act.

(ii) Actions taken to implement non-discriminatory, open access. An action is not treated as a deliberate action under § 1.141-2(d) if it is taken to implement the offering of non-discriminatory, open access tariffs for the use of electric transmission or distribution facilities in a manner consistent with rules promulgated by the FERC under sections 205 and 206 of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 824d and 824e) (or comparable provisions of state law). This paragraph (g)(4)(ii) does not apply, however, to the sale, exchange, or other disposition (within the meaning of section 1001(a)) of transmission or distribution facilities to a nongovernmental person.

(iii) Application of reasonable expectations test to certain current refunding bonds. An action taken or to be taken with respect to electric transmission or distribution facilities refinanced by an issue is not taken into account under the reasonable expectations test of § 1.141-2(d) if—

(A) The action is described in paragraph (g)(4)(i) or (ii) of this section;

(B) The bonds of the issue are current refunding bonds that refund bonds originally issued before February 23, 1998; and

(C) The weighted average maturity of the refunding bonds is not greater than the remaining weighted average maturity of the prior bonds.

(5) Additional transactions as permitted by the Commissioner. The Commissioner may, by published guidance, set forth additional circumstances in which the use of electric output facilities in a restructured electric industry does not constitute private business use.

(h) Allocations of output facilities and systems—(1) Facts and circumstances analysis. Whether output sold under an output contract is allocated to a particular facility (for example, a generating unit), to the entire system of the seller of that output (net of any uses of that system output allocated to a particular facility), or to a portion of a facility is based on all the facts and circumstances. Significant factors to be considered in determining the allocation of an output contract to financed property are the following:

(i) The extent to which it is physically possible to deliver output to or from a particular facility or system.

(ii) The terms of a contract relating to the delivery of output (such as delivery limitations and options or obligations to deliver power from additional sources).

(iii) Whether a contract is entered into as part of a common plan of financing for a facility.

(iv) The method of pricing output under the contract, such as the use of market rates rather than rates designed to pay debt service of tax-exempt bonds used to finance a particular facility.

(2) Illustrations. The following illustrate the factors set forth in paragraph (h)(1) of this section:

(i) Physical possibility. Output from a generating unit that is fed directly into a low voltage distribution system of the owner of that unit and that cannot physically leave that distribution system generally must be allocated to those receiving electricity through that distribution system. Output may be allocated without regard to physical limitations, however, if exchange or similar agreements provide output to a purchaser where, but for the exchange agreements, it would not be possible for the seller to provide output to that purchaser.

(ii) Contract terms relating to performance. A contract to provide a specified amount of electricity from a system, but only when at least that amount of electricity is being generated by a particular unit, is allocated to that unit. For example, a contract to buy 20 MW of system power with a right to take up to 40 percent of the actual output of a specific 50 MW facility whenever total system output is insufficient to meet all of the seller's obligations generally is allocated to the specific facility rather than to the system.

(iii) Common plan of financing. A contract entered into as part of a common plan of financing for a facility generally is allocated to the facility if debt service for the issue of bonds is reasonably expected to be paid, directly or indirectly, from payments under the contract.

(iv) Pricing method. Pricing based on the capital and generating costs of a particular turbine tends to indicate that output under the contract is properly allocated to that turbine.

(3) Transmission and distribution contracts. Whether use under an output contract for transmission or distribution is allocated to a particular facility or to a transmission or distribution network is based on all the facts and circumstances, in a manner similar to paragraphs (h)(1) and (2) of this section. In general, the method used to determine payments under a contract is a more significant contract term for this purpose than nominal contract path. In general, if reasonable and consistently applied, the determination of use of transmission or distribution facilities under an output contract may be based on a method used by third parties, such as reliability councils.

(4) Allocation of payments. Payments for output provided by an output facility financed with two or more sources of funding are generally allocated under the rules in § 1.141-4(c).

(i) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this section:

Example 1 Joint ownership.

Z, an investor-owned electric utility, and City H agree to construct an electric generating facility of a size sufficient to take advantage of the economies of scale. H will issue $50 million of its 24-year bonds, and Z will use $100 million of its funds for construction of a facility they will jointly own as tenants in common. Each of the participants will share in the ownership, output, and operating expenses of the facility in proportion to its contribution to the cost of the facility, that is, one-third by H and two-thirds by Z. H's bonds will be secured by H's ownership interest in the facility and by revenues to be derived from its share of the annual output of the facility. H will need only 50 percent of its share of the annual output of the facility during the first 20 years of operations. It agrees to sell 10 percent of its share of the annual output to Z for a period of 20 years pursuant to a contract under which Z agrees to take that power if available. The facility will begin operation, and Z will begin to receive power, 4 years after the H bonds are issued. The measurement period for the property financed by the issue is 20 years. H also will sell the remaining 40 percent of its share of the annual output to numerous other private utilities under contracts of three years or less that satisfy the exception under paragraph (f)(3) of this section. No other contracts will be executed obligating any person to purchase any specified amount of the power for any specified period of time. No person (other than Z) will make payments that will result in a transfer of the burdens of paying debt service on bonds used directly or indirectly to provide H's share of the facilities. The bonds are not private activity bonds, because H's one-third interest in the facility is not treated as used by the other owners of the facility. Although 10 percent of H's share of the annual output of the facility will be used in the trade or business of Z, a nongovernmental person, under this section, that portion constitutes not more than 10 percent of the available output of H's ownership interest in the facility.

Example 2 Wholesale requirements contract.

(i) City J issues 20-year bonds to acquire an electric generating facility having a reasonably expected economic life substantially greater than 20 years and a nameplate capacity of 100 MW. The available output of the facility under paragraph (b)(1) of this section is approximately 17,520,000 MWh (100 MW × 24 hours × 365 days × 20 years). On the issue date, J enters into a contract with T, an investor-owned utility, to provide T with all of its power requirements for a period of 10 years, commencing on the issue date. J reasonably expects that T will actually purchase an average of 30 MW over the 10-year period. The contract is taken into account under the private business tests pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section because the term of the contract is substantial relative to the term of the issue and the amount of output to be purchased is a substantial portion of the available output.

(ii) Under paragraph (d) of this section, the amount of reasonably expected private business use under this contract is approximately 15 percent (30 MW × 24 hours × 365 days × 10 years, or 2,628,000 MWh) of the available output. Accordingly, the issue meets the private business use test. J reasonably expects that the amount to be paid for an average of 30 MW of power (less the operation and maintenance costs directly attributable to generating that 30 MW of power), will be more than 10 percent of debt service on the issue on a present-value basis. Accordingly, the issue meets the private security or payment test because J reasonably expects that payment of more than 10 percent of the debt service will be indirectly derived from payments by T. The bonds are private activity bonds under paragraph (c) of this section. Further, if 15 percent of the sale proceeds of the issue is greater than $15 million and the issue meets the private security or payment test with respect to the $15 million output limitation, the bonds are also private activity bonds under section 141(b)(4). See § 1.141-8.

Example 3 Retail contracts.

(i) State Agency M, a political subdivision, issues bonds in 2003 to finance the construction of a generating facility that will be used to furnish electricity to M's retail customers. In 2007, M enters into a 10-year contract with industrial corporation I. Under the contract, M agrees to supply I with all of its power requirements during the contract term, and I agrees to pay for that power at a negotiated price as it is delivered. The contract does not require I to pay for any power except to the extent I has requirements. In addition, the contract requires I to pay reasonable and customary liquidated damages in the event of a default by I, and permits I to terminate the contract while it has requirements by paying M a specified amount that is a reasonable and customary amount for terminating the contract. Any damages or termination payment by I will be reasonably related to I's obligation to buy requirements that is discharged by the payment. Under paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the contract does not meet the benefits and burdens test. Thus, it is not taken into account under the private business tests.

(ii) The facts are the same as in paragraph (i) of this Example 3, except that the contract requires I to make guaranteed minimum payments, regardless of I's requirements, in an amount such that the contract does not meet the exception for small purchases in paragraph (f)(1) of this section. Under paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, the contract meets the benefits and burdens test because it obligates I to make payments that are not contingent on its output requirements. Thus, it is taken into account under the private business tests.

Example 4 Allocation of existing contracts to new facilities.

Power Authority K, a political subdivision created by the legislature in State X to own and operate certain power generating facilities, sells all of the power from its existing facilities to four private utility systems under contracts executed in 1999, under which the four systems are required to take or pay for specified portions of the total power output until the year 2029. Existing facilities supply all of the present needs of the four utility systems, but their future power requirements are expected to increase substantially beyond the capacity of K's current generating system. K issues 20-year bonds in 2004 to construct a large generating facility. As part of the financing plan for the bonds, a fifth private utility system contracts with K to take or pay for 15 percent of the available output of the new facility. The balance of the output of the new facility will be available for sale as required, but initially it is not anticipated that there will be any need for that power. The revenues from the contract with the fifth private utility system will be sufficient to pay less than 10 percent of the debt service on the bonds (determined on a present value basis). The balance, which will exceed 10 percent of the debt service on the bonds, will be paid from revenues derived from the contracts with the four systems initially from sale of power produced by the old facilities. The output contracts with all the private utilities are allocated to K's entire generating system. See paragraphs (h)(1) and (2) of this section. Thus, the bonds meet the private business use test because more than 10 percent of the proceeds will be used in the trade or business of a nongovernmental person. In addition, the bonds meet the private security or payment test because payment of more than 10 percent of the debt service, pursuant to underlying arrangements, will be derived from payments in respect of property used for a private business use.

Example 5 Allocation to displaced resource.

Municipal utility MU, a political subdivision, purchases all of the electricity required to meet the needs of its customers (1,000 MW) from B, an investor-owned utility that operates its own electric generating facilities, under a 50-year take or pay contract. MU does not anticipate that it will require additional electric resources, and any new resources would produce electricity at a higher cost to MU than its cost under its contract with B. Nevertheless, B encourages MU to construct a new generating plant sufficient to meet MU's requirements. MU issues obligations to construct facilities that will produce 1,000 MW of electricity. MU, B, and I, another investor-owned utility, enter into an agreement under which MU assigns to I its rights under MU's take or pay contract with B. Under this arrangement, I will pay MU, and MU will continue to pay B, for the 1,000 MW. I's payments to MU will at least equal the amounts required to pay debt service on MU's bonds. In addition, under paragraph (h)(1)(iii) of this section, the contract among MU, B, and I is entered into as part of a common plan of financing of the MU facilities. Under all the facts and circumstances, MU's assignment to I of its rights under the original take or pay contract is allocable to MU's new facilities under paragraph (h) of this section. Because I is a nongovernmental person, MU's bonds are private activity bonds.

Example 6 Operation of transmission facilities by regional transmission organization.

(i) Public Power Agency D is a political subdivision that owns and operates electric generation, transmission and distribution facilities. In 2003, D transfers operating control of its transmission system to a regional transmission organization (RTO), a nongovernmental person, pursuant to an operating agreement that is approved by the FERC under sections 205 and 206 of the Federal Power Act. D retains ownership of its facilities. No portion of the RTO's compensation is based on a share of net profits from the operation of D's facilities, and the RTO does not bear any risk of loss of those facilities. Under paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section, the RTO's use of D's facilities does not constitute a private business use.

(ii) Company A is located in D's service territory. In 2004, Power Supplier E, a nongovernmental person, enters into a 10-year contract with A to supply A's electricity requirements. The electricity supplied by E to A will be transmitted over D's transmission and distribution facilities. D's distribution facilities are available for use on a nondiscriminatory, open access basis by buyers and sellers of electricity in accordance with rates that are generally applicable and uniformly applied within the meaning of § 1.141-3(c)(2). D's facilities are not financed for a principal purpose of providing the facilities for use by E. Under paragraph (g)(2) of this section, the contract between A and E does not result in private business use of D's facilities.

Example 7 Certain actions not treated as deliberate actions.

The facts are the same as in Example 6 of this paragraph (i), except that the RTO's compensation is based on a share of net profits from operating D's facilities. In addition, D had issued bonds in 1994 to finance improvements to its transmission system. At the time D transfers operating control of its transmission system to the RTO, D chooses to apply the private activity bond regulations of §§ 1.141-1 through 1.141-15 to the 1994 bonds. The operation of D's facilities by the RTO results in private business use under § 1.141-3 and paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section. Under the special exception in paragraph (g)(4)(ii) of this section, however, the transfer of control is not treated as a deliberate action. Accordingly, the transfer of control does not cause the 1994 bonds to meet the private activity bond tests.

Example 8 Current refunding.

The facts are the same as in Example 7 of this paragraph (i), and in addition D issues bonds in 2004 to currently refund the 1994 bonds. The weighted average maturity of the 2004 bonds is not greater than the remaining weighted average maturity of the 1994 bonds. D chooses to apply the private activity bond regulations of §§ 1.141-1 through 1.141-15 to the refunding bonds. In general, reasonable expectations must be separately tested on the date that refunding bonds are issued under § 1.141-2(d). Under the special exception in paragraph (g)(4)(iii) of this section, however, the transfer of the financed facilities to the RTO need not be taken into account in applying the reasonable expectations test to the refunding bonds.

[T.D. 9016, 67 FR 59759, Sept. 23, 2002; 67 FR 70845, Nov. 27, 2002]

§ 1.141-8 $15 million limitation for output facilities.

(a) In general—(1) General rule. Section 141(b)(4) provides a special private activity bond limitation (the $15 million output limitation) for issues 5 percent or more of the proceeds of which are to be used to finance output facilities (other than a facility for the furnishing of water). Under this rule, an issue consists of private activity bonds under the private business tests of section 141(b)(1) and (2) if the nonqualified amount with respect to output facilities financed by the proceeds of the issue exceeds $15 million. The $15 million output limitation applies in addition to the private business tests of section 141(b)(1) and (2). Under section 141(b)(4) and paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the $15 million output limitation is reduced in certain cases. Specifically, an issue meets the test in section 141(b)(4) if both of the following tests are met:

(i) More than $15 million of the proceeds of the issue to be used with respect to an output facility are to be used for a private business use. Investment proceeds are disregarded for this purpose if they are not allocated disproportionately to the private business use portion of the issue.

(ii) The payment of the principal of, or the interest on, more than $15 million of the sale proceeds of the portion of the issue used with respect to an output facility is (under the terms of the issue or any underlying arrangement) directly or indirectly—

(A) Secured by any interest in an output facility used or to be used for a private business use (or payments in respect of such an output facility); or

(B) To be derived from payments (whether or not to the issuer) in respect of an output facility used or to be used for a private business use.

(2) Reduction in $15 million output limitation for outstanding issues—(i) General rule. In determining whether an issue 5 percent or more of the proceeds of which are to be used with respect to an output facility consists of private activity bonds under the $15 million output limitation, the $15 million limitation on private business use and private security or payments is applied by taking into account the aggregate nonqualified amounts of any outstanding bonds of other issues 5 percent or more of the proceeds of which are or will be used with respect to that output facility or any other output facility that is part of the same project.

(ii) Bonds taken into account. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2), in applying the $15 million output limitation to an issue (the later issue), a tax-exempt bond of another issue (the earlier issue) is taken into account if—

(A) That bond is outstanding on the issue date of the later issue;

(B) That bond will not be redeemed within 90 days of the issue date of the later issue in connection with the refunding of that bond by the later issue; and

(C) 5 percent or more of the sale proceeds of the earlier issue financed an output facility that is part of the same project as the output facility that is financed by 5 percent or more of the sale proceeds of the later issue.

(3) Benefits and burdens test applicable—(i) In general. In applying the $15 million output limitation, the benefits and burdens test of § 1.141-7 applies, except that “$15 million” is applied in place of “10 percent”, or “5 percent” as appropriate.

(ii) Earlier issues for the project. If bonds of an earlier issue are outstanding and must be taken into account under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the nonqualified amount for that earlier issue is multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the adjusted issue price of the earlier issue as of the issue date of the later issue, and the denominator of which is the issue price of the earlier issue. Pre-issuance accrued interest as defined in § 1.148-1(b) is disregarded for this purpose.

(b) Definition of project—(1) General rule. For purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, project has the meaning provided in this paragraph. Facilities that are functionally related and subordinate to a project are treated as part of that same project. Facilities having different purposes or serving different customer bases are not ordinarily part of the same project. For example, the following are generally not part of the same project—

(i) Generation, transmission and distribution facilities;

(ii) Separate facilities designed to serve wholesale customers and retail customers; and

(iii) A peaking unit and a baseload unit (regardless of the location of the units).

(2) Separate ownership. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (b)(2), facilities that are not owned by the same person are not part of the same project. If different governmental persons act in concert to finance a project, however (for example as participants in a joint powers authority), their interests are aggregated with respect to that project to determine whether the $15 million output limitation is met. In the case of undivided ownership interests in a single output facility, property that is not owned by different persons is treated as separate projects only if the separate interests are financed—

(i) With bonds of different issuers; and

(ii) Without a principal purpose of avoiding the limitation in this section.

(3) Generating property—(i) Property on same site. In the case of generation and related facilities, project means property located at the same site.

(ii) Special rule for generating units. Separate generating units are not part of the same project if one unit is reasonably expected, on the issue date of each issue that finances the units, to be placed in service more than 3 years before the other. Common facilities or property that will be functionally related to more than one generating unit must be allocated on a reasonable basis. If a generating unit already is constructed or is under construction (the first unit) and bonds are to be issued to finance an additional generating unit (the second unit), all costs for any common facilities paid or incurred before the earlier of the issue date of bonds to finance the second unit or the commencement of construction of the second unit are allocated to the first unit. At the time that bonds are issued to finance the second unit (or, if earlier, upon commencement of construction of that unit), any remaining costs of the common facilities may be allocated between the first and second units so that in the aggregate the allocation is reasonable.

(4) Transmission and distribution. In the case of transmission or distribution facilities, project means functionally related or contiguous property. Separate transmission or distribution facilities are not part of the same project if one facility is reasonably expected, on the issue date of each issue that finances the facilities, to be placed in service more than 2 years before the other.

(5) Subsequent improvements—(i) In general. An improvement to generation, transmission or distribution facilities that is not part of the original design of those facilities (the original project) is not part of the same project as the original project if the construction, reconstruction, or acquisition of that improvement commences more than 3 years after the original project was placed in service and the bonds issued to finance that improvement are issued more than 3 years after the original project was placed in service.

(ii) Special rule for transmission and distribution facilities. An improvement to transmission or distribution facilities that is not part of the original design of that property is not part of the same project as the original project if the issuer did not reasonably expect the need to make that improvement when it commenced construction of the original project and the construction, reconstruction, or acquisition of that improvement is mandated by the federal government or a state regulatory authority to accommodate requests for wheeling.

(6) Replacement property. For purposes of this section, property that replaces existing property of an output facility is treated as part of the same project as the replaced property unless—

(i) The need to replace the property was not reasonably expected on the issue date or the need to replace the property occurred more than 3 years before the issuer reasonably expected (determined on the issue date of the bonds financing the property) that it would need to replace the property; and

(ii) The bonds that finance (and refinance) the output facility have a weighted average maturity that is not greater than 120 percent of the reasonably expected economic life of the facility.

(c) Example. The application of the provisions of this section is illustrated by the following example:

Example.

(i) Power Authority K, a political subdivision, intends to issue a single issue of tax-exempt bonds at par with a stated principal amount and sale proceeds of $500 million to finance the acquisition of an electric generating facility. No portion of the facility will be used for a private business use, except that L, an investor-owned utility, will purchase 10 percent of the output of the facility under a take contract and will pay 10 percent of the debt service on the bonds. The nonqualified amount with respect to the bonds is $50 million.

(ii) The maximum amount of tax-exempt bonds that may be issued for the acquisition of an interest in the facility in paragraph (i) of this Example is $465 million (that is, $450 million for the 90 percent of the facility that is governmentally owned and used plus a nonqualified amount of $15 million).

[T.D. 9016, 67 FR 59763, Sept. 23, 2002]

§ 1.141-9 Unrelated or disproportionate use test.

(a) General rules—(1) Description of test. Under section 141(b)(3) (the unrelated or disproportionate use test), an issue meets the private business tests if the amount of private business use and private security or payments attributable to unrelated or disproportionate private business use exceeds 5 percent of the proceeds of the issue. For this purpose, the private business use test is applied by taking into account only use that is not related to any government use of proceeds of the issue (unrelated use) and use that is related but disproportionate to any government use of those proceeds (disproportionate use).

(2) Application of unrelated or disproportionate use test—(i) Order of application. The unrelated or disproportionate use test is applied by first determining whether a private business use is related to a government use. Next, private business use that relates to a government use is examined to determine whether it is disproportionate to that government use.

(ii) Aggregation of unrelated and disproportionate use. All the unrelated use and disproportionate use financed with the proceeds of an issue are aggregated to determine compliance with the unrelated or disproportionate use test. The amount of permissible unrelated and disproportionate private business use is not reduced by the amount of private business use financed with the proceeds of an issue that is neither unrelated use nor disproportionate use.

(iii) Deliberate actions. A deliberate action that occurs after the issue date does not result in unrelated or disproportionate use if the issue meets the conditions of § 1.141-12(a).

(b) Unrelated use—(1) In general. Whether a private business use is related to a government use financed with the proceeds of an issue is determined on a case-by-case basis, emphasizing the operational relationship between the government use and the private business use. In general, a facility that is used for a related private business use must be located within, or adjacent to, the governmentally used facility.

(2) Use for the same purpose as government use. Use of a facility by a nongovernmental person for the same purpose as use by a governmental person is not treated as unrelated use if the government use is not insignificant. Similarly, a use of a facility in the same manner both for private business use that is related use and private business use that is unrelated use does not result in unrelated use if the related use is not insignificant. For example, a privately owned pharmacy in a governmentally owned hospital does not ordinarily result in unrelated use solely because the pharmacy also serves individuals not using the hospital. In addition, use of parking spaces in a garage by a nongovernmental person is not treated as unrelated use if more than an insignificant portion of the parking spaces are used for a government use (or a private business use that is related to a government use), even though the use by the nongovernmental person is not directly related to that other use.

(c) Disproportionate use—(1) Definition of disproportionate use. A private business use is disproportionate to a related government use only to the extent that the amount of proceeds used for that private business use exceeds the amount of proceeds used for the related government use. For example, a private use of $100 of proceeds that is related to a government use of $70 of proceeds results in $30 of disproportionate use.

(2) Aggregation of related uses. If two or more private business uses of the proceeds of an issue relate to a single government use of those proceeds, those private business uses are aggregated to apply the disproportionate use test.

(3) Allocation rule. If a private business use relates to more than a single use of the proceeds of the issue (for example, two or more government uses of the proceeds of the issue or a government use and a private use), the amount of any disproportionate use may be determined by—

(i) Reasonably allocating the proceeds used for the private business use among the related uses;

(ii) Aggregating government uses that are directly related to each other; or

(iii) Allocating the private business use to the government use to which it is primarily related.

(d) Maximum use taken into account. The determination of the amount of unrelated use or disproportionate use of a facility is based on the maximum amount of reasonably expected government use of a facility during the measurement period. Thus, no unrelated use or disproportionate use arises solely because a facility initially has excess capacity that is to be used by a nongovernmental person if the facility will be completely used by the issuer during the term of the issue for more than an insignificant period.

(e) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this section:

Example 1. School and remote cafeteria.

County X issues bonds with proceeds of $20 million and uses $18.1 million of the proceeds for construction of a new school building and $1.9 million of the proceeds for construction of a privately operated cafeteria in its administrative office building, which is located at a remote site. The bonds are secured, in part, by the cafeteria. The $1.9 million of proceeds is unrelated to the government use (that is, school construction) financed with the bonds and exceeds 5 percent of $20 million. Thus, the issue meets the private business tests.

Example 2. Public safety building and courthouse.

City Y issues bonds with proceeds of $50 million for construction of a new public safety building ($32 million) and for improvements to an existing courthouse ($15 million). Y uses $3 million of the bond proceeds for renovations to an existing privately operated cafeteria located in the courthouse. The bonds are secured, in part, by the cafeteria. Y's use of the $3 million for the privately operated cafeteria does not meet the unrelated or disproportionate use test because these expenditures are neither unrelated use nor disproportionate use.

Example 3. Unrelated garage.

City Y issues bonds with proceeds of $50 million for construction of a new public safety building ($30.5 million) and for improvements to an existing courthouse ($15 million). Y uses $3 million of the bond proceeds for renovations to an existing privately operated cafeteria located in the courthouse. The bonds are secured, in part, by the cafeteria. Y also uses $1.5 million of the proceeds to construct a privately operated parking garage adjacent to a private office building. The private business use of the parking garage is unrelated to any government use of proceeds of the issue. Since the proceeds used for unrelated uses and disproportionate uses do not exceed 5 percent of the proceeds, the unrelated or disproportionate use test is not met.

Example 4. Disproportionate use of garage.

County Z issues bonds with proceeds of $20 million for construction of a hospital with no private business use ($17 million); renovation of an office building with no private business use ($1 million); and construction of a garage that is entirely used for a private business use ($2 million). The use of the garage is related to the use of the office building but not to the use of the hospital. The private business use of the garage results in $1 million of disproportionate use because the proceeds used for the garage ($2 million) exceed the proceeds used for the related government use ($1 million). The bonds are not private activity bonds, however, because the disproportionate use does not exceed 5 percent of the proceeds of the issue.

Example 5. Bonds for multiple projects.

(i) County W issues bonds with proceeds of $80 million for the following purposes: (1) $72 million to construct a County-owned and operated waste incinerator; (2) $1 million for a County-owned and operated facility for the temporary storage of hazardous waste prior to final disposal; (3) $1 million to construct a privately owned recycling facility located at a remote site; and (4) $6 million to build a garage adjacent to the County-owned incinerator that will be leased to Company T to store and repair trucks that it owns and uses to haul County W refuse. Company T uses 75 percent of its trucks to haul materials to the incinerator and the remaining 25 percent of its trucks to haul materials to the temporary storage facility.

(ii) The $1 million of proceeds used for the recycling facility is used for an unrelated use. The garage is related use. In addition, 75 percent of the use of the $6 million of proceeds used for the garage is allocable to the government use of proceeds at the incinerator. The remaining 25 percent of the proceeds used for the garage ($1.5 million) relates to the government use of proceeds at the temporary storage facility. Thus, this portion of the proceeds used for the garage exceeds the proceeds used for the temporary storage facility by $0.5 million and this excess is disproportionate use (but not unrelated use). Thus, the aggregate amount of unrelated use and disproportionate use financed with the proceeds of the issue is $1.5 million. Alternatively, under paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section, the entire garage may be treated as related to the government use of the incinerator and, under that allocation, the garage is not disproportionate use. In either event, section 141(b)(3) limits the aggregate unrelated use and disproportionate use to $4 million. Therefore, the bonds are not private activity bonds under this section.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2297, Jan. 16, 1997]

§ 1.141-10 Coordination with volume cap. [Reserved]

§ 1.141-11 Acquisition of nongovernmental output property. [Reserved]

§ 1.141-12 Remedial actions.

(a) Conditions to taking remedial action. An action that causes an issue to meet the private business tests or the private loan financing test is not treated as a deliberate action if the issuer takes a remedial action described in paragraph (d), (e), or (f) of this section with respect to the nonqualified bonds and if all of the requirements in paragraphs (a) (1) through (5) of this section are met.

(1) Reasonable expectations test met. The issuer reasonably expected on the issue date that the issue would meet neither the private business tests nor the private loan financing test for the entire term of the bonds. For this purpose, if the issuer reasonably expected on the issue date to take a deliberate action prior to the final maturity date of the issue that would cause either the private business tests or the private loan financing test to be met, the term of the bonds for this purpose may be determined by taking into account a redemption provision if the provisions of § 1.141-2(d)(2)(ii) (A) through (C) are met.

(2) Maturity not unreasonably long. The term of the issue must not be longer than is reasonably necessary for the governmental purposes of the issue (within the meaning of § 1.148-1(c)(4)). Thus, this requirement is met if the weighted average maturity of the bonds of the issue is not greater than 120 percent of the average reasonably expected economic life of the property financed with the proceeds of the issue as of the issue date.

(3) Fair market value consideration. Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, the terms of any arrangement that results in satisfaction of either the private business tests or the private loan financing test are bona fide and arm's-length, and the new user pays fair market value for the use of the financed property. Thus, for example, fair market value may be determined in a manner that takes into account restrictions on the use of the financed property that serve a bona fide governmental purpose.

(4) Disposition proceeds treated as gross proceeds for arbitrage purposes. The issuer must treat any disposition proceeds as gross proceeds for purposes of section 148. For purposes of eligibility for temporary periods under section 148(c) and exemptions from the requirement of section 148(f) the issuer may treat the date of receipt of the disposition proceeds as the issue date of the bonds and disregard the receipt of disposition proceeds for exemptions based on expenditure of proceeds under § 1.148-7 that were met before the receipt of the disposition proceeds.

(5) Proceeds expended on a governmental purpose. Except for a remedial action under paragraph (d) of this section, the proceeds of the issue that are affected by the deliberate action must have been expended on a governmental purpose before the date of the deliberate action.

(b) Effect of a remedial action—(1) In general. The effect of a remedial action is to cure use of proceeds that causes the private business use test or the private loan financing test to be met. A remedial action does not affect application of the private security or payment test.

(2) Effect on bonds that have been advance refunded. If proceeds of an issue were used to advance refund another bond, a remedial action taken with respect to the refunding bond proportionately reduces the amount of proceeds of the advance refunded bond that is taken into account under the private business use test or the private loan financing test.

(c) Disposition proceeds—(1) Definition. Disposition proceeds are any amounts (including property, such as an agreement to provide services) derived from the sale, exchange, or other disposition (disposition) of property (other than investments) financed with the proceeds of an issue.

(2) Allocating disposition proceeds to an issue. In general, if the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are met, after the date of the disposition, the proceeds of the issue allocable to the transferred property are treated as financing the disposition proceeds rather than the transferred property. If a disposition is made pursuant to an installment sale, the proceeds of the issue continue to be allocated to the transferred property. If an issue does not meet the requirements for remedial action in paragraph (a) of this section or the issuer does not take an appropriate remedial action, the proceeds of the issue are allocable to either the transferred property or the disposition proceeds, whichever allocation produces the greater amount of private business use and private security or payments.

(3) Allocating disposition proceeds to different sources of funding. If property has been financed by different sources of funding, for purposes of this section, the disposition proceeds from that property are first allocated to the outstanding bonds that financed that property in proportion to the principal amounts of those outstanding bonds. In no event may disposition proceeds be allocated to bonds that are no longer outstanding or to a source of funding not derived from a borrowing (such as revenues of the issuer) if the disposition proceeds are not greater than the total principal amounts of the outstanding bonds that are allocable to that property. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3), principal amount has the same meaning as in § 1.148-9(b)(2) and outstanding bonds do not include advance refunded bonds.

(d) Redemption or defeasance of nonqualified bonds—(1) In general. The requirements of this paragraph (d) are met if all of the nonqualified bonds of the issue are redeemed. Proceeds of tax-exempt bonds must not be used for this purpose, unless the tax-exempt bonds are qualified bonds, taking into account the purchaser's use of the facility. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, if the bonds are not redeemed within 90 days of the date of the deliberate action, a defeasance escrow must be established for those bonds within 90 days of the deliberate action.

(2) Special rule for dispositions for cash. If the consideration for the disposition of financed property is exclusively cash, the requirements of this paragraph (d) are met if the disposition proceeds are used to redeem a pro rata portion of the nonqualified bonds at the earliest call date after the deliberate action. If the bonds are not redeemed within 90 days of the date of the deliberate action, the disposition proceeds must be used to establish a defeasance escrow for those bonds within 90 days of the deliberate action.

(3) Anticipatory remedial action. The requirements of paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section for redemption or defeasance of the nonqualified bonds within 90 days of the deliberate action are met if the issuer declares its official intent to redeem or defease all of the bonds that would become nonqualified bonds in the event of a subsequent deliberate action that would cause the private business tests or the private loan financing test to be met and redeems or defeases such bonds prior to that deliberate action. The issuer must declare its official intent on or before the date on which it redeems or defeases such bonds, and the declaration of intent must identify the financed property or loan with respect to which the anticipatory remedial action is being taken and describe the deliberate action that potentially may result in the private business tests being met (for example, sale of financed property that the buyer may then lease to a nongovernmental person). Rules similar to those in § 1.150-2(e) (regarding official intent for reimbursement bonds) apply to declarations of intent under this paragraph (d)(3), including deviations in the descriptions of the project or loan and deliberate action and the reasonableness of the official intent.

(4) Notice of defeasance. The issuer must provide written notice to the Commissioner of the establishment of the defeasance escrow within 90 days of the date the defeasance escrow is established.

(5) Special limitation. The establishment of a defeasance escrow does not satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (d) if the period between the issue date and the first call date of the bonds is more than 10 1/2 years.

(6) Defeasance escrow defined. A defeasance escrow is an irrevocable escrow established to redeem bonds on their earliest call date in an amount that, together with investment earnings, is sufficient to pay all the principal of, and interest and call premium on, bonds from the date the escrow is established to the earliest call date. The escrow may not be invested in higher yielding investments or in any investment under which the obligor is a user of the proceeds of the bonds.

(e) Alternative use of disposition proceeds—(1) In general. The requirements of this paragraph (e) are met if—

(i) The deliberate action is a disposition for which the consideration is exclusively cash;

(ii) The issuer reasonably expects to expend the disposition proceeds within two years of the date of the deliberate action;

(iii) The disposition proceeds are treated as proceeds for purposes of section 141 and are used in a manner that does not cause the issue to meet either the private business tests or the private loan financing test, and the issuer does not take any action subsequent to the date of the deliberate action to cause either of these tests to be met; and

(iv) If the issuer does not use all of the disposition proceeds for an alternative use described in paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section, the issuer uses those remaining disposition proceeds for a remedial action that meets paragraph (d) of this section.

(2) Special rule for use by 501(c)(3) organizations. If the disposition proceeds are to be used by a 501(c)(3) organization, the nonqualified bonds must in addition be treated as reissued for purposes of sections 141, 145, 147, 149, and 150 and, under this treatment, satisfy all of the applicable requirements for qualified 501(c)(3) bonds. Thus, beginning on the date of the deliberate action, nonqualified bonds that satisfy these requirements must be treated as qualified 501(c)(3) bonds for all purposes, including sections 145(b) and 150(b).

(f) Alternative use of facility. The requirements of this paragraph (f) are met if—

(1) The facility with respect to which the deliberate action occurs is used in an alternative manner (for example, used for a qualifying purpose by a nongovernmental person or used by a 501(c)(3) organization rather than a governmental person);

(2) The nonqualified bonds are treated as reissued, as of the date of the deliberate action, for purposes of sections 55 through 59 and 141, 142, 144, 145, 146, 147, 149 and 150, and under this treatment, the nonqualified bonds satisfy all the applicable requirements for qualified bonds throughout the remaining term of the nonqualified bonds;

(3) The deliberate action does not involve a disposition to a purchaser that finances the acquisition with proceeds of another issue of tax-exempt bonds; and

(4) Any disposition proceeds other than those arising from an agreement to provide services (including disposition proceeds from an installment sale) resulting from the deliberate action are used to pay the debt service on the bonds on the next available payment date or, within 90 days of receipt, are deposited into an escrow that is restricted to the yield on the bonds to pay the debt service on the bonds on the next available payment date.

(g) Rules for deemed reissuance. For purposes of determining whether bonds that are treated as reissued under paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section are qualified bonds—

(1) The provisions of the Code and regulations thereunder in effect as of the date of the deliberate action apply; and

(2) For purposes of paragraph (f) of this section, section 147(d) (relating to the acquisition of existing property) does not apply.

(h) Authority of Commissioner to provide for additional remedial actions. The Commissioner may, by publication in the Federal Register or the Internal Revenue Bulletin, provide additional remedial actions, including making a remedial payment to the United States, under which a subsequent action will not be treated as a deliberate action for purposes of § 1.141-2.

(i) Effect of remedial action on continuing compliance. Solely for purposes of determining whether deliberate actions that are taken after a remedial action cause an issue to meet the private business tests or the private loan financing test—

(1) If a remedial action is taken under paragraph (d) of this section, the amount of private business use or private loans resulting from the deliberate action that is taken into account for purposes of determining whether the bonds are private activity bonds is that portion of the remaining bonds that is used for private business use or private loans (as calculated under paragraph (j) of this section);

(2) If a remedial action is taken under paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, the amount of private business use or private loans resulting from the deliberate action is not taken into account for purposes of determining whether the bonds are private activity bonds; and

(3) After a remedial action is taken, the amount of disposition proceeds is treated as equal to the proceeds of the issue that had been allocable to the transferred property immediately prior to the disposition. See paragraph (k) of this section, Example 5.

(j) Nonqualified bonds—(1) Amount of nonqualified bonds. The nonqualified bonds are a portion of the outstanding bonds in an amount that, if the remaining bonds were issued on the date on which the deliberate action occurs, the remaining bonds would not meet the private business use test or private loan financing test, as applicable. For this purpose, the amount of private business use is the greatest percentage of private business use in any one-year period commencing with the one-year period in which the deliberate action occurs.

(2) Allocation of nonqualified bonds. Allocations of nonqualified bonds must be made on a pro rata basis, except that, for purposes of paragraph (d) of this section (relating to redemption or defeasance), an issuer may treat any bonds of an issue as the nonqualified bonds so long as—

(i) The remaining weighted average maturity of the issue, determined as of the date on which the nonqualified bonds are redeemed or defeased (determination date), and excluding from the determination the nonqualified bonds redeemed or defeased by the issuer in accordance with this section, is not greater than

(ii) The remaining weighted average maturity of the issue, determined as of the determination date, but without regard to the redemption or defeasance of any bonds (including the nonqualified bonds) occurring on the determination date.

(k) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this section:

Example 1 Disposition proceeds less than outstanding bonds used to retire bonds.

On June 1, 1997, City C issues 30-year bonds with an issue price of $10 million to finance the construction of a hospital building. The bonds have a weighted average maturity that does not exceed 120 percent of the reasonably expected economic life of the building. On the issue date, C reasonably expects that it will be the only user of the building for the entire term of the bonds. Six years after the issue date, C sells the building to Corporation P for $5 million. The sale price is the fair market value of the building, as verified by an independent appraiser. C uses all of the $5 million disposition proceeds to immediately retire a pro rata portion of the bonds. The sale does not cause the bonds to be private activity bonds because C has taken a remedial action described in paragraph (d) of this section so that P is not treated as a private business user of bond proceeds.

Example 2. Lease to nongovernmental person.

The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that instead of selling the building, C, 6 years after the issue date, leases the building to P for 7 years and uses other funds to redeem all of the $10 million outstanding bonds within 90 days of the deliberate act. The bonds are not treated as private activity bonds because C has taken the remedial action described in paragraph (d) of this section.

Example 3. Sale for less than fair market value.

The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that the fair market value of the building at the time of the sale to P is $6 million. Because the transfer was for less than fair market value, the bonds are ineligible for the remedial actions under this section. The bonds are private activity bonds because P is treated as a user of all of the proceeds and P makes a payment ($6 million) for this use that is greater than 10 percent of the debt service on the bonds, on a present value basis.

Example 4. Fair market value determined taking into account governmental restrictions.

The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that the building was used by C only for hospital purposes and C determines to sell the building subject to a restriction that it be used only for hospital purposes. After conducting a public bidding procedure as required by state law, the best price that C is able to obtain for the building subject to this restriction is $4.5 million from P. C uses all of the $4.5 million disposition proceeds to immediately retire a pro rata portion of the bonds. The sale does not cause the bonds to be private activity bonds because C has taken a remedial action described in paragraph (d) of this section so that P is not treated as a private business user of bond proceeds.

Example 5. Alternative use of disposition proceeds.

The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that C reasonably expects on the date of the deliberate action to use the $5 million disposition proceeds for another governmental purpose (construction of governmentally owned roads) within two years of receipt, rather than using the $5 million to redeem outstanding bonds. C treats these disposition proceeds as gross proceeds for purposes of section 148. The bonds are not private activity bonds because C has taken a remedial action described in paragraph (e) of this section. After the date of the deliberate action, the proceeds of all of the outstanding bonds are treated as used for the construction of the roads, even though only $5 million of disposition proceeds was actually used for the roads.

Example 6. Alternative use of financed property.

The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that C determines to lease the hospital building to Q, an organization described in section 501(c)(3), for a term of 10 years rather than to sell the building to P. In order to induce Q to provide hospital services, C agrees to lease payments that are less than fair market value. Before entering into the lease, an applicable elected representative of C approves the lease after a noticed public hearing. As of the date of the deliberate action, the issue meets all the requirements for qualified 501(c)(3) bonds, treating the bonds as reissued on that date. For example, the issue meets the two percent restriction on use of proceeds of finance issuance costs of section 147(g) because the issue pays no costs of issuance from disposition proceeds in connection with the deemed reissuance. C and Q treat the bonds as qualified 501(c)(3) bonds for all purposes commencing with the date of the deliberate action. The bonds are treated as qualified 501(c)(3) bonds commencing with the date of the deliberate action.

Example 7. Deliberate action before proceeds are expended on a governmental purpose.

County J issues bonds with proceeds of $10 million that can be used only to finance a correctional facility. On the issue date of the bonds, J reasonably expects that it will be the sole user of the bonds for the useful life of the facility. The bonds have a weighted average maturity that does not exceed 120 percent of the reasonably expected economic life of the facility. After the issue date of the bonds, but before the facility is placed in service, J enters into a contract with the federal government pursuant to which the federal government will make a fair market value, lump sum payment equal to 25 percent of the cost of the facility. In exchange for this payment, J provides the federal government with priority rights to use of 25 percent of the facility. J uses the payment received from the federal government to defease the nonqualified bonds. The agreement does not cause the bonds to be private activity bonds because J has taken a remedial action described in paragraph (d) of this section. See paragraph (a)(5) of this section.

Example 8.

Compliance after remedial action. In 2007, City G issues bonds with proceeds of $10 million to finance a courthouse. The bonds have a weighted average maturity that does not exceed 120 percent of the reasonably expected economic life of the courthouse. City G enters into contracts with nongovernmental persons that result in private business use of 10 percent of the courthouse per year. More than 10 percent of the debt service on the issue is secured by private security or payments. In 2019, in a bona fide and arm's length arrangement, City G enters into a management contract with a nongovernmental person that results in private business use of an additional 40 percent of the courthouse per year during the remaining term of the bonds. City G immediately redeems the nonqualified bonds, or 44.44 percent of the outstanding bonds. This is the portion of the outstanding bonds that, if the remaining bonds were issued on the date on which the deliberate action occurs, the remaining bonds would not meet the private business use test, treating the amount of private business use as the greatest percentage of private business use in any one-year period commencing with the one-year period in which the deliberate action occurs (50 percent). This percentage is computed by dividing the percentage of the facility used for a government use (50 percent) by the minimum amount of government use required (90 percent), and subtracting the resulting percentage (55.56 percent) from 100 percent (44.44 percent). For purposes of subsequently applying section 141 to the issue, City G may continue to use all of the proceeds of the outstanding bonds in the same manner (that is, for the courthouse and the private business use) without causing the issue to meet the private business use test. The issue continues to meet the private security or payment test. The result would be the same if City G, instead of redeeming the bonds, established a defeasance escrow for those bonds, provided that the requirement of paragraph (d)(5) of this section is met. If City G takes a subsequent deliberate action that results in further private business use, it must take into account 10 percent of private business use in addition to that caused by the second deliberate act.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2298, Jan. 16, 1997, as amended by T.D. 9741, 80 FR 65644, Oct. 27, 2015]

§ 1.141-13 Refunding issues.

(a) In general. Except as provided in this section, a refunding issue and a prior issue are tested separately under section 141. Thus, the determination of whether a refunding issue consists of private activity bonds generally does not depend on whether the prior issue consists of private activity bonds.

(b) Application of private business use test and private loan financing test—(1) Allocation of proceeds. In applying the private business use test and the private loan financing test to a refunding issue, the proceeds of the refunding issue are allocated to the same expenditures and purpose investments as the proceeds of the prior issue.

(2) Determination of amount of private business use—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, the amount of private business use of a refunding issue is determined under § 1.141-3(g), based on the measurement period for that issue (for example, without regard to any private business use that occurred prior to the issue date of the refunding issue).

(ii) Refundings of governmental bonds. In applying the private business use test to a refunding issue that refunds a prior issue of governmental bonds, the amount of private business use of the refunding issue is the amount of private business use—

(A) During the combined measurement period; or

(B) At the option of the issuer, during the period described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, but only if, without regard to the reasonable expectations test of § 1.141-2(d), the prior issue does not satisfy the private business use test, based on a measurement period that begins on the first day of the combined measurement period and ends on the issue date of the refunding issue.

(iii) Combined measurement period—(A) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, the combined measurement period is the period that begins on the first day of the measurement period (as defined in § 1.141-3(g)) for the prior issue (or, in the case of a series of refundings of governmental bonds, the first issue of governmental bonds in the series) and ends on the last day of the measurement period for the refunding issue.

(B) Transition rule for refundings of bonds originally issued before May 16, 1997. If the prior issue (or, in the case of a series of refundings of governmental bonds, the first issue of governmental bonds in the series) was issued before May 16, 1997, then the issuer, at its option, may treat the combined measurement period as beginning on the date (the transition date) that is the earlier of December 19, 2005 or the first date on which the prior issue (or an earlier issue in the case of a series of refundings of governmental bonds) became subject to the 1997 regulations (as defined in § 1.141-15(b)). If the issuer treats the combined measurement period as beginning on the transition date in accordance with this paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(B), then paragraph (c)(2) of this section shall be applied by treating the transition date as the issue date of the earliest issue, by treating the bonds as reissued on the transition date at an issue price equal to the value of the bonds (as determined under § 1.148-4(e)) on that date, and by disregarding any private security or private payments before the transition date.

(iv) Governmental bond. For purposes of this section, the term governmental bond means any bond that, when issued, purported to be a governmental bond, as defined in § 1.150-1(b), or a qualified 501(c)(3) bond, as defined in section 145(a).

(v) Special rule for refundings of qualified 501(c)(3) bonds with governmental bonds. For purposes of applying this paragraph (b)(2) to a refunding issue that refunds a qualified 501(c)(3) bond, any use of the property refinanced by the refunding issue before the issue date of the refunding issue by a 501(c)(3) organization with respect to its activities that do not constitute an unrelated trade or business under section 513(a) is treated as government use.

(c) Application of private security or payment test—(1) Separate issue treatment. If the amount of private business use of a refunding issue is determined based on the measurement period for that issue in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i) or (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, then the amount of private security and private payments allocable to the refunding issue is determined under § 1.141-4 by treating the refunding issue as a separate issue.

(2) Combined issue treatment. If the amount of private business use of a refunding issue is determined based on the combined measurement period for that issue in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, then the amount of private security and private payments allocable to the refunding issue is determined under § 1.141-4 by treating the refunding issue and all earlier issues taken into account in determining the combined measurement period as a combined issue. For this purpose, the present value of the private security and private payments is compared to the present value of the debt service on the combined issue (other than debt service paid with proceeds of any refunding bond). Present values are computed as of the issue date of the earliest issue taken into account in determining the combined measurement period (the earliest issue). Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, present values are determined by using the yield on the combined issue as the discount rate. The yield on the combined issue is determined by taking into account payments on the refunding issue and all earlier issues taken into account in determining the combined measurement period (other than payments made with proceeds of any refunding bond), and based on the issue price of the earliest issue. In the case of a refunding of only a portion of the original principal amount of a prior issue, the refunded portion of the prior issue is treated as a separate issue and any private security or private payments with respect to the prior issue are allocated ratably between the combined issue and the unrefunded portion of the prior issue in a consistent manner based on relative debt service. See paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(B) of this section for special rules relating to certain refundings of governmental bonds originally issued before May 16, 1997.

(3) Special rule for arrangements not entered into in contemplation of the refunding issue. In applying the private security or payment test to a refunding issue that refunds a prior issue of governmental bonds, the issuer may use the yield on the prior issue to determine the present value of private security and private payments under arrangements that were not entered into in contemplation of the refunding issue. For this purpose, any arrangement that was entered into more than 1 year before the issue date of the refunding issue is treated as not entered into in contemplation of the refunding issue.

(d) Multipurpose issue allocations—(1) In general. For purposes of section 141, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, § 1.148-9(h) applies to allocations of multipurpose issues (as defined in § 1.148-1(b)), including allocations involving the refunding purposes of the issue. An allocation under this paragraph (d) may be made at any time, but once made, may not be changed. An allocation is not reasonable under this paragraph (d) if it achieves more favorable results under section 141 than could be achieved with actual separate issues. Each of the separate issues under the allocation must consist of one or more tax-exempt bonds. Allocations made under this paragraph (d) and § 1.148-9(h) must be consistent for purposes of sections 141 and 148.

(2) Exceptions. This paragraph (d) does not apply for purposes of sections 141(c)(1) and 141(d)(1).

(e) Application of reasonable expectations test to certain refunding bonds. An action that would otherwise cause a refunding issue to satisfy the private business tests or the private loan financing test is not taken into account under the reasonable expectations test of § 1.141-2(d) if—

(1) The action is not a deliberate action within the meaning of § 1.141-2(d)(3); and

(2) The weighted average maturity of the refunding bonds is not greater than the weighted average reasonably expected economic life of the property financed by the prior bonds.

(f) Special rule for refundings of certain general obligation bonds. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a refunding issue does not consist of private activity bonds if—

(1) The prior issue meets the requirements of § 1.141-2(d)(5) (relating to certain general obligation bond programs that finance a large number of separate purposes); or

(2) The refunded portion of the prior issue is part of a series of refundings of all or a portion of an issue that meets the requirements of § 1.141-2(d)(5).

(g) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this section:

Example 1. Measuring private business use.

In 2002, Authority A issues tax-exempt bonds that mature in 2032 to acquire an office building. The measurement period for the 2002 bonds under § 1.141-3(g) is 30 years. At the time A acquires the building, it enters into a 10-year lease with a nongovernmental person under which the nongovernmental person will use 5 percent of the building in its trade or business during each year of the lease term. In 2007, A issues bonds to refund the 2002 bonds. The 2007 bonds mature on the same date as the 2002 bonds and have a measurement period of 25 years under § 1.141-3(g). Under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, the amount of private business use of the proceeds of the 2007 bonds is 1.67 percent, which equals the amount of private business use during the combined measurement period (5 percent of 1/3 of the 30-year combined measurement period). In addition, the 2002 bonds do not satisfy the private business use test, based on a measurement period beginning on the first day of the measurement period for the 2002 bonds and ending on the issue date of the 2007 bonds, because only 5 percent of the proceeds of the 2002 bonds are used for a private business use during that period. Thus, under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, A may treat the amount of private business use of the 2007 bonds as 1 percent (5 percent of 1/5 of the 25-year measurement period for the 2007 bonds). The 2007 bonds do not satisfy the private business use test.

Example 2. Combined issue yield computation.

(i) On January 1, 2000, County B issues 20-year bonds to finance the acquisition of a municipal auditorium. The 2000 bonds have a yield of 7.7500 percent, compounded annually, and an issue price and par amount of $100 million. The debt service payments on the 2000 bonds are as follows:

Date Debt service
1/1/01 $9,996,470
1/1/02 9,996,470
1/1/03 9,996,470
1/1/04 9,996,470
1/1/05 9,996,470
1/1/06 9,996,470
1/1/07 9,996,470
1/1/08 9,996,470
1/1/09 9,996,470
1/1/10 9,996,470
1/1/11 9,996,470
1/1/12 9,996,470
1/1/13 9,996,470
1/1/14 9,996,470
1/1/15 9,996,470
1/1/16 9,996,470
1/1/17 9,996,470
1/1/18 9,996,470
1/1/19 9,996,470
1/1/20 9,996,470
199,929,400

(ii) On January 1, 2005, B issues 15-year bonds to refund all of the outstanding 2000 bonds maturing after January 1, 2005 (in the aggregate principal amount of $86,500,000). The 2005 bonds have a yield of 6.0000 percent, compounded annually, and an issue price and par amount of $89,500,000. The debt service payments on the 2005 bonds are as follows:

Date Debt service
1/1/06 $9,215,167
1/1/07 9,215,167
1/1/08 9,215,167
1/1/09 9,215,167
1/1/10 9,215,167
1/1/11 9,215,167
1/1/12 9,215,167
1/1/13 9,215,167
1/1/14 9,215,167
1/1/15 9,215,167
1/1/16 9,215,167
1/1/17 9,215,167
1/1/18 9,215,167
1/1/19 9,215,167
1/1/20 9,215,167
138,227,511

(iii) In accordance with § 1.141-15(h), B chooses to apply § 1.141-13 (together with the other provisions set forth in § 1.141-15(h)), to the 2005 bonds. For purposes of determining the amount of private security and private payments with respect to the 2005 bonds, the 2005 bonds and the refunded portion of the 2000 bonds are treated as a combined issue under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. The yield on the combined issue is determined in accordance with §§ 1.148-4, 1.141-4(b)(2)(iii) and 1.141-13(c)(2). Under this methodology, the yield on the combined issue is 7.1062 percent per year compounded annually, illustrated as follows:

Date Previous debt service on refunded portion of prior issue Refunding debt service Total debt service Present value on 1/1/00
1/1/00 ($86,500,000.00)
1/1/01 6,689,793 6,689,793 6,245,945.33
1/1/02 6,689,793 6,689,793 5,831,545.62
1/1/03 6,689,793 6,689,793 5,444,640.09
1/1/04 6,689,793 6,689,793 5,083,404.58
1/1/05 6,689,793 6,689,793 4,746,135.95
1/1/06 9,215,167 9,215,167 6,104,023.84
1/1/07 9,215,167 9,215,167 5,699,040.20
1/1/08 9,215,167 9,215,167 5,320,926.00
1/1/09 9,215,167 9,215,167 4,967,898.55
1/1/10 9,215,167 9,215,167 4,638,293.40
1/1/11 9,215,167 9,215,167 4,330,556.57
1/1/12 9,215,167 9,215,167 4,043,237.15
1/1/13 9,215,167 9,215,167 3,774,980.51
1/1/14 9,215,167 9,215,167 3,524,521.90
1/1/15 9,215,167 9,215,167 3,290,680.46
1/1/16 9,215,167 9,215,167 3,072,353.70
1/1/17 9,215,167 9,215,167 2,868,512.26
1/1/18 9,215,167 9,215,167 2,678,195.09
1/1/19 9,215,167 9,215,167 2,500,504.89
1/1/20 9,215,167 9,215,167 2,334,603.90
33,448,965 138,227,511 171,676,4760.00 0.00
Example 3. Determination of private payments allocable to combined issue.

The facts are the same as in Example 2. In addition, on January 1, 2001, B enters into a contract with a nongovernmental person for the use of the auditorium. The contract results in a private payment in the amount of $500,000 on each January 1 beginning on January 1, 2001, and ending on January 1, 2020. Under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the amount of the private payments allocable to the combined issue is determined by treating the refunded portion of the 2000 bonds ($86,500,000 principal amount) as a separate issue, and by allocating the total private payments ratably between the combined issue and the unrefunded portion of the 2000 bonds ($13,500,000 principal amount) based on relative debt service, as follows:

Date Private payments Debt service on unrefunded portion of prior issue Debt service on combined issue Percentage of private payments allocable to combined issue Amount of private payments allocable to combined issue
1/1/01 $500,000 $3,306,677 $6,689,793 66.92 $334,608
1/1/02 500,000 3,306,677 6,689,793 66.92 334,608
1/1/03 500,000 3,306,677 6,689,793 66.92 334,608
1/1/04 500,000 3,306,677 6,689,793 66.92 334,608
1/1/05 500,000 3,306,677 6,689,793 66.92 334,608
1/1/06 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
1/1/07 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
1/1/08 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
1/1/09 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
1/1/10 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
1/1/11 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
1/1/12 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
1/1/13 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
1/1/14 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
1/1/15 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
1/1/16 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
1/1/17 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
1/1/18 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
1/1/19 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
1/1/20 500,000 9,215,167 100.00 500,000
$10,000,000 $16,533,385 $171,676,476 $9,173,039
Example 4. Refunding taxable bonds and qualified bonds.

(i) In 1999, City C issues taxable bonds to finance the construction of a facility for the furnishing of water. The bonds are secured by revenues from the facility. The facility is managed pursuant to a management contract with a nongovernmental person that gives rise to private business use. In 2007, C terminates the management contract and takes over the operation of the facility. In 2009, C issues bonds to refund the 1999 bonds. On the issue date of the 2009 bonds, C reasonably expects that the facility will not be used for a private business use during the term of the 2009 bonds. In addition, during the term of the 2009 bonds, the facility is not used for a private business use. Under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the 2009 bonds do not satisfy the private business use test because the amount of private business use is based on the measurement period for those bonds and therefore does not take into account any private business use that occurred pursuant to the management contract.

(ii) The facts are the same as in paragraph (i) of this Example 4, except that the 1999 bonds are issued as exempt facility bonds under section 142(a)(4). The 2009 bonds do not satisfy the private business use test.

Example 5.

Multipurpose issue. (i) In 2017, State D issues bonds to finance the construction of two office buildings, Building 1 and Building 2. D expends an equal amount of the proceeds on each building. D enters into arrangements that result in private business use of 8 percent of Building 1 and 12 percent of Building 2 during the measurement period under § 1.141-3(g) and private payments of 4 percent of the 2017 bonds in respect of Building 1 and 6 percent of the 2017 bonds in respect of Building 2. These arrangements result in a total of 10 percent of the proceeds of the 2017 bonds being used for a private business use and total private payments of 10 percent. In 2022, D purports to make a multipurpose issue allocation under paragraph (d) of this section of the outstanding 2017 bonds, allocating the issue into two separate issues of equal amounts with one issue allocable to Building 1 and the second allocable to Building 2. An allocation is unreasonable under paragraph (d) of this section if it achieves more favorable results under section 141 than could be achieved with actual separate issues. D's allocation is unreasonable because, if permitted, it would allow more favorable results under section 141 for the 2017 bonds (that is, private business use and private payments that exceed 10 percent for the 2017 bonds allocable to Building 2) than could be achieved with actual separate issues. In addition, if D's purported allocation was intended to result in two separate issues of tax-exempt governmental bonds (versus tax-exempt private activity bonds), the allocation would violate paragraph (d) of this section in the first instance because the allocation to the separate issue for Building 2 would fail to qualify separately as an issue of tax-exempt governmental bonds as a result of its 12 percent of private business use and private payments.

(ii) The facts are the same as in paragraph (i) of this Example 5, except that D enters into arrangements only for Building 1, and it expects no private business use of Building 2. In 2022, D allocates an equal amount of the outstanding 2017 bonds to Building 1 and Building 2. D selects particular bonds for each separate issue such that the allocation does not achieve a more favorable result than could have been achieved by issuing actual separate issues. D uses the same allocation for purposes of both sections 141 and 148. D's allocation is reasonable.

(iii) The facts are the same as in paragraph (ii) of this Example 5, except that as part of the same issue, D issues bonds for a privately used airport. The airport bonds, if issued as a separate issue, would be qualified private activity bonds. The remaining bonds, if issued separately from the airport bonds, would be governmental bonds. Treated as one issue, however, the bonds are taxable private activity bonds. Therefore, D makes its allocation of the bonds under paragraph (d) of this section and § 1.150-1(c)(3) into 3 separate issues on or before the issue date. Assuming all other applicable requirements are met, the bonds of the respective issues will be tax-exempt qualified private activity bonds or governmental bonds.

Example 6. Non-deliberate action.

In 1998, City E issues bonds to finance the purchase of land and construction of a building (the prior bonds). On the issue date of the prior bonds, E reasonably expects that it will be the sole user of the financed property for the entire term of the bonds. In 2003, the federal government acquires the financed property in a condemnation action. In 2006, E issues bonds to refund the prior bonds (the refunding bonds). The weighted average maturity of the refunding bonds is not greater than the reasonably expected economic life of the financed property. In general, under § 1.141-2(d) and this section, reasonable expectations must be separately tested on the issue date of a refunding issue. Under paragraph (e) of this section, however, the condemnation action is not taken into account in applying the reasonable expectations test to the refunding bonds because the condemnation action is not a deliberate action within the meaning of § 1.141-2(d)(3) and the weighted average maturity of the refunding bonds is not greater than the weighted average reasonably expected economic life of the property financed by the prior bonds. Thus, the condemnation action does not cause the refunding bonds to be private activity bonds.

Example 7. Non-transitioned refunding of bonds subject to 1954 Code.

In 1985, County F issues bonds to finance a court house. The 1985 bonds are subject to the provisions of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. In 2006, F issues bonds to refund all of the outstanding 1985 bonds. The weighted average maturity of the 2006 bonds is longer than the remaining weighted average maturity of the 1985 bonds. In addition, the 2006 bonds do not satisfy any transitional rule for refundings in the Tax Reform Act of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085 (1986). Section 141 and this section apply to determine whether the 2006 bonds are private activity bonds including whether, for purposes of § 1.141-13(b)(2)(ii)(B), the 1985 bonds satisfy the private business use test based on a measurement period that begins on the first day of the combined measurement period for the 2006 bonds and ends on the issue date of the 2006 bonds.

[T.D. 9234, 70 FR 75032, Dec. 19, 2006, as amended by T.D. 9741, 80 FR 65645, Oct. 27, 2015]

§ 1.141-14 Anti-abuse rules.

(a) Authority of Commissioner to reflect substance of transactions. If an issuer enters into a transaction or series of transactions with respect to one or more issues with a principal purpose of transferring to nongovernmental persons (other than as members of the general public) significant benefits of tax-exempt financing in a manner that is inconsistent with the purposes of section 141, the Commissioner may take any action to reflect the substance of the transaction or series of transactions, including—

(1) Treating separate issues as a single issue for purposes of the private activity bond tests;

(2) Reallocating proceeds to expenditures, property, use, or bonds;

(3) Reallocating payments to use or proceeds;

(4) Measuring private business use on a basis that reasonably reflects the economic benefit in a manner different than as provided in § 1.141-3(g); and

(5) Measuring private payments or security on a basis that reasonably reflects the economic substance in a manner different than as provided in § 1.141-4.

(b) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this section:

Example 1. Reallocating proceeds to indirect use.

City C issues bonds with proceeds of $20 million for the stated purpose of financing improvements to roads that it owns. As a part of the same plan of financing, however, C also agrees to make a loan of $7 million to Corporation M from its general revenues that it otherwise would have used for the road improvements. The interest rate of the loan corresponds to the interest rate on a portion of the issue. A principal purpose of the financing arrangement is to transfer to M significant benefits of the tax-exempt financing. Although C actually allocates all of the proceeds of the bonds to the road improvements, the Commissioner may reallocate a portion of the proceeds of the bonds to the loan to M because a principal purpose of the financing arrangement is to transfer to M significant benefits of tax-exempt financing in a manner that is inconsistent with the purposes of section 141. The bonds are private activity bonds because the issue meets the private loan financing test. The bonds also meet the private business tests. See also §§ 1.141-3(a)(2), 1.141-4(a)(1), and 1.141-5(a), under which indirect use of proceeds and payments are taken into account.

Example 2. Taking into account use of amounts derived from proceeds that would be otherwise disregarded.

County B issues bonds with proceeds of $10 million to finance the purchase of land. On the issue date, B reasonably expects that it will be the sole user of the land. Subsequently, the federal government acquires the land for $3 million in a condemnation action. B uses this amount to make a loan to Corporation M. In addition, the interest rate on the loan reflects the tax-exempt interest rate on the bonds and thus is substantially less than a current market rate. A principal purpose of the arrangement is to transfer to M significant benefits of the tax-exempt financing. Although the condemnation action is not a deliberate action, the Commissioner may treat the condemnation proceeds as proceeds of the issue because a principal purpose of the arrangement is to transfer to M significant benefits of tax-exempt financing in a manner inconsistent with the purposes of section 141. The bonds are private activity bonds.

Example 3. Measuring private business use on an alternative basis.

City F issues bonds with a 30-year term to finance the acquisition of an industrial building having a remaining reasonably expected useful economic life of more than 30 years. On the issue date, F leases the building to Corporation G for 3 years. F reasonably expects that it will be the sole user of the building for the remaining term of the bonds. Because of the local market conditions, it is reasonably expected that the fair rental value of the industrial building will be significantly greater during the early years of the term of the bonds than in the later years. The annual rental payments are significantly less than fair market value, reflecting the interest rate on the bonds. The present value of these rental payments (net of operation and maintenance expenses) as of the issue date, however, is approximately 25 percent of the present value of debt service on the issue. Under § 1.141-3, the issue does not meet the private business tests, because only 10 percent of the proceeds are used in a trade or business by a nongovernmental person. A principal purpose of the issue is to transfer to G significant benefits of tax-exempt financing in a manner inconsistent with the purposes of section 141. The method of measuring private business use over the reasonably expected useful economic life of financed property is for the administrative convenience of issuers of state and local bonds. In cases where this method is used in a manner inconsistent with the purposes of section 141, the Commissioner may measure private business use on another basis that reasonably reflects economic benefit, such as in this case on an annual basis. If the Commissioner measures private business use on an annual basis, the bonds are private activity bonds because the private payment test is met and more than 10 percent of the proceeds are used in a trade or business by a nongovernmental person.

Example 4. Treating separate issues as a single issue.

City D enters into a development agreement with Corporation T to induce T to locate its headquarters within D's city limits. Pursuant to the development agreement, in 1997 D will issue $20 million of its general obligation bonds (the 1997 bonds) to purchase land that it will grant to T. The development agreement also provides that, in 1998, D will issue $20 million of its tax increment bonds (the 1998 bonds), secured solely by the increase in property taxes in a special taxing district. Substantially all of the property within the special taxing district is owned by T or D. T will separately enter into an agreement to guarantee the payment of tax increment to D in an amount sufficient to retire the 1998 bonds. The proceeds of the 1998 bonds will be used to finance improvements owned and operated by D that will not give rise to private business use. Treated separately, the 1997 issue meets the private business use test, but not the private security or payment test; the 1998 issue meets the private security or payment test, but not the private business use test. A principal purpose of the financing plan, including the two issues, is to transfer significant benefits of tax-exempt financing to T for its headquarters. Thus, the 1997 issue and the 1998 issue may be treated by the Commissioner as a single issue for purposes of applying the private activity bond tests. Accordingly, the bonds of both the 1997 issue and the 1998 issue may be treated as private activity bonds.

Example 5. Reallocating proceeds.

City E acquires an electric generating facility with a useful economic life of more than 40 years and enters into a 30-year take or pay contract to sell 30 percent of the available output to investor-owned utility M. E plans to use the remaining 70 percent of available output for its own governmental purposes. To finance the entire cost of the facility, E issues $30 million of its series A taxable bonds at taxable interest rates and $70 million series B bonds, which purport to be tax-exempt bonds, at tax-exempt interest rates. E allocates all of M's private business use to the proceeds of the series A bonds and all of its own government use to the proceeds of the series B bonds. The series A bonds have a weighted average maturity of 15 years, while the series B bonds have a weighted average maturity of 26 years. M's payments under the take or pay contract are expressly determined by reference to 30 percent of M's total costs (that is, the sum of the debt service required to be paid on both the series A and the series B bonds and all other operating costs). The allocation of all of M's private business use to the series A bonds does not reflect economic substance because the series of transactions transfers to M significant benefits of the tax-exempt interest rates paid on the series B bonds. A principal purpose of the financing arrangement is to transfer to M significant benefits of the tax-exempt financing. Accordingly, the Commissioner may allocate M's private business use on a pro rata basis to both the series B bonds as well as the series A bonds, in which case the series B bonds are private activity bonds.

Example 6. Allocations respected.

The facts are the same as in Example 5, except that the debt service component of M's payments under the take or pay contract is based exclusively on the amounts necessary to pay the debt service on the taxable series A bonds. E's allocation of all of M's private business use to the series A bonds is respected because the series of transactions does not actually transfer benefits of tax-exempt interest rates to M. Accordingly, the series B bonds are not private activity bonds. The result would be the same if M's payments under the take or pay contract were based exclusively on fair market value pricing, rather than the tax-exempt interest rates on E's bonds. The result also would be the same if the series A bonds and the series B bonds had substantially equivalent weighted average maturities and E and M had entered into a customary contract providing for payments based on a ratable share of total debt service. E would not be treated by the Commissioner in any of these cases as entering into the contract with a principal purpose of transferring the benefits of tax-exempt financing to M in a manner inconsistent with the purposes of section 141.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2301, Jan. 16, 1997]

§ 1.141-15 Effective/applicability dates.

(a) Scope. The effective dates of this section apply for purposes of §§ 1.141-1 through 1.141-14, 1.145-1 through 1.145-2, and 1.150-1(a)(3) and the definition of bond documents contained in § 1.150-1(b).

(b) Effective dates—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this section, §§ 1.141-0 through 1.141-6(a), 1.141-9 through 1.141-12, 1.141-14, 1.145-1 through 1.145-2(c), and the definition of bond documents contained in § 1.150-1(b) (the 1997 regulations) apply to bonds issued on or after May 16, 1997, that are subject to section 1301 of the Tax Reform Act of 1986 (100 Stat. 2602).

(2) Certain short-term arrangements. The provisions of § 1.141-3 that refer to arrangements for 200 days, 100 days, or 50 days apply to any bond sold on or after November 20, 2001 and may be applied to any bond outstanding on November 20, 2001 to which § 1.141-3 applies.

(3) Certain prepayments. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, paragraphs (c)(2)(ii), (c)(2)(iii) and (c)(2)(iv) of § 1.141-5 apply to bonds sold on or after October 3, 2003. Issuers may apply paragraphs (c)(2)(ii), (c)(2)(iii) and (c)(2)(iv) of § 1.141-5, in whole but not in part, to bonds sold before October 3, 2003 that are subject to § 1.141-5.

(4) Certain remedial actions—(i) General rule. For bonds subject to § 1.141-12, the provisions of § 1.141-12(d)(3), (i), (j), and (k), Example 8, apply to deliberate actions that occur on or after January 25, 2016.

(ii) Special rule for allocations of nonqualified bonds. For purposes of § 1.141-12(j)(2), in addition to the allocation methods permitted in § 1.141-12(j)(2), an issuer may treat bonds with the longest maturities (determined on a bond-by-bond basis) as the nonqualified bonds, but only for bonds sold before January 25, 2016.

(c) Refunding bonds. Except as otherwise provided in this section, the 1997 regulations (defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section) do not apply to any bonds issued on or after May 16, 1997, to refund a bond to which those regulations do not apply unless—

(1) The refunding bonds are subject to section 1301 of the Tax Reform Act of 1986 (100 Stat. 2602); and

(2)(i) The weighted average maturity of the refunding bonds is longer than—

(A) The weighted average maturity of the refunded bonds; or

(B) In the case of a short-term obligation that the issuer reasonably expects to refund with a long-term financing (such as a bond anticipation note), 120 percent of the weighted average reasonably expected economic life of the facilities financed; or

(ii) A principal purpose for the issuance of the refunding bonds is to make one or more new conduit loans.

(d) Permissive application of regulations. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, the 1997 regulations (defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section) may be applied in whole, but not in part, to actions taken before February 23, 1998, with respect to—

(1) Bonds that are outstanding on May 16, 1997, and subject to section 141; or

(2) Refunding bonds issued on or after May 16, 1997, that are subject to 141.

(e) Permissive application of certain sections—(1) In general. The following sections may each be applied by issuers to any bonds:

(i) Section 1.141-3(b)(4);

(ii) Section 1.141-3(b)(6); and

(iii) Section 1.141-12.

(2) Transition rule for pre-effective date bonds. For purposes of paragraphs (e)(1) and (h) of this section, issuers may apply § 1.141-12 to bonds issued before May 16, 1997, without regard to paragraph (d)(5) thereof with respect to deliberate actions that occur on or after April 21, 2003.

(f) Effective dates for certain regulations relating to output facilities—(1) General rule. Except as otherwise provided in this section, §§ 1.141-7 and 1.141-8 apply to bonds sold on or after November 22, 2002, that are subject to section 1301 of the Tax Reform Act of 1986 (100 Stat. 2602).

(2) Transition rule for requirements contracts. For bonds otherwise subject to §§ 1.141-7 and 1.141-8, § 1.141-7(c)(3) applies to output contracts entered into on or after September 19, 2002. An output contract is treated as entered into on or after that date if it is amended on or after that date, but only if the amendment results in a change in the parties to the contract or increases the amount of requirements covered by the contract by reason of an extension of the contract term or a change in the method for determining such requirements. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(2)—

(i) The extension of the term of a contract causes the contract to be treated as entered into on the first day of the additional term;

(ii) The exercise by a party of a legally enforceable right that was provided under a contract before September 19, 2002, on terms that were fixed and determinable before such date, is not treated as an amendment of the contract. For example, the exercise by a purchaser after September 19, 2002 of a renewal option that was provided under a contract before that date, on terms identical to the original contract, is not treated as an amendment of the contract; and

(iii) An amendment that increases the amount of requirements covered by the contract by reason of a change in the method for determining such requirements is treated as a separate contract that is entered into as of the effective date of the amendment, but only with respect to the increased output to be provided under the contract.

(g) Refunding bonds for output facilities. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (h) or (i) of this section, §§ 1.141-7 and 1.141-8 do not apply to any bonds sold on or after November 22, 2002, to refund a bond to which §§ 1.141-7 and 1.141-8 do not apply unless—

(1) The refunding bonds are subject to section 1301 of the Tax Reform Act of 1986 (100 Stat. 2602); and

(2)(i) The weighted average maturity of the refunding bonds is longer than—

(A) The weighted average maturity of the refunded bonds; or

(B) In the case of a short-term obligation that the issuer reasonably expects to refund with a long-term financing (such as a bond anticipation note), 120 percent of the weighted average reasonably expected economic life of the facilities financed; or

(ii) A principal purpose for the issuance of the refunding bonds is to make one or more new conduit loans.

(h) Permissive retroactive application. Except as provided in paragraphs (d), (e) or (i) of this section, §§ 1.141-1 through 1.141-6(a), 1.141-7 through 1.141-14, 1.145-1 through 1.145-2, 1.149(d)-1(g), 1.150-1(a)(3), the definition of bond documents contained in § 1.150-1(b) and § 1.150-1(c)(3)(ii) may be applied by issuers in whole, but not in part, to—

(1) Outstanding bonds that are sold before February 17, 2006, and subject to section 141; or

(2) Refunding bonds that are sold on or after February 17, 2006, and subject to section 141.

(i) Permissive application of certain regulations relating to output facilities. Issuers may apply each of the following sections to any bonds used to finance output facilities:

(1) Section 1.141-6;

(2) Section 1.141-7(f)(3); and

(3) Section 1.141-7(g).

(j) Effective dates for certain regulations relating to refundings. Except as otherwise provided in this section, §§ 1.141-13, 1.145-2(d), 1.149(d)-1(g), 1.150-1(a)(3) and 1.150-1(c)(3)(ii) apply to bonds that are sold on or after February 17, 2006, and that are subject to the 1997 regulations (defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section).

(k) Effective/applicability dates for certain regulations relating to generally applicable taxes and payments in lieu of tax—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (k)(2) and (k)(3) of this section, revised §§ 1.141-4(e)(2), 1.141-4(e)(3) and 1.141-4(e)(5) apply to bonds sold on or after October 24, 2008 that are otherwise subject to the 1997 Regulations (defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section).

(2) Transitional rule for certain refundings. Paragraph (k)(1) does not apply to bonds that are issued to refund bonds if—

(i) Either—

(A) The refunded bonds (or the original bonds in a series of refundings) were sold before October 24, 2008, or

(B) The refunded bonds (or the original bonds in a series of refundings) satisfied the transitional rule for projects substantially in progress under paragraph (k)(3) of this section; and

(ii) The weighted average maturity of the refunding bonds does not exceed the remaining weighted average maturity of the refunded bonds.

(3) Transitional rule for certain projects substantially in progress. Paragraph (k)(1) of this section does not apply to bonds issued for projects for which all of the following requirements are met:

(i) A governmental person (as defined in § 1.141-1) took official action evidencing its preliminary approval of the project before October 19, 2006, and the plan of finance for the project in place at that time contemplated financing the project with tax-exempt bonds to be paid or secured by PILOTs.

(ii) Before October 19, 2006, significant expenditures were paid or incurred with respect to the project or a contract was entered into to pay or incur significant expenditures with respect to the project.

(iii) The bonds for the project (excluding refunding bonds) are issued on or before December 31, 2009.

(l) Applicability date for certain regulations relating to allocation and accounting—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this section, §§ 1.141-1(e), 1.141-3(g)(2)(v), 1.141-6, 1.141-13(d), and 1.145-2(b)(4), (b)(5), and (c)(2) apply to bonds that are sold on or after January 25, 2016, and to which the 1997 regulations (as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section) apply.

(2) Refunding bonds. Except as otherwise provided in this section, §§ 1.141-1(e), 1.141-3(g)(2)(v), 1.141-6, and 1.145-2(b)(4), (5), and (c)(2) do not apply to any bonds sold on or after January 25, 2016, to refund a bond to which these sections do not apply, provided that the weighted average maturity of the refunding bonds is no longer than—

(i) The remaining weighted average maturity of the refunded bonds; or

(ii) In the case of a short-term obligation that the issuer reasonably expects to refund with a long-term financing (such as a bond anticipation note), 120 percent of the weighted average reasonably expected economic life of the facilities financed.

(3) Permissive application. Except as otherwise provided in this section, issuers may apply §§ 1.141-1(e), 1.141-3(g)(2)(v), 1.141-6, and 1.145-2(b)(4), (b)(5), and (c)(2), in whole but not in part, to bonds to which the 1997 regulations apply.

(m) Permissive retroactive application of certain regulations. Issuers may apply § 1.141-13(d) to bonds to which § 1.141-13 applies.

(n) Effective/applicability dates for certain regulations relating to certain definitions. § 1.141-1(a) applies to bonds that are sold on or after October 17, 2016.

[T.D. 8757, 63 FR 3265, Jan. 22, 1998, as amended by T.D. 8941, 66 FR 4670, Jan. 18, 2001; T.D. 8967, 66 FR 58062, Nov. 20, 2001; T.D. 9016, 67 FR 59765, Sept. 23, 2002; T.D. 9085, 68 FR 45775, Aug. 4, 2003; T.D. 9234, 70 FR 75035, Dec. 19, 2005; 71 FR 1971, Jan. 12, 2006; T.D. 9429, 73 FR 63375, Oct. 24, 2008; T.D. 9741, 80 FR 65645, Oct. 27, 2015; 80 FR 74678, Nov. 30, 2015; T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46592, July 18, 2016]

§ 1.141-16 Effective dates for qualified private activity bond provisions.

(a) Scope. The effective dates of this section apply for purposes of §§ 1.142-0 through 1.142-2, 1.144-0 through 1.144-2, 1.147-0 through 1.147-2, and 1.150-4.

(b) Effective dates. Except as otherwise provided in this section, the regulations designated in paragraph (a) of this section apply to bonds issued on or after May 16, 1997 (the effective date).

(c) Permissive application. The regulations designated in paragraph (a) of this section may be applied by issuers in whole, but not in part, to bonds outstanding on the effective date. For this purpose, issuers may apply § 1.142-2 without regard to paragraph (c)(3) thereof to failures to properly use proceeds that occur on or after April 21, 2003.

(d) Certain remedial actions—(1) General rule. The provisions of § 1.142-2(e) apply to failures to properly use proceeds that occur on or after August 13, 2004 and may be applied by issuers to failures to properly use proceeds that occur on or after May 14, 2004, provided that the bonds are subject to § 1.142-2.

(2) Special rule for allocations of nonqualified bonds. For purposes of § 1.142-2(e)(2), in addition to the allocation methods permitted in § 1.142-2(e)(2), an issuer may treat bonds with the longest maturities (determined on a bond-by-bond basis) as the nonqualified bonds, but only with respect to failures to properly use proceeds that occur on or after May 14, 2004, with respect to bonds sold before August 13, 2004.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2302, Jan. 16, 1997, as amended by T.D. 9150, 69 FR 50066, Aug. 13, 2004]

§ 1.142-0 Table of contents.

This section lists the captioned paragraphs contained in §§ 1.142-1 through 1.142-3.

§ 1.142-1 Exempt facility bonds.

(a) Overview.

(b) Scope.

(c) Effective dates.

§ 1.142-2 Remedial actions.

(a) General rule.

(b) Reasonable expectations requirement.

(c) Redemption or defeasance.

(1) In general.

(2) Notice of defeasance.

(3) Special limitation.

(4) Special rule for dispositions of personal property.

(5) Definitions.

(d) When a failure to properly use proceeds occurs.

(1) Proceeds not spent.

(2) Proceeds spent.

(e) Nonqualified bonds.

(1) Amount of nonqualified bonds.

(2) Allocation of nonqualified bonds.

§ 1.142-3 Refunding issues. [Reserved]

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2302, Jan. 16, 1997, as amended by T.D. 9150, 69 FR 50066, Aug. 13, 2004]

§ 1.142-1 Exempt facility bonds.

(a) Overview. Interest on a private activity bond is not excludable from gross income under section 103(a) unless the bond is a qualified bond. Under section 141(e)(1)(A), an exempt facility bond issued under section 142 may be a qualified bond.

Under section 142(a), an exempt facility bond is any bond issued as a part of an issue using 95 percent or more of the proceeds for certain exempt facilities.

(b) Scope. Sections 1.142-0 through 1.142-3 apply for purposes of the rules for exempt facility bonds under section 142, except that, with respect to net proceeds that have been spent, § 1.142-2 does not apply to bonds issued under section 142(d) (relating to bonds issued to provide qualified residential rental projects) and section 142(f) (2) and (4) (relating to bonds issued to provide local furnishing of electric energy or gas).

(c) Effective dates. For effective dates of §§ 1.142-0 through 1.142-2, see § 1.141-16.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2302, Jan. 16, 1997]

§ 1.142-2 Remedial actions.

(a) General rule. If less than 95 percent of the net proceeds of an exempt facility bond are actually used to provide an exempt facility, and for no other purpose, the issue will be treated as meeting the use of proceeds requirement of section 142(a) if the issue meets the condition of paragraph (b) of this section and the issuer takes the remedial action described in paragraph (c) of this section.

(b) Reasonable expectations requirement. The issuer must have reasonably expected on the issue date that 95 percent of the net proceeds of the issue would be used to provide an exempt facility and for no other purpose for the entire term of the bonds (disregarding any redemption provisions). To meet this condition the amount of the issue must have been based on reasonable estimates about the cost of the facility.

(c) Redemption or defeasance—(1) In general. The requirements of this paragraph (c) are met if all of the nonqualified bonds of the issue are redeemed on the earliest call date after the date on which the failure to properly use the proceeds occurs under paragraph (d) of this section. Proceeds of tax-exempt bonds (other than those described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section) must not be used for this purpose. If the bonds are not redeemed within 90 days of the date on which the failure to properly use proceeds occurs, a defeasance escrow must be established for those bonds within 90 days of that date.

(2) Notice of defeasance. The issuer must provide written notice to the Commissioner of the establishment of the defeasance escrow within 90 days of the date the escrow is established.

(3) Special limitation. The establishment of a defeasance escrow does not satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (c) if the period between the issue date and the first call date is more than 10 1/2 years.

(4) Special rule for dispositions of personal property. For dispositions of personal property exclusively for cash, the requirements of this paragraph (c) are met if the issuer expends the disposition proceeds within 6 months of the date of the disposition to acquire replacement property for the same qualifying purpose of the issue under section 142.

(5) Definitions. For purposes of paragraph (c)(4) of this section, disposition proceeds means disposition proceeds as defined in § 1.141-12(c).

(d) When a failure to properly use proceeds occurs—(1) Proceeds not spent. For net proceeds that are not spent, a failure to properly use proceeds occurs on the earlier of the date on which the issuer reasonably determines that the financed facility will not be completed or the date on which the financed facility is placed in service.

(2) Proceeds spent. For net proceeds that are spent, a failure to properly use proceeds occurs on the date on which an action is taken that causes the bonds not to be used for the qualifying purpose for which the bonds were issued.

(e) Nonqualified bonds—(1) Amount of nonqualified bonds. For purposes of this section, the nonqualified bonds are a portion of the outstanding bonds in an amount that, if the remaining bonds were issued on the date on which the failure to properly use the proceeds occurs, at least 95 percent of the net proceeds of the remaining bonds would be used to provide an exempt facility. If no proceeds have been spent to provide an exempt facility, all of the outstanding bonds are nonqualified bonds.

(2) Allocation of nonqualified bonds. Allocations of nonqualified bonds must be made on a pro rata basis, except that an issuer may treat any bonds of an issue as the nonqualified bonds so long as—

(i) The remaining weighted average maturity of the issue, determined as of the date on which the nonqualified bonds are redeemed or defeased (determination date), and excluding from the determination the nonqualified bonds redeemed or defeased by the issuer to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section, is not greater than

(ii) The remaining weighted average maturity of the issue, determined as of the determination date, but without regard to the redemption or defeasance of any bonds (including the nonqualified bonds) occurring on the determination date.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2302, Jan. 16, 1997, as amended by T.D. 9150, 69 FR 50067, Aug. 13, 2004]

§ 1.142-3 Refunding Issues. [Reserved]

§ 1.142-4 Use of proceeds to provide a facility.

(a) In general. [Reserved]

(b) Reimbursement allocations. If an expenditure for a facility is paid before the issue date of the bonds to provide that facility, the facility is described in section 142(a) only if the expenditure meets the requirements of § 1.150-2 (relating to reimbursement allocations). For purposes of this paragraph (b), if the proceeds of an issue are used to pay principal of or interest on an obligation other than a State or local bond (for example, temporary construction financing of the conduit borrower), that issue is not a refunding issue, and, thus, § 1.150-2(g) does not apply.

(c) Limitation on use of facilities by substantial users—(1) In general. If the original use of a facility begins before the issue date of the bonds to provide the facility, the facility is not described in section 142(a) if any person that was a substantial user of the facility at any time during the 5-year period before the issue date or any related person to that user receives (directly or indirectly) 5 percent or more of the proceeds of the issue for the user's interest in the facility and is a substantial user of the facility at any time during the 5-year period after the issue date, unless—

(i) An official intent for the facility is adopted under § 1.150-2 within 60 days after the date on which acquisition, construction, or reconstruction of that facility commenced; and

(ii) For an acquisition, no person that is a substantial user or related person after the acquisition date was also a substantial user more than 60 days before the date on which the official intent was adopted.

(2) Definitions. For purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, substantial user has the meaning used in section 147(a)(1), related person has the meaning used in section 144(a)(3), and a user that is a governmental unit within the meaning of § 1.103-1 is disregarded.

(d) Effective date—(1) In general. This section applies to bonds sold on or after July 8, 1997. See § 1.103-8(a)(5) for rules applicable to bonds sold before that date.

(2) Elective retroactive application. An issuer may apply this section to any bond sold before July 8, 1997.

[T.D. 8718, 62 FR 25506, May 9, 1997]

§ 1.142(a)(5)-1 Exempt facility bonds: Sewage facilities.

(a) In general. Under section 103(a), a private activity bond is a tax-exempt bond only if it is a qualified bond. A qualified bond includes an exempt facility bond, defined as any bond issued as part of an issue 95 percent or more of the net proceeds of which are used to provide a facility specified in section 142. One type of facility specified in section 142(a) is a sewage facility. This section defines the term sewage facility for purposes of section 142(a).

(b) Definitions—(1) Sewage facility defined. A sewage facility is property—

(i) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) and (d) of this section, used for the secondary treatment of wastewater; however, for property treating wastewater reasonably expected to have an average daily raw wasteload concentration of biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) that exceeds 350 milligrams per liter as oxygen (measured at the time the influent enters the facility) (the BOD limit), this paragraph (b)(1)(i) applies only to the extent the treatment is for wastewater having an average daily raw wasteload concentration of BOD that does not exceed the BOD limit;

(ii) Used for the preliminary and/or primary treatment of wastewater but only to the extent used in connection with secondary treatment (without regard to the BOD limit described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section);

(iii) Used for the advanced or tertiary treatment of wastewater but only to the extent used in connection with and after secondary treatment;

(iv) Used for the collection, storage, use, processing, or final disposal of—

(A) Wastewater, which property is necessary for such preliminary, primary, secondary, advanced, or tertiary treatment; or

(B) Sewage sludge removed during such preliminary, primary, secondary, advanced, or tertiary treatment (without regard to the BOD limit described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section);

(v) Used for the treatment, collection, storage, use, processing, or final disposal of septage (without regard to the BOD limit described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section); and

(vi) Functionally related and subordinate to property described in this paragraph (b)(1), such as sewage disinfection property.

(2) Special rules and exceptions—(i) Exception to BOD limit. A facility treating wastewater with an average daily raw wasteload concentration of BOD exceeding the BOD limit will not fail to qualify as a sewage facility described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section to the extent that the failure to satisfy the BOD limit results from the implementation of a federal, state, or local water conservation program (for example, a program designed to promote water use efficiency that results in BOD concentrations beyond the BOD limit).

(ii) Anti-abuse rule for BOD limit. A facility does not satisfy the BOD limit if there is any intentional manipulation of the BOD level to circumvent the BOD limit (for example, increasing the volume of water in the wastewater before the influent enters the facility with the intention of reducing the BOD level).

(iii) Authority of Commissioner. In appropriate cases upon application to the Commissioner, the Commissioner may determine that facilities employing technologically advanced or innovative treatment processes qualify as sewage facilities if it is demonstrated that these facilities perform functions that are consistent with the definition of sewage facilities described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

(3) Other applicable definitions—(i) Advanced or tertiary treatment means the treatment of wastewater after secondary treatment. Advanced or tertiary treatment ranges from biological treatment extensions to physical-chemical separation techniques such as denitrification, ammonia stripping, carbon adsorption, and chemical precipitation.

(ii) Nonconventional pollutants are any pollutants that are not listed in 40 CFR 401.15, 401.16, or appendix A to part 423.

(iii) Preliminary treatment means treatment that removes large extraneous matter from incoming wastewater and renders the incoming wastewater more amenable to subsequent treatment and handling.

(iv) Pretreatment means a process that preconditions wastewater to neutralize or remove toxic, priority, or nonconventional pollutants that could adversely affect sewers or inhibit a preliminary, primary, secondary, advanced, or tertiary treatment operation.

(v) Primary treatment means treatment that removes material that floats or will settle, usually by screens or settling tanks.

(vi) Priority pollutants are those pollutants listed in appendix A to 40 CFR part 423.

(vii) Secondary treatment means the stage in sewage treatment in which a bacterial process (or an equivalent process) consumes the organic parts of wastes, usually by trickling filters or an activated sludge process.

(viii) Sewage sludge is defined in 40 CFR 122.2 and includes septage.

(ix) Toxic pollutants are those pollutants listed in 40 CFR 401.15.

(c) Other property not included in the definition of a sewage facility. Property other than property described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is not a sewage facility. Thus, for example, property is not a sewage facility, or functionally related and subordinate property, if the property is used for pretreatment of wastewater (whether or not this treatment is necessary to perform preliminary, primary, secondary, advanced, or tertiary treatment), or the related collection, storage, use, processing, or final disposal of the wastewater. In addition, property used to treat, process, or use wastewater subsequent to the time the wastewater can be discharged into navigable waters, as defined in 33 U.S.C. 1362, is not a sewage facility.

(d) Allocation of costs. In the case of property that has both a use described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section (a sewage treatment function) and a use other than sewage treatment, only the portion of the cost of the property allocable to the sewage treatment function is taken into account as an expenditure to provide sewage facilities. The portion of the cost of property allocable to the sewage treatment function is determined by allocating the cost of that property between the property's sewage treatment function and any other uses by any method which, based on all the facts and circumstances, reasonably reflects a separation of costs for each use of the property.

(e) Effective date—(1) In general. This section applies to issues of bonds issued after February 21, 1995.

(2) Refundings. In the case of a refunding bond issued to refund a bond to which this section does not apply, the issuer need not apply this section to that refunding bond. This paragraph (e)(2) applies only if the weighted average maturity of the refunding bonds, as described in section 147(b), is not greater than the remaining weighted average maturity of the refunded bonds.

[T.D. 8576, 59 FR 66163, Dec. 23, 1994, as amended by T.D. 9546, Aug. 19, 2011]

§ 1.142(a)(6)-1 Exempt facility bonds: solid waste disposal facilities.

(a) In general. This section defines the term solid waste disposal facility for purposes of section 142(a)(6).

(b) Solid waste disposal facility. The term solid waste disposal facility means a facility to the extent that the facility—

(1) Processes solid waste (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) in a qualified solid waste disposal process (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section);

(2) Performs a preliminary function (as defined in paragraph (f) of this section); or

(3) Is functionally related and subordinate (within the meaning of § 1.103-8(a)(3)) to a facility described in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section.

(c) Solid waste—(1) In general. Except to the extent excluded under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, for purposes of section 142(a)(6), the term solid waste means garbage, refuse, and other solid material derived from any agricultural, commercial, consumer, governmental, or industrial operation or activity if the material meets the requirements of both paragraph (c)(1)(i) and paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. For purposes of this section, material is solid if it is solid at ambient temperature and pressure.

(i) Used material or residual material. Material meets the requirements of this paragraph (c)(1)(i) if it is either used material (as defined in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A)) of this section or residual material (as defined in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section).

(A) Used material. The term used material means any material that is a product of any agricultural, commercial, consumer, governmental, or industrial operation or activity, or a component of any such product or activity, and that has been used previously. Used material also includes animal waste produced by animals from a biological process.

(B) Residual material. The term residual material means material that meets the requirements of this paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B). The material must be a residual byproduct or excess raw material that results from or remains after the completion of any agricultural, commercial, consumer, governmental, or industrial production process or activity or from the provision of any service. In the case of multiple processes constituting an integrated manufacturing or industrial process, the material must result from or remain after the completion of such integrated process. As of the issue date of the bonds used to finance the solid waste disposal facility, the material must be reasonably expected to have a fair market value that is lower than the value of all of the products made in that production process or lower than the value of the service that produces such residual material.

(ii) Reasonably expected introduction into a qualified solid waste disposal process. Material meets the requirements of this paragraph (c)(1)(ii) if it is reasonably expected by the person who generates, purchases, or otherwise acquires it to be introduced within a reasonable time after such generation, purchase or acquisition into a qualified solid waste disposal process described in paragraph (d) of this section.

(2) Exclusions from solid waste. The following materials do not constitute solid waste:

(i) Virgin material. Except to the extent that virgin material constitutes an input to a final disposal process or residual material, solid waste excludes any virgin material. The term virgin material means material that has not been processed into an agricultural, commercial, consumer, governmental, or industrial product, or a component of any such product. Further, for this purpose, material continues to be virgin material after it has been grown, harvested, mined, or otherwise extracted from its naturally occurring location and cleaned, divided into component elements, modified, or enhanced, as long as further processing is required before it becomes an agricultural, commercial, consumer, or industrial product, or a component of any such product.

(ii) Solids within liquids and liquid waste. Solid waste excludes any solid or dissolved material in domestic sewage or other significant pollutant in water resources, such as silt, dissolved or suspended solids in industrial waste water effluents, dissolved materials in irrigation return flows or other common water pollutants, and liquid or gaseous waste.

(iii) Precious metals. Except to the extent that a precious metal constitutes an input to a final disposal process and/or an unrecoverable trace of the particular precious metal, solid waste excludes gold, silver, ruthenium, rhodium, palladium, osmium, iridium, platinum, gallium, rhenium, and any other precious metal material as may be identified by the Internal Revenue Service in future public administrative guidance.

(iv) Hazardous material. Solid waste excludes any hazardous material that must be disposed of at a facility that is subject to final permit requirements under subtitle C of title II of the Solid Waste Disposal Act as in effect on the date of the enactment of the Tax Reform Act of 1986 (which is October 22, 1986). See section 142(h)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code for the definition of qualified hazardous waste facilities.

(v) Radioactive material. Solid waste excludes any radioactive material subject to regulation under the Nuclear Regulatory Act (10 CFR 1.1 et seq.), as in effect on the issue date of the bonds.

(d) Qualified solid waste disposal process. The term qualified solid waste disposal process means the processing of solid waste in a final disposal process (as defined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section), an energy conversion process (as defined in paragraph (d)(2) of this section), or a recycling process (as defined in paragraph (d)(3) of this section). Absent an express restriction to the contrary in this section, a qualified solid waste disposal process may employ any biological, engineering, industrial, or technological method.

(1) Final disposal process. The term final disposal process means the placement of solid waste in a landfill (including, for this purpose, the spreading of solid waste over land in an environmentally compliant and safe manner with no intent to remove such solid waste), the incineration of solid waste without capturing any useful energy, or the containment of solid waste with a reasonable expectation as of the date of issue of the bonds that the containment will continue indefinitely and that the solid waste has no current or future beneficial use.

(2) Energy conversion process. The term energy conversion process means a thermal, chemical, or other process that is applied to solid waste to create and capture synthesis gas, heat, hot water, steam, or other useful energy. The energy conversion process begins at the point of the first application of such process. The energy conversion process ends at the point at which the useful energy is first created, captured, or incorporated into the form of synthesis gas, heat, hot water, or other useful energy and before any transfer or distribution of such synthesis gas, heat, hot water or other useful energy, regardless of whether such synthesis gas, heat, hot water, or other useful energy constitutes a first useful product within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section.

(3) Recycling process—(i) In general. The term recycling process means reconstituting, transforming, or otherwise processing solid waste into a useful product. The recycling process begins at the point of the first application of a process to reconstitute or transform the solid waste into a useful product, such as decontamination, melting, re-pulping, shredding, or other processing of the solid waste to accomplish this purpose. The recycling process ends at the point of completion of production of the first useful product from the solid waste.

(ii) Refurbishment, repair, or similar activities. The term recycling process does not include refurbishment, repair, or similar activities. The term refurbishment means the breakdown and reassembly of a product if such activity is done on a product-by-product basis and if the finished product contains more than 30 percent of its original materials or components.

(e) First useful product. The term first useful product means the first product produced from the processing of solid waste in a solid waste disposal process that is useful for consumption in agricultural, consumer, commercial, governmental, or industrial operation or activity and that could be sold for such use, whether or not actually sold. A useful product includes both a product useful to an individual consumer as an ultimate end-use consumer product and a product useful to an industrial user as a material or input for processing in some stage of a manufacturing or production process to produce a different end-use consumer product. The determination of whether a useful product has been produced may take into account operational constraints that affect the point in production when a useful product reasonably can be extracted or isolated and sold independently. For this purpose, the costs of extracting, isolating, storing, and transporting the product to a market may only be taken into account as operational constraints if the product is not to be used as part of an integrated manufacturing or industrial process in the same location as that in which the product is produced.

(f) Preliminary function. A preliminary function is a function to collect, separate, sort, store, treat, process, disassemble, or handle solid waste that is preliminary to and directly related to a qualified solid waste disposal process.

(g) Mixed-use facilities—(1) In general. If a facility is used for both a qualified solid waste disposal function (including a qualified solid waste disposal process or a preliminary function) and a nonqualified function (a mixed-use facility), then the costs of the facility allocable to the qualified solid waste disposal function are determined using any reasonable method, based on all the facts and circumstances. See § 1.103-8(a)(1) for allocation rules on amounts properly allocable to an exempt facility. Facilities qualify as functionally related and subordinate to a qualified solid waste disposal function only to the extent that they are functionally related and subordinate to the portion of the mixed-use facility that is used for one or more qualified solid waste disposal functions (including a qualified solid waste disposal process or a preliminary function).

(2) Mixed inputs—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section, for each facility (or a portion of a mixed-use facility) performing a qualified solid waste disposal process or a preliminary function, the percentage of the costs of the property used for such process that are allocable to a qualified solid waste disposal process or a preliminary function cannot exceed the average annual percentage of solid waste processed in that qualified solid waste disposal process or that preliminary function while the issue is outstanding. The annual percentage of solid waste processed in that qualified solid waste disposal process or preliminary function for any year is the percentage, by weight or volume, of the total materials processed in that qualified solid waste disposal process or preliminary function that constitute solid waste for that year.

(ii) Special rule for mixed-input processes if at least 65 percent of the materials processed are solid waste—(A) In general. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (g)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, for each facility (or a portion of a mixed-use facility) performing a qualified solid waste disposal process or preliminary function, if the annual percentage of solid waste processed in that qualified solid waste disposal process or preliminary function for each year that the issue is outstanding (beginning with the date such facility is placed in service within the meaning of § 1.150-2(c)) equals at least 65 percent of the materials processed in that qualified solid waste disposal process or preliminary function, then all of the costs of the property used for such process are treated as allocable to a qualified solid waste disposal process. The annual percentage of solid waste processed in such qualified solid waste disposal process or preliminary function for any year is the percentage, by weight or volume, of the total materials processed in that qualified solid waste disposal process or preliminary function that constitute solid waste for that year.

(B) Special rule for extraordinary events. In the case of an extraordinary event that is beyond the control of the operator of a solid waste disposal facility (such as a natural disaster, strike, major utility disruption, or governmental intervention) and that causes a solid waste disposal facility to be unable to meet the 65 percent test under paragraph (g)(2)(ii)(A) of this section for a particular year, the percentage of solid waste processed for that year equals—

(1) The sum of the amount of solid waste processed in the solid waste disposal facility for the year affected by the extraordinary event and the amount of solid waste processed in the solid waste disposal facility during the following two years in excess of the amount required to meet the general 65 percent threshold for the facility during each of such two years; divided by

(2) The total materials processed in the solid waste disposal facility during the year affected by the extraordinary event. If the resulting measure of solid waste processed for the year affected by the extraordinary event equals at least 65 percent, then the facility is treated as meeting the requirements of the 65 percent test under paragraph (g)(2)(ii)(A) of this section for such year.

(iii) Facilities functionally related and subordinate to mixed-input facilities. Except to the extent that facilities are functionally related and subordinate to a mixed-input facility that meets the 65 percent test under paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section, facilities qualify as functionally related and subordinate to a mixed-input facility only to the extent that they are functionally related and subordinate to the qualified portion of the mixed-input facility that is used for one or more qualified solid waste disposal functions (including a qualified solid waste disposal process or a preliminary function).

(h) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this section:

Example 1. Nonqualified Unused Material—Cloth.

Company A takes wool and weaves it into cloth and then sells the cloth to a manufacturer to manufacture clothing. The cloth is material that has not been used previously as a product of or otherwise used in an agricultural, commercial, consumer, governmental, or industrial operation or activity, or as a component of any such product or activity. Accordingly, the cloth is not solid waste.

Example 2. Residual Material—Waste Coal.

Company B mines coal. Some of the ore mined is a low quality byproduct of coal mining commonly known as waste coal, which cannot be converted to energy under a normal energy-production process because the BTU content is too low. Waste coal has the lowest fair market value of any product produced in Company B's coal mining process. Waste coal is solid waste because it is residual material within the meaning of paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section and Company B reasonably expects to introduce the waste coal into a solid waste disposal process.

Example 3. Virgin Material—Logs.

Company C cuts down trees and sells the logs to another company, which further processes the logs into lumber. In order to facilitate shipping, Company C cuts the trees into uniform logs. The trees are not solid waste because they are virgin material within the meaning of paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section that are not being introduced into a final disposal process within the meaning of paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The division of such trees into uniform logs does not change the status of the trees as virgin material.

Example 4. Qualified Solid Waste Disposal Process—Landfill.

Company D plans to construct a landfill. The landfill will not be subject to the final permit requirements under subtitle C of title II of the Solid Waste Disposal Act (as in effect on the date of enactment of the Tax Reform Act of 1986). As of the issue date, Company D expects that the landfill will be filled entirely with material that will qualify as solid waste within the meaning of paragraph (c) of this section. Placing solid waste into a landfill is a qualified solid waste disposal process. The landfill is a qualified solid waste disposal facility.

Example 5. Qualified Solid Waste Disposal Process—Recycling Tires.

Company E owns a facility that converts used tires into roadbed material. The used tires are used material within the meaning of paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section that qualifies as solid waste. Between the introduction of the old tires into the roadbed manufacturing process and the completion of the roadbed material, the facility does not create any interim useful products. The process for the manufacturing of the roadbed material from the old tires is a qualified solid waste disposal process as a recycling process and the facility that converts the tires into roadbed material is a qualified solid waste disposal facility. This conclusion would be the same if the recycling process took place at more than one plant.

Example 6. Qualified Solid Waste Disposal Process—Energy Conversion Process.

Company F receives solid waste from a municipal garbage collector. Company F burns that solid waste in an incinerator to remove exhaust gas and to produce heat. Company F further processes the heat in a heat exchanger to produce steam. Company F further processes the steam to generate electricity. The energy conversion process ends with the production of steam. The facilities used to burn the solid waste and to capture the steam as useful energy are qualified solid waste disposal facilities because they process solid waste in an energy conversion process. The generating facilities used to process the steam further to generate electricity are not engaged in the energy conversion process and are not qualified solid waste disposal facilities.

Example 7. Nonqualified Refurbishment.

Company G purchases used cars and restores them. This restoration process includes disassembly, cleaning, and repairing of the cars. Parts that cannot be repaired are replaced. The restored cars contain at least 30 percent of the original parts. While the cars are used material, the refurbishing process is not a qualified solid waste disposal process. Accordingly, Company G's facility is not a qualified solid waste disposal facility.

Example 8. Qualified Solid Waste Disposal Facility—First Useful Product Rule—Paper Recycling.

(i) Company H employs an integrated process to re-pulp discarded magazines, clean the pulp, and produce retail paper towel products. Operational constraints on Company H's process do not allow for reasonable extraction, isolation, and sale of the cleaned paper pulp independently without degradation of the pulp. Company H further processes the paper pulp into large industrial-sized rolls of paper which are approximately 12 feet in diameter. At this point in the process, Company H could either sell such industrial-sized rolls of paper to another company for further processing to produce retail paper products or it could produce those retail products itself. In general, paper pulp is a useful product that is bought and sold on the market as a material for input into manufacturing or production processes. The discarded magazines are used material within the meaning of paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section. Company H's facility is engaged in a recycling process within the meaning of paragraph (d)(3) of this section to the extent that it repulps and cleans the discarded magazines generally and further to the extent that it produces industrial-sized rolls of paper under the particular circumstances here. Specifically, taking into account the operational constraints on Company H's facility that limit its ability reasonably to extract, isolate, and sell the paper pulp independently, the first useful products within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section from Company H's recycling process are the industrial-sized rolls of paper. The portion of Company H's facility that processes the discarded magazines and produces industrial-sized rolls of paper is a qualified solid waste disposal facility, and the portion of Company H's facility that further processes the industrial-sized rolls of paper into retail paper towels is not a qualified solid waste facility.

(ii) The facts are the same as in paragraph (i) of this Example 8, except that Company H is able reasonably to extract the cleaned paper pulp from the process without degradation of the pulp and to sell the cleaned paper pulp at its dock for a price that exceeds its costs of extracting the pulp from the process. Therefore, the paper pulp is the first useful product within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section. As a result, the portion of Company H's facility that processes the discarded magazines is a qualified solid waste disposal facility, and the portion of Company H's facility that produces industrial-sized rolls of paper is not a qualified solid waste disposal facility. If, however, the only reasonable way Company H could sell the pulp was to transport the pulp to a distant market, then the costs of storing and transporting the pulp to the market may be taken into account in determining whether the pulp is the first useful product.

Example 9. Preliminary Function—Energy Conversion Process.

(i) Company I owns a paper mill. At the mill, logs from nearby timber operations are processed through a machine that removes bark. The stripped logs are used to manufacture paper. The stripped bark has the lowest fair market value of any product produced from the paper mill. The stripped bark falls onto a conveyor belt that transports the bark to a storage bin that is used to store the bark briefly until Company I feeds the bark into a boiler. The conveyor belt and storage bin are used only for these purposes. The boiler is used only to create steam by burning the bark, and the steam is used to generate electricity. The stripped bark is solid waste because it is residual material within the meaning of paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section and Company I expects to introduce the bark into an energy conversion process within a reasonable period of time. The creation of steam from the stripped bark is an energy conversion process that starts with the incineration of the stripped bark. The energy conversion process is a qualified solid waste disposal process. The conveyor belt performs a collection activity that is preliminary and that is directly related to the solid waste disposal function. The storage bin performs a storage function that is preliminary and that is directly related to the solid waste disposal function. Thus, the conveyor belt and storage bin are solid waste disposal facilities. The bark removal process is not a preliminary function because it is not directly related to the energy conversion process and it does not become so related merely because it results in material that is solid waste.

(ii) The facts are the same as in paragraph (i) of this Example 9, except that the stripped bark represents only 55 percent by weight and volume of the materials that are transported by the conveyor belt. The remaining 45 percent of the materials transported by the conveyor belt are not solid waste and these other materials are sorted from the conveyor belt by a sorting machine immediately before the stripped bark arrives at the storage bin. Fifty-five percent of the costs of the conveyor belt and the sorting machine are allocable to solid waste disposal functions.

Example 10. Preliminary Function—Final Disposal Process.

Company J owns a waste transfer station and uses it to collect, sort, and process solid waste. Company J uses its trucks to haul the solid waste to the nearest landfill. At least 65 percent by weight and volume of the material brought to the transfer station is solid waste. The waste transfer station and the trucks perform functions that are preliminary and directly related to the solid waste disposal function of the landfill. Thus, the waste transfer station and the trucks qualify as solid waste disposal facilities.

Example 11. Mixed-Input Facility.

Company K owns an incinerator financed by an issue and uses the incinerator exclusively to burn coal and other solid material to create steam. Each year while the issue is outstanding, 40 percent by volume and 45 percent by weight of the solid material that Company K processes in the conversion process is coal. The remainder of the solid material is either used material or residual material within the meaning of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section. Sixty percent of the costs of the property used to perform the energy conversion process are allocable to a solid waste disposal function.

(i) Effective/Applicability Dates—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (i), this section applies to bonds to which section 142 applies that are sold on or after October 18, 2011.

(2) Elective retroactive application. Issuers may apply this section, in whole, but not in part, to outstanding bonds to which section 142 applies and which were sold before October 18, 2011.

(3) Certain refunding bonds. An issuer need not apply this section to bonds that are issued in a current refunding to refund bonds to which this section does not apply if the weighted average maturity of the refunding bonds is no longer than the remaining weighted average maturity of the refunded bonds.

[T.D. 9546, 76 FR 51881, Aug. 19, 2011; 76 FR 55255, Sept. 7, 2011]

§ 1.142(f)(4)-1 Manner of making election to terminate tax-exempt bond financing.

(a) Overview. Section 142(f)(4) permits a person engaged in the local furnishing of electric energy or gas (a local furnisher) that uses facilities financed with exempt facility bonds under section 142(a)(8) and that expands its service area in a manner inconsistent with the requirements of sections 142(a)(8) and (f) to make an election to ensure that those bonds will continue to be treated as exempt facility bonds. The election must meet the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.

(b) Time for making election—(1) In general. An election under section 142(f)(4)(B) must be filed with the Internal Revenue Service on or before 90 days after the date of the service area expansion that causes bonds to cease to meet the requirements of sections 142(a)(8) and (f).

(2) Date of service area expansion. For the purposes of this section, the date of the service area expansion is the first date on which the local furnisher is authorized to collect revenue for the provision of service in the expanded area.

(c) Manner of making election. An election under section 142(f)(4)(B) must be captioned “ELECTION TO TERMINATE TAX-EXEMPT BOND FINANCING”, must be signed under penalties of perjury by a person who has authority to sign on behalf of the local furnisher, and must contain the following information—

(1) The name of the local furnisher;

(2) The tax identification number of the local furnisher;

(3) The complete address of the local furnisher;

(4) The date of the service area expansion;

(5) Identification of each bond issue subject to the election, including the complete name of each issue, the tax identification number of each issuer, the report number of the information return filed under section 149(e) for each issue, the issue date of each issue, the CUSIP number (if any) of the bond with the latest maturity of each issue, the issue price of each issue, the adjusted issue price of each issue as of the date of the election, the earliest date on which the bonds of each issue may be redeemed, and the principal amount of bonds of each issue to be redeemed on the earliest redemption date;

(6) A statement that the local furnisher making the election agrees to the conditions stated in section 142(f)(4)(B); and

(7) A statement that each issuer of the bonds subject to the election has received written notice of the election.

(d) Effect on section 150(b). Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, if a local furnisher files an election within the period specified in paragraph (b) of this section, section 150(b) does not apply to bonds identified in the election during and after that period.

(e) Effect of failure to meet agreements. If a local furnisher fails to meet any of the conditions stated in an election pursuant to paragraph (c)(6) of this section, the election is invalid.

(f) Corresponding provisions of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. Section 103(b)(4)(E) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 set forth corresponding requirements for the exclusion from gross income of the interest on bonds issued for facilities for the local furnishing of electric energy or gas. For the purposes of this section any reference to sections 142(a)(8) and (f) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 includes a reference to the corresponding portion of section 103(b)(4)(E) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.

(g) Effective dates. This section applies to elections made on or after January 19, 2001.

[T.D. 8941, 66 FR 4671, Jan. 18, 2001]

§ 1.143(g)-1 Requirements related to arbitrage.

(a) In general. Under section 143, for an issue to be an issue of qualified mortgage bonds or qualified veterans' mortgage bonds (together, mortgage revenue bonds), the requirements of section 143(g) must be satisfied. An issue satisfies the requirements of section 143(g) only if such issue meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section and, in the case of an issue 95 percent or more of the net proceeds of which are to be used to provide residences for veterans, such issue also meets the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section. The requirements of section 143(g) and this section are applicable in addition to the requirements of section 148 and §§ 1.148-0 through 1.148-11.

(b) Effective rate of mortgage interest not to exceed bond yield by more than 1.125 percentage points—(1) Maximum yield. An issue shall be treated as meeting the requirements of this paragraph (b) only if the excess of the effective rate of interest on the mortgages financed by the issue, over the yield on the issue, is not greater over the term of the issue than 1.125 percentage points.

(2) Effective rate of interest. (i) In determining the effective rate of interest on any mortgage for purposes of this paragraph (b), there shall be taken into account all fees, charges, and other amounts borne by the mortgagor that are attributable to the mortgage or to the bond issue. Such amounts include points, commitment fees, origination fees, servicing fees, and prepayment penalties paid by the mortgagor.

(ii) Items that shall be treated as borne by the mortgagor and shall be taken into account in calculating the effective rate of interest also include—

(A) All points, commitment fees, origination fees, or similar charges borne by the seller of the property; and

(B) The excess of any amounts received from any person other than the mortgagor by any person in connection with the acquisition of the mortgagor's interest in the property over the usual and reasonable acquisition costs of a person acquiring like property when owner-financing is not provided through the use of mortgage revenue bonds.

(iii) The following items shall not be treated as borne by the mortgagor and shall not be taken into account in calculating the effective rate of interest—

(A) Any expected rebate of arbitrage profit under paragraph (c) of this section; and

(B) Any application fee, survey fee, credit report fee, insurance charge or similar settlement or financing cost to the extent such amount does not exceed amounts charged in the area in cases when owner-financing is not provided through the use of mortgage revenue bonds. For example, amounts paid for Federal Housing Administration, Veterans' Administration, or similar private mortgage insurance on an individual's mortgage, or amounts paid for pool mortgage insurance on a pool of mortgages, are not taken into account so long as such amounts do not exceed the amounts charged in the area with respect to a similar mortgage, or pool of mortgages, that is not financed with mortgage revenue bonds. For this purpose, amounts paid for pool mortgage insurance include amounts paid to an entity (for example, the Government National Mortgage Association, the Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA), the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, or other mortgage insurer) to directly guarantee the pool of mortgages financed with the bonds, or to guarantee a pass-through security backed by the pool of mortgages financed with the bonds.

(C) The following example illustrates the provisions of this paragraph (b)(2)(iii):

Example.

Housing Authority X issues bonds intended to be qualified mortgage bonds under section 143(a). At the time the bonds are issued, X enters into an agreement with a group of mortgage lending institutions (lenders) under which the lenders agree to originate and service mortgages that meet certain specified requirements. After originating a specified amount of mortgages, each lender issues a “pass-though security” (each, a PTS) backed by the mortgages and sells the PTS to X. Under the terms of the PTS, the lender pays X an amount equal to the regular monthly payments on the mortgages (less certain fees), whether or not received by the lender (plus any prepayments and liquidation proceeds in the event of a foreclosure or other disposition of any mortgages). FNMA guarantees the timely payment of principal and interest on each PTS. From the payments received from each mortgagor, the lender pays a fee to FNMA for its guarantee of the PTS. The amounts paid to FNMA do not exceed the amounts charged in the area with respect to a similar pool of mortgages that is not financed with mortgage revenue bonds. Under this paragraph (b)(2)(iii), the fees for the guarantee provided by FNMA are an insurance charge because the guarantee is pool mortgage insurance. Because the amounts charged for the guarantee do not exceed the amounts charged in the area with respect to a similar pool of mortgages that is not financed with mortgage revenue bonds, the amounts charged for the guarantee are not taken into account in computing the effective rate of interest on the mortgages financed with X's bonds.

(3) Additional rules. To the extent not inconsistent with the Tax Reform Act of 1986, Public Law 99-514 (the 1986 Act), or subsequent law, § 6a.103A-2(i)(2) (other than paragraphs (i)(2)(i) and (i)(2)(ii)(A) through (C)) of this chapter applies to provide additional rules relating to compliance with the requirement that the effective rate of mortgage interest not exceed the bond yield by more than 1.125 percentage points.

(c) Arbitrage and investment gains to be used to reduce costs of owner-financing. As provided in section 143(g)(3), certain earnings on nonpurpose investments must either be paid or credited to mortgagors, or paid to the United States, in certain circumstances. To the extent not inconsistent with the 1986 Act or subsequent law, § 6a.103A-2(i)(4) of this chapter applies to provide guidance relating to compliance with this requirement.

(d) Effective dates—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this section, § 1.143(g)-1 applies to bonds sold on or after May 23, 2005, that are subject to section 143.

(2) Permissive retroactive application in whole. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, issuers may apply § 1.143(g)-1, in whole, but not in part, to bonds sold before May 23, 2005, that are subject to section 143.

(3) Bonds subject to the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this section and subject to the applicable effective dates for the corresponding statutory provisions, an issuer may apply § 1.143(g)-1, in whole, but not in part, to bonds that are subject to section 103A(i) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.

(4) Special rule for pre-July 1, 1993 bonds. To the extent that an issuer applies this section to bonds issued before July 1, 1993, § 6a.103A-2(i)(3) of this chapter also applies to the bonds.

[T.D. 9204, 70 FR 29449, May 23, 2005]

§ 1.144-0 Table of contents.

This section lists the captioned paragraphs contained in §§ 1.144-1 and 1.144-2.

§ 1.144-1 Qualified small issue bonds, qualified student loan bonds, and qualified redevelopment bonds.

(a) Overview.

(b) Scope.

(c) Effective dates.

§ 1.144-2 Remedial actions.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2303, Jan. 16, 1997]

§ 1.144-1 Qualified small issue bonds, qualified student loan bonds, and qualified redevelopment bonds.

(a) Overview. Interest on a private activity bond is not excludable from gross income under section 103(a) unless the bond is a qualified bond. Under section 141(e)(1)(D), a qualified small issue bond issued under section 144(a) may be a qualified bond. Under section 144(a), any qualified small issue bond is any bond issued as a part of an issue 95 percent or more of the proceeds of which are to be used to provide certain manufacturing facilities or certain depreciable farm property and which meets other requirements. Under section 141(e)(1)(F) a qualified redevelopment bond issued under section 144(c) is a qualified bond. Under section 144(c), a qualified redevelopment bond is any bond issued as a part of an issue 95 percent or more of the net proceeds of which are to be used for one or more redevelopment purposes and which meets certain other requirements.

(b) Scope. Sections 1.144-0 through 1.144-2 apply for purposes of the rules for small issue bonds under section 144(a) and qualified redevelopment bonds under section 144(c), except that § 1.144-2 does not apply to the requirements for qualified small issue bonds under section 144(a)(4) (relating to the limitation on capital expenditures) or under section 144(a)(10) (relating to the aggregate limit of tax-exempt bonds per taxpayer).

(c) Effective dates. For effective dates of §§ 1.144-0 through 1.144-2, see § 1.141-16.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2303, Jan. 16, 1997]

§ 1.144-2 Remedial actions.

The remedial action rules of § 1.142-2 apply to qualified small issue bonds issued under section 144(a) and to qualified redevelopment bonds issued under section 144(c), for this purpose treating those bonds as exempt facility bonds and the qualifying purposes for those bonds as exempt facilities.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2303, Jan. 16, 1997]

§ 1.145-0 Table of contents.

This section lists the captioned paragraphs contained in §§ 1.145-1 and 1.145-2.

§ 1.145-1 Qualified 501(c)(3) bonds.

(a) Overview.

(b) Scope.

(c) Effective dates.

§ 1.145-2 Application of private activity bond regulations.

(a) In general.

(b) Modification of private business tests.

(c) Exceptions.

(1) Certain provisions relating to governmental programs.

(2) Costs of issuance.

(d) Issuance costs financed by prior issue.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2303, Jan. 16, 1997, as amended by T.D. 9234, 70 FR 75035, Dec. 19, 2005]

§ 1.145-1 Qualified 501(c)(3) bonds.

(a) Overview. Interest on a private activity bond is not excludable from gross income under section 103(a) unless the bond is a qualified bond. Under section 141(e)(1)(G), a qualified 501(c)(3) bond issued under section 145 is a qualified bond. Under section 145, a qualified 501(c)(3) bond is any bond issued as a part of an issue that satisfies the requirements of sections 145(a) through (d).

(b) Scope. Sections 1.145-0 through 1.145-2 apply for purposes of section 145(a).

(c) Effective dates. For effective dates of §§ 1.145-0 through 1.145-2, see § 1.141-15.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2303, Jan. 16, 1997]

§ 1.145-2 Application of private activity bond regulations.

(a) In general. Except as provided in this section, §§ 1.141-0 through 1.141-15 apply to section 145(a). For example, under this section, § 1.141-1, and § 1.141-2, an issue ceases to be an issue of qualified 501(c)(3) bonds if the issuer or a conduit borrower 501(c)(3) organization takes a deliberate action, subsequent to the issue date, that causes the issue to fail to comply with the requirements of sections 141(e) and 145 (such as an action that results in revocation of exempt status of the 501(c)(3) organization).

(b) Modification of private business tests. In applying §§ 1.141-0 through 1.141-15 to section 145(a)—

(1) References to governmental persons include 501(c)(3) organizations with respect to their activities that do not constitute unrelated trades or businesses under section 513(a);

(2) References to “10 percent” and “proceeds” in the context of the private business use test and the private security or payment test mean “5 percent” and “net proceeds”; and

(3) References to the private business use test in §§ 1.141-2 and 1.141-12 include the ownership test of section 145(a)(1).

(4) References to governmental bonds in § 1.141-6 mean qualified 501(c)(3) bonds.

(5) References to ownership by governmental persons in § 1.141-6 mean ownership by governmental persons or 501(c)(3) organizations.

(c) Exceptions—(1) Certain provisions relating to governmental programs. The following provisions do not apply to section 145: § 1.141-2(d)(4) (relating to the special rule for dispositions of personal property in the ordinary course of an established governmental program) and § 1.141-2(d)(5) (relating to the special rule for general obligation bond programs that finance a large number of separate purposes).

(2) Costs of issuance. Sections 1.141-3(g)(6) and 1.141-6(d) do not apply to the extent costs of issuance are allocated among the other purposes for which the proceeds are used or to portions of a project. For purposes of section 145(a)(2), costs of issuance are treated as private business use.

(d) Issuance costs financed by prior issue. Solely for purposes of applying the private business use test to a refunding issue under § 1.141-13, the use of proceeds of the prior issue (or any earlier issue in a series of refundings) to pay issuance costs of the prior issue (or the earlier issue) is treated as a government use.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2303, Jan. 16, 1997, as amended by T.D. 9234, 70 FR 75035, Dec. 19, 2005; T.D. 9741, 80 FR 65646, Oct. 27, 2015]

§ 1.147-0 Table of contents.

This section lists the captioned paragraphs contained in §§ 1.147-1 and 1.147-2.

§ 1.147-1 Other requirements applicable to certain private activity bonds.

(a) Overview.

(b) Scope.

(c) Effective dates.

§ 1.147-2 Remedial actions.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2304, Jan. 16, 1997]

§ 1.147-1 Other requirements applicable to certain private activity bonds.

(a) Overview. Interest on a private activity bond is not excludable from gross income under section 103(a) unless the bond is a qualified bond. Under section 147, certain requirements must be met for a private activity bond to qualify as a qualified bond.

(b) Scope. Sections 1.147-0 through 1.147-2 apply for purposes of the rules in section 147 for qualified private activity bonds that permit use of proceeds to acquire land for environmental purposes (section 147(c)(3)), permit use of proceeds for certain rehabilitations (section 147(d) (2) and (3)), prohibit use of proceeds to finance skyboxes, airplanes, gambling establishments and similar facilities (section 147(e)), and require public approval (section 147(f)), but not for the rules limiting use of proceeds to acquire land or existing property under sections 147(c) (1) and (2), and (d)(1).

(c) Effective dates. For effective dates of §§ 1.147-0 through 1.147-2, see § 1.141-16.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2304, Jan. 16, 1997]

§ 1.147-2 Remedial actions.

The remedial action rules of § 1.142-2 apply to the rules in section 147 for qualified private activity bonds that permit use of proceeds to acquire land for environmental purposes (section 147(c)(3)), permit use of proceeds for certain rehabilitations (section 147(d) (2) and (3)), prohibit use of proceeds to finance skyboxes, airplanes, gambling establishments and similar facilities (section 147(e)), and require public approval (section 147(f)), for this purpose treating those private activity bonds subject to the rules under section 147 as exempt facility bonds and the qualifying purposes for those bonds as exempt facilities.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2304, Jan. 16, 1997]

§ 1.147(b)-1 Bond maturity limitation-treatment of working capital.

Section 147(b) does not apply to proceeds of a private activity bond issue used to finance working capital expenditures.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33515, June 18, 1993]

§ 1.147(f)-1 Public approval of private activity bonds.

(a) In general. Interest on a private activity bond is excludable from gross income under section 103(a) only if the bond meets the requirements for a qualified bond as defined in section 141(e) and other applicable requirements provided in section 103. In order to be a qualified bond as defined in section 141(e), among other requirements, a private activity bond must meet the requirements of section 147(f). A private activity bond meets the requirements of section 147(f) only if the bond is publicly approved pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section or the bond qualifies for the exception for refunding bonds in section 147(f)(2)(D).

(b) Public approval requirement—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this section, a bond meets the requirements of section 147(f) if, before the issue date, the issue of which the bond is a part receives issuer approval and host approval (each a public approval) as defined in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section in accordance with the method and process set forth in paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section.

(2) Issuer approval. Except as otherwise provided in this section, issuer approval means an approval that meets the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2). Either the governmental unit that issues the issue or the governmental unit on behalf of which the issue is issued must approve the issue. For this purpose, § 1.103-1 applies to the determination of whether an issuer issues bonds on behalf of another governmental unit. If an issuer issues bonds on behalf of more than one governmental unit (for example, in the case of an authority that acts for two counties), any one of those governmental units may provide the issuer approval.

(3) Host approval. Except as otherwise provided in this section, host approval means an approval that meets the requirements of this paragraph (b)(3). Each governmental unit the geographic jurisdiction of which contains the site of a project to be financed by the issue must approve the issue. If, however, the entire site of a project to be financed by the issue is within the geographic jurisdiction of more than one governmental unit within a State (counting the State as a governmental unit within such State), then any one of those governmental units may provide host approval for the issue for that project. For purposes of the host approval, if a project to be financed by the issue is located within the geographic jurisdiction of two or more governmental units but not entirely within any one of those governmental units, each portion of the project that is located entirely within the geographic jurisdiction of the respective governmental units may be treated as a separate project. The issuer approval provided pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be treated as a host approval if the governmental unit providing the issuer approval is also a governmental unit eligible to provide the host approval pursuant to this section.

(4) Special rule for host approval of airports or high-speed intercity rail facilities. Pursuant to a special rule in section 147(f)(3), if the proceeds of an issue are to be used to finance a project that consists of either facilities located at an airport (within the meaning of section 142(a)(1)) or high-speed intercity rail facilities (within the meaning of section 142(a)(11)) and the issuer of that issue is the owner or operator of the airport or high-speed intercity rail facilities, the issuer is the only governmental unit that is required to provide the host approval for that project.

(5) Special rule for issuer approval of scholarship funding bond issues and volunteer fire department bond issues. In the case of a qualified scholarship funding bond as defined in section 150(d)(2), the governmental unit that made a request described in section 150(d)(2)(B) with respect to the issuer of the bond is the governmental unit on behalf of which the bond was issued for purposes of the issuer approval. If more than one governmental unit within a State made a request described in section 150(d)(2)(B), the State or any such requesting governmental unit may be treated as the governmental unit on behalf of which the bond was issued for purposes of the issuer approval. In the case of a bond of a volunteer fire department treated as a bond of a political subdivision of a State under section 150(e), the political subdivision described in section 150(e)(2)(B) with respect to that volunteer fire department is the governmental unit on behalf of which the bond is issued for purposes of the issuer approval.

(6) Special rules for host approval of mortgage revenue bonds, student loan bonds, and certain qualified 501(c)(3) bonds. In the case of a mortgage revenue bond (as defined in paragraph (g)(5) of this section), a qualified student loan bond as defined in section 144(b), and the portion of an issue of qualified 501(c)(3) bonds as defined in section 145 that finances working capital expenditures, the issue or portion of the issue must receive an issuer approval but no host approval is necessary. See also paragraph (f)(5) of this section, providing certain optional alternative special rules for certain qualified 501(c)(3) bonds for pooled loan financings described in section 147(b)(4)(B).

(c) Method of public approval. The method of public approval of an issue must satisfy either paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section. An approval may satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (c) without regard to the authority under State or local law for the acts constituting that approval.

(1) Applicable elected representative. An applicable elected representative of the approving governmental unit approves the issue following a public hearing for which there was reasonable public notice.

(2) Voter referendum. A voter referendum of the approving governmental unit approves the issue.

(d) Public hearing and reasonable public notice—(1) Public hearing. Public hearing means a forum providing a reasonable opportunity for interested individuals to express their views, orally or in writing, on the proposed issue of bonds and the location and nature of the proposed project to be financed.

(2) Location of the public hearing. The public hearing must be held in a location that, based on the facts and circumstances, is convenient for residents of the approving governmental unit. The location of the public hearing is presumed convenient for residents of the unit if the public hearing is located in the approving governmental unit's capital or seat of government. If more than one governmental unit is required to hold a public hearing, the hearings may be combined as long as the combined hearing affords the residents of all of the participating governmental units a reasonable opportunity to be heard. The location of any combined hearing is presumed convenient for residents of each participating governmental unit if it is no farther than 100 miles from the seat of government of each participating governmental unit beyond whose geographic jurisdiction the hearing is conducted.

(3) Procedures for conducting the public hearing. In general, a governmental unit may select its own procedure for a public hearing, provided that interested individuals have a reasonable opportunity to express their views. Thus, a governmental unit may impose reasonable requirements on persons who wish to participate in the hearing, such as a requirement that persons desiring to speak at the hearing make a written request to speak at least 24 hours before the hearing or that they limit their oral remarks to a prescribed time. For this purpose, it is unnecessary, for example, that the applicable elected representative of the approving governmental unit be present at the hearing, that a report on the hearing be submitted to that applicable elected representative, or that State administrative procedural requirements for public hearings be observed. Except to the extent State procedural requirements for public hearings are in conflict with a specific requirement of this section, a public hearing performed in compliance with State procedural requirements satisfies the requirements for a public hearing in this paragraph (d). A public hearing may be conducted by an individual appointed or employed to perform such function by the governmental unit or its agencies, or by the issuer. Thus, for example, for bonds to be issued by an authority that acts on behalf of a county, the hearing may be conducted by the authority, the county, or an appointee of either.

(4) Reasonable public notice. Reasonable public notice means notice that is reasonably designed to inform residents of an approving governmental unit, including the issuing governmental unit and the governmental unit in whose geographic jurisdiction a project is to be located, of the proposed issue. The notice must state the time and place for the public hearing and contain the information required by paragraph (f)(2) of this section. Notice is presumed to be reasonably designed to inform residents of an approving governmental unit if it satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (d)(4) and is given no fewer than seven (7) calendar days before the public hearing in one or more of the ways set forth in paragraphs (d)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section.

(i) Newspaper publication. Public notice may be given by publication in one or more newspapers of general circulation available to the residents of the governmental unit.

(ii) Radio or television broadcast. Public notice may be given by radio or television broadcast to the residents of the governmental unit.

(iii) Governmental unit website posting. Public notice may be given by electronic posting on the approving governmental unit's primary public website in an area of that website used to inform its residents about events affecting the residents (for example, notice of public meetings of the governmental unit). In the case of an issuer approval of an issue issued by an on-behalf-of issuer that acts on behalf of a governmental unit, such notice may be posted on the public website of the on-behalf-of issuer as an alternative to the public website of the approving governmental unit.

(iv) Alternative State law public notice procedures. Public notice may be given in a way that is permitted under a general State law for public notices for public hearings for the approving governmental unit, provided that the public notice is reasonably accessible.

(e) Applicable elected representative—(1) In general—(i) Definition of applicable elected representative. The applicable elected representative of a governmental unit means—

(A) The governmental unit's elected legislative body;

(B) The governmental unit's chief elected executive officer;

(C) In the case of a State, the chief elected legal officer of the State's executive branch of government; or

(D) Any official elected by the voters of the governmental unit and designated for purposes of this section by the governmental unit's chief elected executive officer or by State or local law to approve issues for the governmental unit.

(ii) Elected officials. For purposes of paragraphs (e)(1)(i)(B), (C), and (D) of this section, an official is considered elected only if that official is popularly elected at-large by the voters of the governmental unit. If an official popularly elected at-large by the voters of a governmental unit is appointed or selected pursuant to State or local law to be the chief executive officer of the unit, that official is deemed to be an elected chief executive officer for purposes of this section but for no longer than the official's tenure as an official popularly elected at-large.

(iii) Legislative bodies. In the case of a bicameral legislature that is popularly elected, both chambers together constitute an applicable elected representative. Absent designation under paragraph (e)(1)(i)(D) of this section, however, neither such chamber independently constitutes an applicable elected representative. If multiple elected legislative bodies of a governmental unit have independent legislative authority, the body with the more specific authority relating to the issue is the only legislative body that is treated as an elected legislative body under paragraph (e)(1)(i)(A) of this section.

(2) Governmental unit with no applicable elected representative—(i) In general. The applicable elected representatives of a governmental unit with no applicable elected representative (but for this paragraph (e)(2) and section 147(f)(2)(E)(ii)) are the applicable elected representatives of the next higher governmental unit (with an applicable elected representative) from which the governmental unit derives its authority. Except as otherwise provided in this section, any governmental unit from which the governmental unit with no applicable elected representative derives its authority may be treated as the next higher governmental unit without regard to the relative status of such higher governmental unit under State law. A governmental unit derives its authority from another governmental unit that—

(A) Enacts a specific law (for example, a provision in a State constitution, charter, or statute) by or under which the governmental unit is created;

(B) Otherwise empowers or approves the creation of the governmental unit; or

(C) Appoints members to the governing body of the governmental unit.

(ii) Host approval. For purposes of a host approval, a governmental unit may be treated as the next higher governmental unit only if the project is located within its geographic jurisdiction and eligible residents of the unit are entitled to vote for its applicable elected representatives.

(3) On behalf of issuers. In the case of an issuer that issues bonds on behalf of a governmental unit, the applicable elected representative is any applicable elected representative of the governmental unit on behalf of which the bonds are issued.

(f) Public approval process—(1) In general. The public approval process for an issue, including scope, content, and timing of the public approval, must meet the requirements of this paragraph (f). A governmental unit must timely approve either each project to be financed with proceeds of the issue or a plan of financing for each project to be financed with proceeds of the issue.

(2) General rule on information required for a reasonable public notice and public approval. Except as otherwise provided in this section, a project to be financed with proceeds of an issue is within the scope of a public approval under section 147(f) if the reasonable public notice of the public hearing, if applicable, and the public approval (together the notice and approval) include the information set forth in paragraphs (f)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section.

(i) The project. The notice and approval must include a general functional description of the type and use of the project to be financed with the issue. For this purpose, a project description is sufficient if it identifies the project by reference to a particular category of exempt facility bond to be issued (for example, an exempt facility bond for an airport pursuant to section 142(a)(1)) or by reference to another general category of private activity bond together with information on the type and use of the project to be financed with the issue (for example, a qualified small issue bond as defined in section 144(a) for a manufacturing facility or a qualified 501(c)(3) bond as defined in section 145 for a hospital facility and working capital expenditures).

(ii) The maximum stated principal amount of the issue. The notice and approval must include the maximum stated principal amount of the issue of private activity bonds to be issued to finance the project or projects. If an issue finances multiple projects (for example, facilities at different locations on non-proximate sites that are not treated as part of the same project), the notice and approval must specify separately the maximum stated principal amount of bonds to be issued to finance each separate project to be financed as part of the issue. The maximum stated principal amount of bonds to be issued to finance a project may be determined on any reasonable basis and may take into account contingencies, without regard to whether the occurrence of any such contingency is reasonably expected at the time of the notice.

(iii) The name of the initial legal owner or principal user of the project. The notice and approval must include the name of either the expected initial legal owner or principal user (within the meaning of section 144(a)) of the project or, alternatively, the name of a significant true beneficial party of interest for such legal owner or user (for example, the name of a section 501(c)(3) organization that is the sole member of a limited liability company that is the legal owner or the name of a general partner of a partnership that owns the project).

(iv) The location of the project. The notice and approval must include a general description of the prospective location of the project by street address, reference to boundary streets or other geographic boundaries, or other description of the specific geographic location that is reasonably designed to inform readers of the location. For a project involving multiple capital projects or facilities located on the same site, or on adjacent or reasonably proximate sites with similar uses, a consolidated description of the location of those capital projects or facilities provides a sufficient description of the location of the project. For example, a project for a section 501(c)(3) educational entity involving multiple buildings on the entity's main urban college campus may describe the location of the project by reference to the outside street boundaries of that campus with a reference to any noncontiguous features of that campus.

(3) Special rule for mortgage revenue bonds. Mortgage loans financed by mortgage revenue bonds are within the scope of a public approval if the notice and approval state that the bonds are to be issued to finance residential mortgages, provide the maximum stated principal amount of mortgage revenue bonds expected to be issued, and provide a general description of the geographic jurisdiction in which the residences to be financed with the proceeds of the mortgage revenue bonds are expected to be located (for example, residences located throughout a State for an issuer with a statewide jurisdiction or residences within a particular local geographic jurisdiction, such as within a city or county, for a local issuer). For this purpose, in the case of mortgage revenue bonds, no information is required on specific names of mortgage loan borrowers or specific locations of individual residences to be financed.

(4) Special rule for qualified student loan bonds. Qualified student loans financed by qualified student loan bonds as defined in section 144(b) are within the scope of a public approval if the notice and approval state that the bonds will be issued to finance student loans and state the maximum stated principal amount of qualified student loan bonds expected to be issued for qualified student loans. For this purpose, in the case of qualified student loan bonds, no information is required with respect to names of specific student loan borrowers.

(5) Special rule for certain qualified 501(c)(3) bonds. Qualified 501(c)(3) bonds issued pursuant to section 145 for pooled loan financings that are described in section 147(b)(4)(B) (without regard to any election under section 147(b)(4)(A)) are within the scope of a public approval if the public approval either meets the general requirements of paragraph (b) of this section or, alternatively, at the issuer's option, meets the special requirements of paragraphs (f)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section.

(i) Pre-issuance issuer approval. Within the time period required by paragraph (f)(7) of this section, an issuer approval is obtained after reasonable public notice of a public hearing is provided and a public hearing is held. For this purpose, a project is treated as described in the notice and approval if the notice and approval provide that the bonds will be qualified 501(c)(3) bonds to be used to finance loans described in section 147(b)(4)(B), state the maximum stated principal amount of bonds expected to be issued to finance loans to section 501(c)(3) organizations or governmental units as described in section 147(b)(4)(B), provide a general description of the type of project to be financed with such loans (for example, loans for hospital facilities or college facilities), and state that an additional public approval that includes specific project information will be obtained before any such loans are originated.

(ii) Post-issuance public approval for specific loans. Before a loan described in section 147(b)(4)(B) is originated, a supplemental public approval, including issuer approval and host approval, for the bonds to be used to finance that loan is obtained that meets all the requirements of section 147(f) and the requirements for a public approval in paragraph (b) of this section. This post-issuance supplemental public approval requirement applies by treating the bonds to be used to finance such loan as if they were reissued for purposes of section 147(f) (without regard to paragraph (f)(5) of this section). For this purpose, proceeds to be used to finance such loan do not include the portion of the issue used to finance a common reserve fund or common costs of issuance.

(6) Deviations in public approval information—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this section, a substantial deviation between the stated use or amount of proceeds of an issue included in the information required to be provided in the notice and approval (public approval information) and the actual use or amount of proceeds of the issue causes that issue to fail to meet the public approval requirement. Conversely, insubstantial deviations between the stated use or amount of proceeds of an issue included in the public approval information and the actual use or amount of proceeds of the issue do not cause such a failure. In general, the determination of whether a deviation is substantial is based on all the facts and circumstances. In all events, however, a change in the fundamental nature or type of a project is a substantial deviation.

(ii) Certain insubstantial deviations in public approval information. The following deviations from the public approval information in the notice and approval are treated as insubstantial deviations:

(A) Size of bond issue and use of proceeds. A deviation between the maximum stated principal amount of a proposed issuance of bonds to finance a project that is specified in public approval information and the actual stated principal amount of bonds issued and used to finance that project is an insubstantial deviation if that actual stated principal amount is no more than ten percent (10%) greater than that maximum stated principal amount or is any amount less than that maximum stated principal amount. In addition, the use of proceeds to pay working capital expenditures directly associated with any project specified in the public approval information is an insubstantial deviation.

(B) Initial legal owner or principal user. A deviation between the initial legal owner or principal user of the project named in the notice and approval and the actual initial legal owner or principal user of the project is an insubstantial deviation if such parties are related parties on the issue date of the issue.

(iii) Supplemental public approval to cure certain substantial deviations in public approval information. A substantial deviation between the stated use or amount of proceeds of an issue included in the public approval information and the actual use or amount of the proceeds of the issue does not cause that issue to fail to meet the public approval requirement if all of the following requirements are met:

(A) Original public approval and reasonable expectations. The issue met the requirements for a public approval in paragraph (b) of this section. In addition, on the issue date of the issue, the issuer reasonably expected there would be no substantial deviations between the stated use or amount of proceeds of an issue included in the public approval information and the actual use or amount of the proceeds of the issue.

(B) Unexpected events or unforeseen changes in circumstances. As a result of unexpected events or unforeseen changes in circumstances that occur after the issue date of the issue, the issuer determines to use proceeds of the issue in a manner or amount not provided in a public approval.

(C) Supplemental public approval. Before using proceeds of the bonds in a manner or amount not provided in a public approval, the issuer obtains a supplemental public approval for those bonds that meets the public approval requirement in paragraph (b) of this section. This supplemental public approval requirement applies by treating those bonds as if they were reissued for purposes of section 147(f).

(7) Certain timing requirements. Public approval of an issue is timely only if the issuer obtains the public approval within one year before the issue date of the issue. Public approval of a plan of financing is timely only if the issuer obtains public approval for the plan of financing within one year before the issue date of the first issue issued under the plan of financing and the issuer issues all issues under the plan of financing within three years after the issue date of such first issue.

(g) Definitions. The definitions in this paragraph (g) apply for purposes of this section. In addition, the general definitions in § 1.150-1 apply for purposes of this section.

(1) Geographic jurisdiction means the area encompassed by the boundaries prescribed by State or local law for a governmental unit or, if there are no such boundaries, the area in which a unit may exercise such sovereign powers that make that unit a governmental unit for purposes of § 1.103-1 and this section.

(2) Governmental unit has the meaning of “State or local governmental unit” as defined in § 1.103-1. Thus, a governmental unit is a State, territory, a possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any political subdivision thereof.

(3) Host approval is defined in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.

(4) Issuer approval is defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.

(5) Mortgage revenue bonds mean qualified mortgage bonds as defined in section 143(a), qualified veterans' mortgage bonds as defined in section 143(b), or refunding bonds issued to finance mortgages of owner-occupied residences pursuant to applicable law in effect prior to enactment of section 143(a) or section 143(b).

(6) Proceeds means “proceeds” as defined in § 1.141-1(b), except that it does not include disposition proceeds.

(7) Project generally means one or more capital projects or facilities, including land, buildings, equipment, and other property, to be financed with an issue, that are located on the same site, or adjacent or proximate sites used for similar purposes, and that are subject to the public approval requirement of section 147(f). Capital projects or facilities that are not located on the same site or adjacent or proximate sites may be treated as one project if those capital projects or facilities are used in an integrated operation. For an issue of mortgage revenue bonds or an issue of qualified student loan bonds as defined in section 144(b), the term project means the mortgage loans or qualified student loans to be financed with the proceeds of the issue. For an issue of qualified 501(c)(3) bonds as defined in section 145, the term project means a project as defined in the first sentence of this definition, and also is deemed to include working capital expenditures to be financed with proceeds of the issue.

(8) Public approval information is defined in paragraph (f)(6)(i) of this section.

(9) Public hearing is defined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.

(10) Reasonable public notice is defined in paragraph (d)(4) of this section.

(11) Voter referendum means a vote by the voters of the affected governmental unit conducted in the same manner and time as voter referenda on matters relating to governmental spending or bond issuances by the governmental unit under applicable State and local law.

(h) Applicability date. This section applies to bonds issued pursuant to a public approval occurring on or after April 1, 2019. For bonds issued pursuant to a public approval occurring before April 1, 2019, see § 5f.103-2 as contained in 26 CFR part 5f, revised as of April 1, 2018. In addition, an issuer may apply the provisions of paragraph (f)(6) of this section in whole, but not in part, to bonds issued pursuant to a public approval occurring before April 1, 2019.

[T.D. 9845, 83 FR 67690, Dec. 31, 2018]

§ 1.148-0 Scope and table of contents.

(a) Overview. Under section 103(a), interest on certain obligations issued by States and local governments is excludable from the gross income of the owners. Section 148 was enacted to minimize the arbitrage benefits from investing gross proceeds of tax-exempt bonds in higher yielding investments and to remove the arbitrage incentives to issue more bonds, to issue bonds earlier, or to leave bonds outstanding longer than is otherwise reasonably necessary to accomplish the governmental purposes for which the bonds were issued. To accomplish these purposes, section 148 restricts the direct and indirect investment of bond proceeds in higher yielding investments and requires that certain earnings on higher yielding investments be rebated to the United States. Violation of these provisions causes the bonds in the issue to become arbitrage bonds, the interest on which is not excludable from the gross income of the owners under section 103(a). The regulations in §§ 1.148-1 through 1.148-11 apply in a manner consistent with these purposes.

(b) Scope. Sections 1.148-1 through 1.148-11 apply generally for purposes of the arbitrage restrictions on State and local bonds under section 148.

(c) Table of contents. This paragraph (c) lists the table of contents for §§ 1.148-1, 1.148-2, 1.148-3, 1.148-4, 1.148-5, 1.148-6, 1.148-7, 1.148-8, 1.148-9, 1.148-10 and 1.148-11.

§ 1.148-1 Definitions and elections.

(a) In general.

(b) Certain definitions.

(c) Definition of replacement proceeds.

(1) In general.

(2) Sinking fund.

(3) Pledged fund.

(4) Other replacement proceeds.

(d) Elections.

(e) Investment-type property.

(1) In general.

(2) Prepayments.

(3) Certain hedges.

(4) Exception for certain capital projects.

(f) Definition of issue price.

(1) In general.

(2) Bonds issued for money.

(3) Definitions.

(4) Other special rules.

§ 1.148-2 General arbitrage yield restriction rules.

(a) In general.

(b) Reasonable expectations.

(1) In general.

(2) Certification of expectations.

(c) Intentional acts.

(d) Materially higher yielding investments.

(1) In general.

(2) Definitions of materially higher yield.

(3) Mortgage loans.

(e) Temporary periods.

(1) In general.

(2) General 3-year temporary period for capital projects and qualified mortgage loans.

(3) Temporary period for working capital expenditures.

(4) Temporary period for pooled financings.

(5) Temporary period for replacement proceeds.

(6) Temporary period for investment proceeds.

(7) Other amounts.

(f) Reserve or replacement funds.

(1) General 10 percent limitation on funding with sale proceeds.

(2) Exception from yield restriction for reasonably required reserve or replacement funds.

(3) Certain parity reserve funds.

(g) Minor portion.

(h) Certain waivers permitted.

§ 1.148-3 General arbitrage rebate rules.

(a) In general.

(b) Definition of rebate amount.

(c) Computation of future value of a payment or receipt.

(d) Payments and receipts.

(1) Definition of payments.

(2) Definition of receipts.

(3) Special rules for commingled funds.

(4) Cost-of-living adjustment.

(e) Computation dates.

(1) In general.

(2) Final computation date.

(f) Amount of required rebate installment payment.

(1) Amount of interim rebate payments.

(2) Amount of final rebate payment.

(3) Future value of rebate payments.

(g) Time and manner of payment.

(h) Penalty in lieu of loss of tax exemption.

(1) In general.

(2) Interest on underpayments.

(3) Waivers of the penalty.

(4) Application to alternative penalty under § 1.148-7.

(i) Recovery of overpayment of rebate.

(1) In general.

(2) Limitations on recovery.

(3) Time and manner for requesting refund.

(j) Examples.

(k) Bona fide debt service fund exception.

§ 1.148-4 Yield on an issue of bonds.

(a) In general.

(b) Computing yield on a fixed yield issue.

(1) In general.

(2) Yield on certain fixed yield bonds subject to mandatory or contingent early redemption.

(3) Yield on certain fixed yield bonds subject to optional early redemption.

(4) Yield recomputed upon transfer of certain rights associated with the bond.

(5) Special aggregation rule treating certain bonds as a single fixed yield bond.

(6) Examples.

(c) Computing yield on a variable yield issue.

(1) In general.

(2) Payments on bonds included in yield for a computation period.

(3) Example.

(d) Conversion from variable yield issue to fixed yield issue.

(e) Value of bonds.

(1) Plain par bonds.

(2) Other bonds.

(f) Qualified guarantees.

(1) In general.

(2) Interest savings.

(3) Guarantee in substance.

(4) Reasonable charge.

(5) Guarantee of purpose investments.

(6) Allocation of qualified guarantee payments.

(7) Refund or reduction of guarantee payments.

(g) Yield on certain mortgage revenue and student loan bonds.

(h) Qualified hedging transactions.

(1) In general.

(2) Qualified hedge defined.

(3) Accounting for qualified hedges.

(4) Certain variable yield bonds treated as fixed yield bonds.

(5) Contracts entered into before issue date of hedged bond.

(6) Authority of the Commissioner.

§ 1.148-5 Yield and valuation of investments.

(a) In general.

(b) Yield on an investment.

(1) In general.

(2) Yield on a separate class of investments.

(3) Investments to be held beyond issue's maturity or beyond temporary period.

(4) Consistent redemption assumptions on purpose investments.

(5) Student loan special allowance payments included in yield.

(c) Yield reduction payments to the United States.

(1) In general.

(2) Manner of payment.

(3) Applicability of special yield reduction rule.

(d) Value of investments.

(1) In general.

(2) Mandatory valuation of certain yield restricted investments at present value.

(3) Mandatory valuation of certain investments at fair market value.

(4) Special transition rule for transferred proceeds.

(5) Definition of present value of an investment.

(6) Definition of fair market value.

(e) Administrative costs of investments.

(1) In general.

(2) Qualified administrative costs on nonpurpose investments.

(3) Qualified administrative costs on purpose investments.

§ 1.148-6 General allocation and accounting rules.

(a) In general.

(1) Reasonable accounting methods required.

(2) Bona fide deviations from accounting method.

(b) Allocation of gross proceeds to an issue.

(1) One-issue rule and general ordering rules.

(2) Universal cap on value of nonpurpose investments allocated to an issue.

(c) Fair market value limit on allocations to nonpurpose investments.

(d) Allocation of gross proceeds to expenditures.

(1) Expenditures in general.

(2) Treatment of gross proceeds invested in purpose investments.

(3) Expenditures for working capital purposes.

(4) Expenditures for grants.

(5) Expenditures for reimbursement purposes.

(6) Expenditures of certain commingled investment proceeds of governmental issues.

(7) Payments to related parties.

(e) Special rules for commingled funds.

(1) In general.

(2) Investments held by a commingled fund.

(3) Certain expenditures involving a commingled fund.

(4) Fiscal periods.

(5) Unrealized gains and losses on investments of a commingled fund.

(6) Allocations of commingled funds serving as common reserve funds or sinking funds.

§ 1.148-7 Spending exceptions to the rebate requirement.

(a) Scope of section.

(1) In general.

(2) Relationship of spending exceptions.

(3) Spending exceptions not mandatory.

(b) Rules applicable for all spending exceptions.

(1) Special transferred proceeds rules.

(2) Application of multipurpose issue rules.

(3) Expenditures for governmental purposes of the issue.

(4) De minimis rule.

(5) Special definition of reasonably required reserve or replacement fund.

(6) Pooled financing issue.

(c) 6-month exception.

(1) General rule.

(2) Additional period for certain bonds.

(3) Amounts not included in gross proceeds.

(4) Series of refundings.

(d) 18-month exception.

(1) General rule.

(2) Extension for reasonable retainage.

(3) Gross proceeds.

(4) Application to multipurpose issues.

(e) 2-year exception.

(1) General rule.

(2) Extension for reasonable retainage.

(3) Definitions.

(f) Construction issue.

(1) Definition.

(2) Use of actual facts.

(3) Ownership requirement.

(g) Construction expenditures.

(1) Definition.

(2) Certain acquisitions under turnkey contracts treated as construction expenditures.

(3) Constructed personal property.

(4) Specially developed computer software.

(5) Examples.

(h) Reasonable retainage definition.

(i) Available construction proceeds.

(1) Definition in general.

(2) Earnings on a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund.

(3) Reasonable expectations test for future earnings.

(4) Issuance costs.

(5) One and one-half percent penalty in lieu of arbitrage rebate.

(6) Payments on purpose investments and repayments of grants.

(7) Examples.

(j) Election to treat portion of issue used for construction as separate issue.

(1) In general.

(2) Example.

(k) One and one-half percent penalty in lieu of arbitrage rebate.

(1) In general.

(2) Application to reasonable retainage.

(3) Coordination with rebate requirement.

(l) Termination of 1 1/2 percent penalty.

(1) Termination after initial temporary period.

(2) Termination before end of initial temporary period.

(3) Application to reasonable retainage.

(4) Example.

(m) Payment of penalties.

§ 1.148-8 Small issuer exception to rebate requirement.

(a) Scope.

(b) General taxing powers.

(c) Size limitation.

(1) In general.

(2) Aggregation rules.

(3) Certain refunding bonds not taken into account.

(d) Pooled financings—treatment of conduit borrowers.

(e) Refunding issues.

(1) In general.

(2) Multipurpose issues.

§ 1.148-9 Arbitrage rules for refunding issues.

(a) Scope of application.

(b) Transferred proceeds allocation rule.

(1) In general.

(2) Special definition of principal amount.

(3) Relation of transferred proceeds rule to universal cap rule.

(4) Limitation on multi-generational transfers.

(c) Special allocation rules for refunding issues.

(1) Allocations of investments.

(2) Allocations of mixed escrows to expenditures for principal, interest, and redemption prices on a prior issue.

(d) Temporary periods in refundings.

(1) In general.

(2) Types of temporary periods in refundings.

(e) Reasonably required reserve or replacement funds in refundings.

(f) Minor portions in refundings.

(g) Certain waivers permitted.

(h) Multipurpose issue allocations.

(1) Application of multipurpose issue allocation rules.

(2) Rules on allocations of multipurpose issues.

(3) Separate purposes of a multipurpose issue.

(4) Allocations of bonds of a multipurpose issue.

(5) Limitation on multi-generation allocations.

(i) Operating rules for separation of prior issues into refunded and unrefunded portions.

(1) In general.

(2) Allocations of proceeds and investments in a partial refunding.

(3) References to prior issue.

§ 1.148-10 Anti-abuse rules and authority of Commissioner.

(a) Abusive arbitrage device.

(1) In general.

(2) Abusive arbitrage device defined.

(3) Exploitation of tax-exempt interest rates.

(4) Overburdening the tax-exempt market.

(b) Consequences of overburdening the tax-exempt bond market.

(1) In general.

(2) Application.

(c) Anti-abuse rules on excess gross proceeds of advance refunding issues.

(1) In general.

(2) Definition of excess gross proceeds.

(3) Special treatment of transferred proceeds.

(4) Special rule for crossover refundings.

(5) Special rule for gross refundings.

(d) Examples.

(e) Authority of the Commissioner to prevent transactions that are inconsistent with the purpose of the arbitrage investment restrictions.

(f) Authority of the Commissioner to require an earlier date for payment of rebate.

(g) Authority of the Commissioner to waive regulatory limitations.

§ 1.148-11 Effective/applicability dates.

(a) In general.

(b) Elective retroactive application in whole.

(1) In general.

(2) No elective retroactive application for 18-month spending exception.

(3) No elective retroactive application for hedges of fixed rate issues.

(4) No elective retroactive application for safe harbor for establishing fair market value for guaranteed investment contracts and investments purchased for a yield restricted defeasance escrow.

(c) Elective retroactive application of certain provisions.

(1) Retroactive application of overpayment recovery provisions.

(2) Certain allocations of multipurpose issues.

(3) Special limitation.

(d) Transition rule excepting certain state guarantee funds from the definition of replacement proceeds.

(1) Certain perpetual trust funds.

(2) Permanent University Fund.

(e) Transition rule regarding special allowance payments.

(f) Transition rule regarding applicability of yield reduction rule.

(g) Provisions applicable to certain bonds sold before effective date.

(h) Safe harbor for establishing fair market value for guaranteed investment contracts and investments purchased for a yield restricted defeasance escrow.

(i) Special rule for certain broker's commissions and similar fees.

(j) Certain prepayments.

(k) Certain arbitrage guidance updates.

(1) In general.

(2) Valuation of investments in refunding transactions.

(3) Rebate overpayment recovery.

(4) Hedge identification.

(5) Hedge modifications and termination.

(6) Small issuer exception to rebate requirement for conduit borrowers of pooled financings.

(l) Permissive application of certain arbitrage updates.

(1) In general.

(2) Computation credit.

(3) Yield reduction payments.

(4) External commingled funds.

(m) Definition of issue price.

(n) Investment-type property.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33515, June 18, 1993, as amended by T.D. 8538, 59 FR 24041, May 10, 1994; T.D. 8718, 62 FR 25506, May 9, 1997; T.D. 9085, 68 FR 45775, Aug. 4, 2003; T.D. 9097, 68 FR 69022, Dec. 11, 2003; T.D. 9701, 79 FR 67351, Nov. 13, 2014; T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46592, July 18, 2016; T.D. 9801, 81 FR 89003, Dec. 9, 2016; T.D. 9854, 84 FR 14007, Apr. 9, 2019]

§ 1.148-1 Definitions and elections.

(a) In general. The definitions in this section and the definitions under section 150 apply for purposes of section 148 and §§ 1.148-1 through 1.148-11.

(b) Certain definitions. The following definitions apply:

Accounting method means both the overall method used to account for gross proceeds of an issue (e.g., the cash method or a modified accrual method) and the method used to account for or allocate any particular item within that overall accounting method (e.g., accounting for investments, expenditures, allocations to and from different sources, and particular items of the foregoing).

Annuity contract means annuity contract as defined in section 72.

Available amount means available amount as defined in § 1.148-6(d)(3)(iii).

Bona fide debt service fund means a fund, which may include proceeds of an issue, that—

(1) Is used primarily to achieve a proper matching of revenues with principal and interest payments within each bond year; and

(2) Is depleted at least once each bond year, except for a reasonable carryover amount not to exceed the greater of:

(i) the earnings on the fund for the immediately preceding bond year; or

(ii) one-twelfth of the principal and interest payments on the issue for the immediately preceding bond year.

Bond year means, in reference to an issue, each 1-year period that ends on the day selected by the issuer. The first and last bond years may be short periods. If no day is selected by the issuer before the earlier of the final maturity date of the issue or the date that is 5 years after the issue date, bond years end on each anniversary of the issue date and on the final maturity date.

Capital project or capital projects means all capital expenditures, plus related working capital expenditures to which the de minimis rule under § 1.148-6(d)(3)(ii)(A) applies, that carry out the governmental purposes of an issue. For example, a capital project may include capital expenditures for one or more buildings, plus related start-up operating costs.

Commingled fund means any fund or account containing both gross proceeds of an issue and amounts in excess of $25,000 that are not gross proceeds of that issue if the amounts in the fund or account are invested and accounted for collectively, without regard to the source of funds deposited in the fund or account. An open-end regulated investment company under section 851, however, is not a commingled fund.

Computation date means each date on which the rebate amount for an issue is computed under § 1.148-3(e).

Computation period means the period between computation dates. The first computation period begins on the issue date and ends on the first computation date. Each succeeding computation period begins on the date immediately following the computation date and ends on the next computation date.

Consistently applied means applied uniformly within a fiscal period and between fiscal periods to account for gross proceeds of an issue and any amounts that are in a commingled fund.

De minimis amount means—

(1) In reference to original issue discount (as defined in section 1273(a)(1)) or premium on an obligation—

(i) An amount that does not exceed 2 percent multiplied by the stated redemption price at maturity; plus

(ii) Any original issue premium that is attributable exclusively to reasonable underwriters' compensation; and

(2) In reference to market discount (as defined in section 1278(a)(2)(A)) or premium on an obligation, an amount that does not exceed 2 percent multiplied by the stated redemption price at maturity.

Economic accrual method (also known as the constant interest method or actuarial method) means the method of computing yield that is based on the compounding of interest at the end of each compounding period.

Fair market value means fair market value as defined in § 1.148-5(d)(6).

Fixed rate investment means any investment whose yield is fixed and determinable on the issue date.

Fixed yield bond means any bond whose yield is fixed and determinable on the issue date using the assumptions and rules provided in § 1.148-4(b).

Fixed yield issue means any issue if each bond that is part of the issue is a fixed yield bond.

Gross proceeds means any proceeds and replacement proceeds of an issue.

Guaranteed investment contract includes any nonpurpose investment that has specifically negotiated withdrawal or reinvestment provisions and a specifically negotiated interest rate, and also includes any agreement to supply investments on two or more future dates (e.g., a forward supply contract).

Higher yielding investments means higher yielding investments as defined in section 148(b)(1).

Investment means any investment property as defined in sections 148(b)(2) and 148(b)(3), and any other tax-exempt bond.

Investment proceeds means any amounts actually or constructively received from investing proceeds of an issue.

Investment-type property is defined in paragraph (e) of this section.

Issue price means issue price as defined in paragraph (f) of this section.

Issuer generally means the entity that actually issues the issue, and, unless the context or a provision clearly requires otherwise, each conduit borrower of the issue. For example, rules imposed on issuers to account for gross proceeds of an issue apply to a conduit borrower to account for any gross proceeds received under a purpose investment. Provisions regarding elections, filings, liability for the rebate amount, and certifications of reasonable expectations apply only to the actual issuer.

Multipurpose issue means an issue the proceeds of which are used for two or more separate purposes determined in accordance with § 1.148-9(h).

Net sale proceeds means sale proceeds, less the portion of those sale proceeds invested in a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund under section 148(d) and as part of a minor portion under section 148(e).

Nonpurpose investment means any investment property, as defined in section 148(b), that is not a purpose investment.

Payment means a payment as defined in § 1.148-3(d) for purposes of computing the rebate amount, and a payment as defined in § 1.148-5(b) for purposes of computing the yield on an investment.

Plain par bond means a qualified tender bond or a bond—

(1) Issued with not more than a de minimis amount of original issue discount or premium;

(2) Issued for a price that does not include accrued interest other than pre-issuance accrued interest;

(3) That bears interest from the issue date at a single, stated, fixed rate or that is a variable rate debt instrument under section 1275, in each case with interest unconditionally payable at least annually; and

(4) That has a lowest stated redemption price that is not less than its outstanding stated principal amount.

Plain par investment means an investment that is an obligation—

(1) Issued with not more than a de minimis amount of original issue discount or premium, or, if acquired on a date other than the issue date, acquired with not more than a de minimis amount of market discount or premium;

(2) Issued for a price that does not include accrued interest other than pre-issuance accrued interest;

(3) That bears interest from the issue date at a single, stated, fixed rate or that is a variable rate debt instrument under section 1275, in each case with interest unconditionally payable at least annually; and

(4) That has a lowest stated redemption price that is not less than its outstanding stated principal amount.

Pre-issuance accrued interest means amounts representing interest that accrued on an obligation for a period not greater than one year before its issue date but only if those amounts are paid within one year after the issue date.

Proceeds means any sale proceeds, investment proceeds, and transferred proceeds of an issue. Proceeds do not include, however, amounts actually or constructively received with respect to a purpose investment that are properly allocable to the immaterially higher yield under § 1.148-2(d) or section 143(g) or to qualified administrative costs recoverable under § 1.148-5(e).

Program investment means a purpose investment that is part of a governmental program in which—

(1) The program involves the origination or acquisition of purpose investments;

(2) At least 95 percent (90 percent for qualified student loans under section 144(b)(1)(A)) of the cost of the purpose investments acquired under the program represents one or more loans to a substantial number of persons representing the general public, States or political subdivisions, 501(c)(3) organizations, persons who provide housing and related facilities, or any combination of the foregoing;

(3) At least 95 percent of the receipts from the purpose investments are used to pay principal, interest, or redemption prices on issues that financed the program, to pay or reimburse administrative costs of those issues or of the program, to pay or reimburse anticipated future losses directly related to the program, to finance additional purpose investments for the same general purposes of the program, or to redeem and retire governmental obligations at the next earliest possible date of redemption;

(4) The program documents prohibit any obligor on a purpose investment financed by the program or any related party to that obligor from purchasing bonds of an issue that finance the program in an amount related to the amount of the purpose investment acquired from that obligor; and

(5) The issuer has not waived the right to treat the investment as a program investment.

Purpose investment means an investment that is acquired to carry out the governmental purpose of an issue.

Qualified administrative costs means qualified administrative costs as defined in § 1.148-5(e).

Qualified guarantee means a qualified guarantee as defined in § 1.148-4(f).

Qualified hedge means a qualified hedge as defined in § 1.148-4(h)(2).

Reasonable expectations or reasonableness. An issuer's expectations or actions are reasonable only if a prudent person in the same circumstances as the issuer would have those same expectations or take those same actions, based on all the objective facts and circumstances. Factors relevant to a determination of reasonableness include the issuer's history of conduct concerning stated expectations made in connection with the issuance of obligations, the level of inquiry by the issuer into factual matters, and the existence of covenants, enforceable by bondholders, that require implementation of specific expectations. For a conduit financing issue, factors relevant to a determination of reasonableness include the reasonable expectations of the conduit borrower, but only if, under the circumstances, it is reasonable and prudent for the issuer to rely on those expectations.

Rebate amount means 100 percent of the amount owed to the United States under section 148(f)(2), as further described in § 1.148-3.

Receipt means a receipt as defined in § 1.148-3(d) for purposes of computing the rebate amount, and a receipt as defined in § 1.148-5(b) for purposes of computing yield on an investment.

Refunding escrow means one or more funds established as part of a single transaction or a series of related transactions, containing proceeds of a refunding issue and any other amounts to provide for payment of principal or interest on one or more prior issues. For this purpose, funds are generally not so established solely because of—

(1) The deposit of proceeds of an issue and replacement proceeds of the prior issue in an escrow more than 6 months apart, or

(2) The deposit of proceeds of completely separate issues in an escrow.

Replacement proceeds is defined in paragraph (c) of this section.

Restricted working capital expenditures means working capital expenditures that are subject to the proceeds-spent-last rule in § 1.148-6(d)(3)(i) and are ineligible for any exception to that rule.

Sale proceeds means any amounts actually or constructively received from the sale of the issue, including amounts used to pay underwriters' discount or compensation and accrued interest other than pre-issuance accrued interest. Sale proceeds also include, but are not limited to, amounts derived from the sale of a right that is associated with a bond, and that is described in § 1.148-4(b)(4). See also § 1.148-4(h)(5) treating amounts received upon the termination of certain hedges as sale proceeds.

Stated redemption price means the redemption price of an obligation under the terms of that obligation, including any call premium.

Transferred proceeds means transferred proceeds as defined in § 1.148-9 (or the applicable corresponding provision of prior law).

Unconditionally payable means payable under terms in which—

(1) Late payment or nonpayment results in a significant penalty to the borrower or reasonable remedies to the lender, and

(2) It is reasonably certain on the issue date that the payment will actually be made.

Value means value determined under § 1.148-4(e) for a bond, and value determined under § 1.148-5(d) for an investment.

Variable yield bond means any bond that is not a fixed yield bond.

Variable yield issue means any issue that is not a fixed yield issue.

Yield means yield computed under § 1.148-4 for an issue, and yield computed under § 1.148-5 for an investment.

Yield restricted means required to be invested at a yield that is not materially higher than the yield on the issue under section 148(a) and § 1.148-2.

(c) Definition of replacement proceeds—(1) In general. Amounts are replacement proceeds of an issue if the amounts have a sufficiently direct nexus to the issue or to the governmental purpose of the issue to conclude that the amounts would have been used for that governmental purpose if the proceeds of the issue were not used or to be used for that governmental purpose. For this purpose, governmental purposes include the expected use of amounts for the payment of debt service on a particular date. The mere availability or preliminary earmarking of amounts for a governmental purpose, however, does not in itself establish a sufficient nexus to cause those amounts to be replacement proceeds. Replacement proceeds include, but are not limited to, sinking funds, pledged funds, and other replacement proceeds described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, to the extent that those funds or amounts are held by or derived from a substantial beneficiary of the issue. A substantial beneficiary of an issue includes the issuer and any related party to the issuer, and, if the issuer is not a state, the state in which the issuer is located. A person is not a substantial beneficiary of an issue solely because it is a guarantor under a qualified guarantee.

(2) Sinking fund. Sinking fund includes a debt service fund, redemption fund, reserve fund, replacement fund, or any similar fund, to the extent reasonably expected to be used directly or indirectly to pay principal or interest on the issue.

(3) Pledged fund—(i) In general. A pledged fund is any amount that is directly or indirectly pledged to pay principal or interest on the issue. A pledge need not be cast in any particular form but, in substance, must provide reasonable assurance that the amount will be available to pay principal or interest on the issue, even if the issuer encounters financial difficulties. A pledge to a guarantor of an issue is an indirect pledge to secure payment of principal or interest on the issue. A pledge of more than 50 percent of the outstanding stock of a corporation that is a conduit borrower of the issue is not treated as a pledge for this purpose, unless the corporation is formed or availed of to avoid the creation of replacement proceeds.

(ii) Negative pledges. An amount is treated as pledged to pay principal or interest on an issue if it is held under an agreement to maintain the amount at a particular level for the direct or indirect benefit of the bondholders or a guarantor of the bonds. An amount is not treated as pledged under this paragraph (c)(3)(ii), however, if—

(A) The issuer or a substantial beneficiary may grant rights in the amount that are superior to the rights of the bondholders or the guarantor; or

(B) The amount does not exceed reasonable needs for which it is maintained, the required level is tested no more frequently than every 6 months, and the amount may be spent without any substantial restriction other than a requirement to replenish the amount by the next testing date.

(4) Other replacement proceeds—(i) Bonds outstanding longer than necessary—(A) In general. Replacement proceeds arise to the extent that the issuer reasonably expects as of the issue date that—

(1) The term of an issue will be longer than is reasonably necessary for the governmental purposes of the issue, and

(2) There will be available amounts during the period that the issue remains outstanding longer than necessary. Whether an issue is outstanding longer than necessary is determined under § 1.148-10. Replacement proceeds are created under this paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A) at the beginning of each fiscal year during which an issue remains outstanding longer than necessary in an amount equal to available amounts of the issuer as of that date.

(B) Safe harbor against creation of replacement proceeds. As a safe harbor, replacement proceeds do not arise under paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A) of this section—

(1) For the portion of an issue that is to be used to finance working capital expenditures, if that portion is not outstanding longer than the temporary period under § 1.148-2(e)(3) for which the proceeds qualify;

(2) For the portion of an issue (including a refunding issue) that is to be used to finance or refinance capital projects, if that portion has a weighted average maturity that does not exceed 120 percent of the average reasonably expected economic life of the financed capital projects, determined in the same manner as under section 147(b);

(3) For the portion of an issue that is a refunding issue, if that portion has a weighted average maturity that does not exceed the remaining weighted average maturity of the prior issue, and the issue of which the prior issue is a part satisfies paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B) (1) or (2) of this section; or

(4) For the portion of an issue (including a refunding issue) that is to be used to finance working capital expenditures, if that portion satisfies paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section.

(ii) Safe harbor for longer-term working capital financings. A portion of an issue used to finance working capital expenditures satisfies this paragraph (c)(4)(ii) if the issuer meets the requirements of paragraphs (c)(4)(ii)(A) through (E) of this section.

(A) Determine first testing year. On the issue date, the issuer must determine the first fiscal year following the applicable temporary period under § 1.148-2(e) in which it reasonably expects to have available amounts (first testing year), but in no event can the first day of the first testing year be later than five years after the issue date.

(B) Application of available amount to reduce burden on tax-exempt bond market. Beginning with the first testing year and for each subsequent fiscal year for which the portion of the issue that is the subject of this safe harbor remains outstanding, the issuer must determine the available amount as of the first day of each fiscal year. Then, except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(D) of this section, within the first 90 days of that fiscal year, the issuer must apply that amount (or if less, the available amount on the date of the required redemption or investment) to redeem or to invest in eligible tax-exempt bonds (as defined in paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(E) of this section). For this purpose, available amounts in a bona fide debt service fund are not treated as available amounts.

(C) Continuous investment requirement. Except as provided in this paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(C), any amounts invested in eligible tax-exempt bonds under paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(B) of this section must be invested continuously in such tax-exempt bonds to the extent provided in paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(D) of this section.

(1) Exception for reinvestment period. Amounts previously invested in eligible tax-exempt bonds under paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(B) of this section that are held for not more than 30 days in a fiscal year pending reinvestment in eligible tax-exempt bonds are treated as invested in eligible tax-exempt bonds.

(2) Limited use of invested amounts. An issuer may spend amounts previously invested in eligible tax-exempt bonds under paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(B) of this section within 30 days of the date on which they cease to be so invested to make expenditures for a governmental purpose on any date on which the issuer has no other available amounts for such purpose, or to redeem eligible tax-exempt bonds.

(D) Cap on applied or invested amounts. The maximum amount that an issuer is required to apply under paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(B) of this section or to invest continuously under paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(C) of this section with respect to the portion of an issue that is the subject of this safe harbor is the outstanding principal amount of such portion. For purposes of this cap, an issuer receives credit towards its requirement to invest available amounts in eligible tax-exempt bonds for amounts previously invested under paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(B) of this section that remain continuously invested under paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(C) of this section.

(E) Definition of eligible tax-exempt bonds. For purposes of paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section, eligible tax-exempt bonds means any of the following:

(1) A bond the interest on which is excludable from gross income under section 103 and that is not a specified private activity bond (as defined in section 57(a)(5)(C)) subject to the alternative minimum tax;

(2) An interest in a regulated investment company to the extent that at least 95 percent of the income to the holder of the interest is interest on a bond that is excludable from gross income under section 103 and that is not interest on a specified private activity bond (as defined in section 57(a)(5)(C)) subject to the alternative minimum tax; or

(3) A certificate of indebtedness issued by the United States Treasury pursuant to the Demand Deposit State and Local Government Series program described in 31 CFR part 344.

(d) Elections. Except as otherwise provided, any required elections must be made in writing, and, once made, may not be revoked without the permission of the Commissioner.

(e) Investment-type property—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (e), investment-type property includes any property, other than property described in section 148(b)(2)(A), (B), (C), or (E), that is held principally as a passive vehicle for the production of income. For this purpose, production of income includes any benefit based on the time value of money.

(2) Prepayments—(i) In general—(A) Generally. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (e)(2), a prepayment for property or services, including a prepayment for property or services that is made after the date that the contract to buy the property or services is entered into, also gives rise to investment-type property if a principal purpose for prepaying is to receive an investment return from the time the prepayment is made until the time payment otherwise would be made. A prepayment does not give rise to investment-type property if—

(1) Prepayments on substantially the same terms are made by a substantial percentage of persons who are similarly situated to the issuer but who are not beneficiaries of tax-exempt financing;

(2) The prepayment is made within 90 days of the reasonably expected date of delivery to the issuer of all of the property or services for which the prepayment is made; or

(3) The prepayment meets the requirements of paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(A) or (B) of this section.

(B) Example. The following example illustrates an application of this paragraph (e)(2)(i):

Example. Prepayment after contract is executed.

In 1998, City A enters into a ten-year contract with Company Y. Under the contract, Company Y is to provide services to City A over the term of the contract and in return City A will pay Company Y for its services as they are provided. In 2004, City A issues bonds to finance a lump sum payment to Company Y in satisfaction of City A's obligation to pay for Company Y's services to be provided over the remaining term of the contract. The use of bond proceeds to make the lump sum payment constitutes a prepayment for services under paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, even though the payment is made after the date that the contract is executed.

(ii) Customary prepayments. The determination of whether a prepayment satisfies paragraph (e)(2)(i)(A)(1) of this section is generally made based on all the facts and circumstances. In addition, a prepayment is deemed to satisfy paragraph (e)(2)(i)(A)(1) of this section if—

(A) The prepayment is made for—

(1) Maintenance, repair, or an extended warranty with respect to personal property (for example, automobiles or electronic equipment); or

(2) Updates or maintenance or support services with respect to computer software; and

(B) The same maintenance, repair, extended warranty, updates or maintenance or support services, as applicable, are regularly provided to nongovernmental persons on the same terms.

(iii) Certain prepayments to acquire a supply of natural gas or electricity—(A) Natural gas prepayments. A prepayment meets the requirements of this paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(A) if—

(1) It is made by or for one or more utilities that are owned by a governmental person, as defined in § 1.141-1(b) (each of which is referred to in this paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(A) as the issuing municipal utility), to purchase a supply of natural gas; and

(2) At least 90 percent of the prepaid natural gas financed by the issue is used for a qualifying use. Natural gas is used for a qualifying use if it is to be—

(i) Furnished to retail gas customers of the issuing municipal utility who are located in the natural gas service area of the issuing municipal utility, provided, however, that gas used to produce electricity for sale shall not be included under this paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(A)(2)(i);

(ii) Used by the issuing municipal utility to produce electricity that will be furnished to retail electric customers of the issuing municipal utility who are located in the electricity service area of the issuing municipal utility;

(iii) Used by the issuing municipal utility to produce electricity that will be sold to a utility that is owned by a governmental person and furnished to retail electric customers of the purchaser who are located in the electricity service area of the purchaser;

(iv) Sold to a utility that is owned by a governmental person if the requirements of paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(A)(2)(i), (ii) or (iii) of this section are satisfied by the purchaser (treating the purchaser as the issuing municipal utility); or

(v) Used to fuel the pipeline transportation of the prepaid gas supply acquired in accordance with this paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(A).

(B) Electricity prepayments. A prepayment meets the requirements of this paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B) if—

(1) It is made by or for one or more utilities that are owned by a governmental person (each of which is referred to in this paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B) as the issuing municipal utility) to purchase a supply of electricity; and

(2) At least 90 percent of the prepaid electricity financed by the issue is used for a qualifying use. Electricity is used for a qualifying use if it is to be—

(i) Furnished to retail electric customers of the issuing municipal utility who are located in the electricity service area of the issuing municipal utility; or

(ii) Sold to a utility that is owned by a governmental person and furnished to retail electric customers of the purchaser who are located in the electricity service area of the purchaser.

(C) Service area. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(2)(iii), the service area of a utility owned by a governmental person consists of—

(1) Any area throughout which the utility provided, at all times during the 5-year period ending on the issue date—

(i) In the case of a natural gas utility, natural gas transmission or distribution service; and

(ii) In the case of an electric utility, electricity distribution service; and

(2) Any area recognized as the service area of the utility under state or Federal law.

(D) Retail customer. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(2)(iii), a retail customer is a customer that purchases natural gas or electricity, as applicable, other than for resale.

(E) Commodity swaps. A prepayment does not fail to meet the requirements of this paragraph (e)(2)(iii) by reason of any commodity swap contract that may be entered into between the issuer and an unrelated party (other than the gas or electricity supplier), or between the gas or electricity supplier and an unrelated party (other than the issuer), so long as each swap contract is an independent contract. A swap contract is an independent contract if the obligation of each party to perform under the swap contract is not dependent on performance by any person (other than the other party to the swap contract) under another contract (for example, a gas or electricity supply contract or another swap contract); provided, however, that a commodity swap contract will not fail to be an independent contract solely because the swap contract may terminate in the event of a failure of a gas or electricity supplier to deliver gas or electricity for which the swap contract is a hedge.

(F) Remedial action. Issuers may apply principles similar to the rules of § 1.141-12, including § 1.141-12(d) (relating to redemption or defeasance of nonqualified bonds) and § 1.141-12(e) (relating to alternative use of disposition proceeds), to cure a violation of paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(A)(2) or (e)(2)(iii)(B)(2) of this section. For this purpose, the amount of nonqualified bonds is determined in the same manner as for output contracts taken into account under the private business tests, including the principles of § 1.141-7(d), treating nonqualified sales of gas or electricity under this paragraph (e)(2)(iii) as satisfying the benefits and burdens test under § 1.141-7(c)(1).

(iv) Additional prepayments as permitted by the Commissioner. The Commissioner may, by published guidance, set forth additional circumstances in which a prepayment does not give rise to investment-type property.

(3) Certain hedges. Investment-type property also includes the investment element of a contract that is a hedge (within the meaning of § 1.148-4(h)(2)(i)(A)) and that contains a significant investment element because a payment by the issuer relates to a conditional or unconditional obligation by the hedge provider to make a payment on a later date. See § 1.148-4(h)(2)(ii) relating to hedges with a significant investment element.

(4) Exception for certain capital projects. Investment-type property does not include real property or tangible personal property (for example, land, buildings, and equipment) that is used in furtherance of the public purposes for which the tax-exempt bonds are issued. For example, investment-type property does not include a courthouse financed with governmental bonds or an eligible exempt facility under section 142, such as a public road, financed with private activity bonds.

(f) Definition of issue price—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (f), “issue price” is defined in sections 1273 and 1274 and the regulations under those sections.

(2) Bonds issued for money—(i) General rule. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (f)(2), the issue price of bonds issued for money is the first price at which a substantial amount of the bonds is sold to the public. If a bond is issued for money in a private placement to a single buyer that is not an underwriter or a related party (as defined in § 1.150-1(b)) to an underwriter, the issue price of the bond is the price paid by that buyer. Issue price is not reduced by any issuance costs (as defined in § 1.150-1(b)).

(ii) Special rule for use of initial offering price to the public. The issuer may treat the initial offering price to the public as of the sale date as the issue price of the bonds if the requirements of paragraphs (f)(2)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section are met.

(A) The underwriters offered the bonds to the public for purchase at a specified initial offering price on or before the sale date, and the lead underwriter in the underwriting syndicate or selling group (or, if applicable, the sole underwriter) provides, on or before the issue date, a certification to that effect to the issuer, together with reasonable supporting documentation for that certification, such as a copy of the pricing wire or equivalent communication.

(B) Each underwriter agrees in writing that it will neither offer nor sell the bonds to any person at a price that is higher than the initial offering price to the public during the period starting on the sale date and ending on the earlier of the following:

(1) The close of the fifth (5th) business day after the sale date; or

(2) The date on which the underwriters have sold a substantial amount of the bonds to the public at a price that is no higher than the initial offering price to the public.

(iii) Special rule for competitive sales. For bonds issued for money in a competitive sale, an issuer may treat the reasonably expected initial offering price to the public as of the sale date as the issue price of the bonds if the issuer obtains from the winning bidder a certification of the bonds' reasonably expected initial offering price to the public as of the sale date upon which the price in the winning bid is based.

(iv) Choice of rule for determining issue price. If more than one rule for determining the issue price of the bonds is available under this paragraph (f)(2), at any time on or before the issue date, the issuer may select the rule it will use to determine the issue price of the bonds. On or before the issue date of the bonds, the issuer must identify the rule selected in its books and records maintained for the bonds.

(3) Definitions. For purposes of this paragraph (f), the following definitions apply:

(i) Competitive sale means a sale of bonds by an issuer to an underwriter that is the winning bidder in a bidding process in which the issuer offers the bonds for sale to underwriters at specified written terms, if that process meets the following requirements:

(A) The issuer disseminates the notice of sale to potential underwriters in a manner that is reasonably designed to reach potential underwriters (for example, through electronic communication that is widely circulated to potential underwriters by a recognized publisher of municipal bond offering documents or by posting on an Internet-based Web site or other electronic medium that is regularly used for such purpose and is widely available to potential underwriters);

(B) All bidders have an equal opportunity to bid (within the meaning of § 1.148-5(d)(6)(iii)(A)(6));

(C) The issuer receives bids from at least three underwriters of municipal bonds who have established industry reputations for underwriting new issuances of municipal bonds; and

(D) The issuer awards the sale to the bidder who submits a firm offer to purchase the bonds at the highest price (or lowest interest cost).

(ii) Public means any person (as defined in section 7701(a)(1)) other than an underwriter or a related party (as defined in § 1.150-1(b)) to an underwriter.

(iii) Underwriter means:

(A) Any person (as defined in section 7701(a)(1)) that agrees pursuant to a written contract with the issuer (or with the lead underwriter to form an underwriting syndicate) to participate in the initial sale of the bonds to the public; and

(B) Any person that agrees pursuant to a written contract directly or indirectly with a person described in paragraph (f)(3)(iii)(A) of this section to participate in the initial sale of the bonds to the public (for example, a retail distribution agreement between a national lead underwriter and a regional firm under which the regional firm participates in the initial sale of the bonds to the public).

(4) Other special rules. For purposes of this paragraph (f), the following special rules apply:

(i) Separate determinations. The issue price of bonds in an issue that do not have the same credit and payment terms is determined separately. The issuer need not apply the same rule to determine issue price for all of the bonds in the issue.

(ii) Substantial amount. Ten percent is a substantial amount.

(iii) Bonds issued for property. If a bond is issued for property, the adjusted applicable Federal rate, as determined under section 1288 and § 1.1288-1, is used in lieu of the applicable Federal rate to determine the bond's issue price under section 1274.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33517, June 18, 1993; 58 FR 44452, Aug. 23, 1993, as amended by T.D. 8538, 59 FR 24041, May 10, 1994; T.D. 8718, 62 FR 25507, May 9, 1997; T.D. 9085, 68 FR 45775, Aug. 4, 2003; T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46592, July 18, 2016; T.D. 9801, 81 FR 89003, Dec. 9, 2016; T.D. 9854, 84 FR 14007, Apr. 9, 2019]

§ 1.148-2 General arbitrage yield restriction rules.

(a) In general. Under section 148(a), the direct or indirect investment of the gross proceeds of an issue in higher yielding investments causes the bonds of the issue to be arbitrage bonds. The investment of proceeds in higher yielding investments, however, during a temporary period described in paragraph (e) of this section, as part of a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund described in paragraph (f) of this section, or as part of a minor portion described in paragraph (g) of this section does not cause the bonds of the issue to be arbitrage bonds. Bonds are not arbitrage bonds under this section as a result of an inadvertent, insubstantial error.

(b) Reasonable expectations—(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the determination of whether an issue consists of arbitrage bonds under section 148(a) is based on the issuer's reasonable expectations as of the issue date regarding the amount and use of the gross proceeds of the issue.

(2) Certification of expectations—(i) In general. An officer of the issuer responsible for issuing the bonds must, in good faith, certify the issuer's expectations as of the issue date. The certification must state the facts and estimates that form the basis for the issuer's expectations. The certification is evidence of the issuer's expectations, but does not establish any conclusions of law or any presumptions regarding either the issuer's actual expectations or their reasonableness.

(ii) Exceptions to certification requirement. An issuer is not required to make a certification for an issue under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section if—

(A) The issuer reasonably expects as of the issue date that there will be no unspent gross proceeds after the issue date, other than gross proceeds in a bona fide debt service fund (e.g., equipment lease financings in which the issuer purchases equipment in exchange for an installment payment note); or

(B) The issue price of the issue does not exceed $1,000,000.

(c) Intentional acts. The taking of any deliberate, intentional action by the issuer or person acting on its behalf after the issue date in order to earn arbitrage causes the bonds of the issue to be arbitrage bonds if that action, had it been expected on the issue date, would have caused the bonds to be arbitrage bonds. An intent to violate the requirements of section 148 is not necessary for an action to be intentional.

(d) Materially higher yielding investments—(1) In general. The yield on investments is materially higher than the yield on the issue to which the investments are allocated if the yield on the investments over the term of the issue exceeds the yield on the issue by an amount in excess of the applicable definition of materially higher set forth in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. If yield restricted investments in the same class are subject to different definitions of materially higher, the applicable definition of materially higher that produces the lowest permitted yield applies to all the investments in the class. The yield on the issue is determined under § 1.148-4. The yield on investments is determined under § 1.148-5.

(2) Definitions of materially higher yield—(i) General rule for purpose and nonpurpose investments. For investments that are not otherwise described in this paragraph (d)(2), materially higher means one-eighth of 1 percentage point.

(ii) Refunding escrows and replacement proceeds. For investments in a refunding escrow or for investments allocable to replacement proceeds, materially higher means one-thousandth of 1 percentage point.

(iii) Program investments. For program investments that are not described in paragraph (d)(2)(iv) of this section, materially higher means 1 and one-half percentage points.

(iv) Student loans. For qualified student loans that are program investments, materially higher means 2 percentage points.

(v) Tax-exempt investments. For investments that are tax-exempt bonds and are not investment property under section 148(b)(3), no yield limitation applies.

(3) Mortgage loans. Qualified mortgage loans that satisfy the requirements of section 143(g) are treated as meeting the requirements of this paragraph (d).

(e) Temporary periods—(1) In general. During the temporary periods set forth in this paragraph (e), the proceeds and replacement proceeds of an issue may be invested in higher yielding investments without causing bonds in the issue to be arbitrage bonds. This paragraph (e) does not apply to refunding issues (see § 1.148-9).

(2) General 3-year temporary period for capital projects and qualified mortgage loans—(i) In general. The net sale proceeds and investment proceeds of an issue reasonably expected to be allocated to expenditures for capital projects qualify for a temporary period of 3 years beginning on the issue date (the 3-year temporary period). The 3-year temporary period also applies to the proceeds of qualified mortgage bonds and qualified veterans' mortgage bonds by substituting qualified mortgage loans in each place that capital projects appears in this paragraph (e)(2). The 3-year temporary period applies only if the issuer reasonably expects to satisfy the expenditure test, the time test, and the due diligence test. These rules apply separately to each conduit loan financed by an issue (other than qualified mortgage loans), with the expenditure and time tests measured from the issue date of the issue.

(A) Expenditure test. The expenditure test is met if at least 85 percent of the net sale proceeds of the issue are allocated to expenditures on the capital projects by the end of the 3-year temporary period.

(B) Time test. The time test is met if the issuer incurs within 6 months of the issue date a substantial binding obligation to a third party to expend at least 5 percent of the net sale proceeds of the issue on the capital projects. An obligation is not binding if it is subject to contingencies within the issuer's or a related party's control.

(C) Due diligence test. The due diligence test is met if completion of the capital projects and the allocation of the net sale proceeds of the issue to expenditures proceed with due diligence.

(ii) 5-year temporary period. In the case of proceeds expected to be allocated to a capital project involving a substantial amount of construction expenditures (as defined in § 1.148-7), a 5-year temporary period applies in lieu of the 3-year temporary period if the issuer satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section applied by substituting “5 years” in each place that “3 years” appears, and both the issuer and a licensed architect or engineer certify that the longer period is necessary to complete the capital project.

(3) Temporary period for working capital expenditures—(i) General rule. The proceeds of an issue that are reasonably expected to be allocated to working capital expenditures within 13 months after the issue date qualify for a temporary period of 13 months beginning on the issue date. Paragraph (e)(2) of this section contains additional temporary period rules for certain working capital expenditures that are treated as part of a capital project.

(ii) Longer temporary period for certain tax anticipation issues. If an issuer reasonably expects to use tax revenues arising from tax levies for a single fiscal year to redeem or retire an issue, and the issue matures by the earlier of 2 years after the issue date or 60 days after the last date for payment of those taxes without interest or penalty, the temporary period under paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section is extended until the maturity date of the issue.

(4) Temporary period for pooled financings—(i) In general. Proceeds of a pooled financing issue reasonably expected to be used to finance purpose investments qualify for a temporary period of 6 months while held by the issuer before being loaned to a conduit borrower. Any otherwise available temporary period for proceeds held by a conduit borrower, however, is reduced by the period of time during which those proceeds were held by the issuer before being loaned. For example, if the proceeds of a pooled financing issue loaned to a conduit borrower would qualify for a 3-year temporary period, and the proceeds are held by the issuer for 5 months before being loaned to the conduit borrower, the proceeds qualify for only an additional 31-month temporary period after being loaned to the conduit borrower. Except as provided in paragraph (e)(4)(iv) of this section, this paragraph (e)(4) does not apply to any qualified mortgage bond or qualified veterans' mortgage bond under section 143.

(ii) Loan repayments—(A) Amount held by the issuer. The temporary period under this paragraph (e)(4) for proceeds from the sale or repayment of any loan that are reasonably expected to be used to make or finance new loans is 3 months.

(B) Amounts re-loaned to conduit borrowers. Any temporary period for proceeds held by a conduit borrower under a new loan from amounts described in paragraph (e)(4)(ii)(A) of this section is determined by treating the date the new loan is made as the issue date and by reducing the temporary period by the period the amounts were held by the issuer following the last repayment.

(iii) Construction issues. If all or a portion of a pooled financing issue qualifies as a construction issue under § 1.148-7(b)(6), paragraph (e)(4)(i) of this section is applied by substituting “2 years” for “6 months.”

(iv) Amounts re-loaned for qualified mortgage loans. The temporary period under this paragraph (e)(4) for proceeds from the sale, prepayment, or repayment of any qualified mortgage loan that are reasonably expected to be used to make or finance new qualified mortgage loans is 3 years.

(5) Temporary period for replacement proceeds—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided, replacement proceeds qualify for a temporary period of 30 days beginning on the date that the amounts are first treated as replacement proceeds.

(ii) Temporary period for bona fide debt service funds. Amounts in a bona fide debt service fund for an issue qualify for a temporary period of 13 months. If only a portion of a fund qualifies as a bona fide debt service fund, only that portion qualifies for this temporary period.

(6) Temporary period for investment proceeds. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (e), investment proceeds qualify for a temporary period of 1 year beginning on the date of receipt.

(7) Other amounts. Gross proceeds not otherwise eligible for a temporary period described in this paragraph (e) qualify for a temporary period of 30 days beginning on the date of receipt.

(f) Reserve or replacement funds—(1) General 10 percent limitation on funding with sale proceeds. An issue consists of arbitrage bonds if sale proceeds of the issue in excess of 10 percent of the stated principal amount of the issue are used to finance any reserve or replacement fund, without regard to whether those sale proceeds are invested in higher yielding investments. If an issue has more than a de minimis amount of original issue discount or premium, the issue price (net of pre-issuance accrued interest) is used to measure the 10-percent limitation in lieu of stated principal amount. This rule does not limit the use of amounts other than sale proceeds of an issue to fund a reserve or replacement fund.

(2) Exception from yield restriction for reasonably required reserve or replacement funds—(i) In general. The investment of amounts that are part of a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund in higher yielding investments will not cause an issue to consist of arbitrage bonds. A reasonably required reserve or replacement fund may consist of all or a portion of one or more funds, however labelled, derived from one or more sources. Amounts in a reserve or replacement fund in excess of the amount that is reasonably required are not part of a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund.

(ii) Size limitation. The amount of gross proceeds of an issue that qualifies as a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund may not exceed an amount equal to the least of 10 percent of the stated principal amount of the issue, the maximum annual principal and interest requirements on the issue, or 125 percent of the average annual principal and interest requirements on the issue. If an issue has more than a de minimis amount of original issue discount or premium, the issue price of the issue (net of pre-issuance accrued interest) is used to measure the 10 percent limitation in lieu of its stated principal amount. For a reserve or replacement fund that secures more than one issue (e.g. a parity reserve fund), the size limitation may be measured on an aggregate basis.

(iii) Valuation of investments. Investments in a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund may be valued in any reasonable, consistently applied manner that is permitted under § 1.148-5.

(iv) 150 percent debt service limitation on investment in nonpurpose investments for certain private activity bonds. Section 148(d)(3) contains additional limits on the amount of gross proceeds of an issue of private activity bonds, other than qualified 501(c)(3) bonds, that may be invested in higher yielding nonpurpose investments without causing the bonds to be arbitrage bonds. For purposes of these rules, initial temporary period means the temporary periods under paragraphs (e)(2), (e)(3), and (e)(4) of this section and under § 1.148-9(d)(2)(i), (ii), and (iii).

(3) Certain parity reserve funds. The limitation contained in paragraph (f)(1) of this section does not apply to an issue if the master legal document authorizing the issuance of the bonds (e.g., a master indenture) was adopted before August 16, 1986, and that document—

(i) Requires a reserve or replacement fund in excess of 10 percent of the sale proceeds, but not more than maximum annual principal and interest requirements;

(ii) Is not amended after August 31, 1986 (other than to permit the issuance of additional bonds as contemplated in the master legal document); and

(iii) Provides that bonds having a parity of security may not be issued by or on behalf of the issuer for the purposes provided under the document without satisfying the reserve fund requirements of the indenture.

(g) Minor portion. Under section 148(e), a bond of an issue is not an arbitrage bond solely because of the investment in higher yielding investments of gross proceeds of the issue in an amount not exceeding the lesser of—

(1) 5 percent of the sale proceeds of the issue; or

(2) $100,000.

(h) Certain waivers permitted. On or before the issue date, an issuer may elect to waive the right to invest in higher yielding investments during any temporary period under paragraph (e) of this section or as part of a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund under paragraph (f) of this section. At any time, an issuer may waive the right to invest in higher yielding investments as part of a minor portion under paragraph (g) of this section.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33520, June 18, 1993; 58 FR 44452, Aug. 23, 1993, as amended by T.D. 8538, 59 FR 24042, May 10, 1994; T.D. 8718, 62 FR 25507, May 9, 1997; T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46593, July 18, 2016]

§ 1.148-3 General arbitrage rebate rules.

(a) In general. Section 148(f) requires that certain earnings on nonpurpose investments allocable to the gross proceeds of an issue be paid to the United States to prevent the bonds in the issue from being arbitrage bonds. The arbitrage that must be rebated is based on the difference between the amount actually earned on nonpurpose investments and the amount that would have been earned if those investments had a yield equal to the yield on the issue.

(b) Definition of rebate amount. As of any date, the rebate amount for an issue is the excess of the future value, as of that date, of all receipts on nonpurpose investments over the future value, as of that date, of all payments on nonpurpose investments.

(c) Computation of future value of a payment or receipt. The future value of a payment or receipt at the end of any period is determined using the economic accrual method and equals the value of that payment or receipt when it is paid or received (or treated as paid or received), plus interest assumed to be earned and compounded over the period at a rate equal to the yield on the issue, using the same compounding interval and financial conventions used to compute that yield.

(d) Payments and receipts—(1) Definition of payments. For purposes of this section, payments are—

(i) Amounts actually or constructively paid to acquire a nonpurpose investment (or treated as paid to a commingled fund);

(ii) For a nonpurpose investment that is first allocated to an issue on a date after it is actually acquired (e.g., an investment that becomes allocable to transferred proceeds or to replacement proceeds) or that becomes subject to the rebate requirement on a date after it is actually acquired (e.g., an investment allocated to a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund for a construction issue at the end of the 2-year spending period), the value of that investment on that date;

(iii) For a nonpurpose investment that was allocated to an issue at the end of the preceding computation period, the value of that investment at the beginning of the computation period;

(iv) On the last day of each bond year during which there are amounts allocated to gross proceeds of an issue that are subject to the rebate requirement, and on the final maturity date, a computation credit of $1,400 for any bond year ending in 2007 and, for bond years ending after 2007, a computation credit in the amount determined under paragraph (d)(4) of this section; and

(v) Yield reduction payments on nonpurpose investments made pursuant to § 1.148-5(c).

(2) Definition of receipts. For purposes of this section, receipts are—

(i) Amounts actually or constructively received from a nonpurpose investment (including amounts treated as received from a commingled fund), such as earnings and return of principal;

(ii) For a nonpurpose investment that ceases to be allocated to an issue before its disposition or redemption date (e.g., an investment that becomes allocable to transferred proceeds of another issue or that ceases to be allocable to the issue pursuant to the universal cap under § 1.148-6) or that ceases to be subject to the rebate requirement on a date earlier than its disposition or redemption date (e.g., an investment allocated to a fund initially subject to the rebate requirement but that subsequently qualifies as a bona fide debt service fund), the value of that nonpurpose investment on that date; and

(iii) For a nonpurpose investment that is held at the end of a computation period, the value of that investment at the end of that period.

(3) Special rules for commingled funds. Section 1.148-6(e) provides special rules to limit certain of the required determinations of payments and receipts for investments of a commingled fund.

(4) Cost-of-living adjustment. For any calendar year after 2007, the $1,400 computation credit set forth in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section shall be increased by an amount equal to such dollar amount multiplied by the cost-of-living adjustment determined under section 1(f)(3) for such year, as modified by this paragraph (d)(4). In applying section 1(f)(3) to determine this cost-of-living adjustment, the reference to “calendar year 1992” in section 1(f)(3)(B) shall be changed to “calendar year 2006.” If any such increase determined under this paragraph (d)(4) is not a multiple of $10, such increase shall be rounded to the nearest multiple thereof.

(e) Computation dates—(1) In general. For a fixed yield issue, an issuer may treat any date as a computation date. For a variable yield issue, an issuer:

(i) May treat the last day of any bond year ending on or before the latest date on which the first rebate amount is required to be paid under paragraph (f) of this section (the first required payment date) as a computation date but may not change that treatment after the first payment date; and

(ii) After the first required payment date, must consistently treat either the end of each bond year or the end of each fifth bond year as computation dates and may not change these computation dates after the first required payment date.

(2) Final computation date. The date that an issue is discharged is the final computation date. For an issue retired within 3 years of the issue date, however, the final computation date need not occur before the end of 8 months after the issue date or during the period in which the issuer reasonably expects that any of the spending exceptions under § 1.148-7 will apply to the issue.

(f) Amount of required rebate installment payment—(1) Amount of interim rebate payments. The first rebate installment payment must be made for a computation date that is not later than 5 years after the issue date. Subsequent rebate installment payments must be made for a computation date that is not later than 5 years after the previous computation date for which an installment payment was made. A rebate installment payment must be in an amount that, when added to the future value, as of the computation date, of previous rebate payments made for the issue, equals at least 90 percent of the rebate amount as of that date.

(2) Amount of final rebate payment. For the final computation date, a final rebate payment must be paid in an amount that, when added to the future value of previous rebate payments made for the issue, equals 100 percent of the rebate amount as of that date.

(3) Future value of rebate payments. The future value of a rebate payment is determined under paragraph (c) of this section. This value is computed by taking into account recoveries of overpayments.

(g) Time and manner of payment. Each rebate payment must be paid no later than 60 days after the computation date to which the payment relates. Any rebate payment paid within this 60-day period may be treated as paid on the computation date to which it relates. A rebate payment is paid when it is filed with the Internal Revenue Service at the place or places designated by the Commissioner. A payment must be accompanied by the form provided by the Commissioner for this purpose.

(h) Penalty in lieu of loss of tax exemption—(1) In general. The failure to pay the correct rebate amount when required will cause the bonds of the issue to be arbitrage bonds, unless the Commissioner determines that the failure was not caused by willful neglect and the issuer promptly pays a penalty to the United States. If no bond of the issue is a private activity bond (other than a qualified 501(c)(3) bond), the penalty equals 50 percent of the rebate amount not paid when required to be paid, plus interest on that amount. Otherwise, the penalty equals 100 percent of the rebate amount not paid when required to be paid, plus interest on that amount.

(2) Interest on underpayments. Interest accrues at the underpayment rate under section 6621, beginning on the date the correct rebate amount is due and ending on the date 10 days before it is paid.

(3) Waivers of the penalty. The penalty is automatically waived if the rebate amount that the issuer failed to pay plus interest is paid within 180 days after discovery of the failure, unless, the Commissioner determines that the failure was due to willful neglect, or the issue is under examination by the Commissioner at any time during the period beginning on the date the failure first occurred and ending on the date 90 days after the receipt of the rebate amount. Generally, extensions of this 180-day period and waivers of the penalty in other cases will be granted by the Commissioner only in unusual circumstances. For purposes of this paragraph (h)(3), willful neglect does not include a failure that is attributable solely to the permissible retroactive selection of a short first bond year if the rebate amount that the issuer failed to pay is paid within 60 days of the selection of that bond year.

(4) Application to alternative penalty under § 1.148-7. Paragraphs (h) (1), (2), and (3) of this section apply to failures to pay penalty payments under § 1.148-7 (alternative penalty amounts) by substituting alternative penalty amounts for rebate amount and the last day of each spending period for computation date.

(i) Recovery of overpayment of rebate—(1) In general. An issuer may recover an overpayment for an issue of tax-exempt bonds by establishing to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that the overpayment occurred. An overpayment is the excess of the amount paid to the United States for an issue under section 148 over the sum of the rebate amount for the issue as of the most recent computation date and all amounts that are otherwise required to be paid under section 148 as of the date the recovery is requested.

(2) Limitations on recovery. (i) An overpayment may be recovered only to the extent that a recovery on the date that it is first requested would not result in an additional rebate amount if that date were treated as a computation date.

(ii) Except for overpayments of penalty in lieu of rebate under section 148(f)(4)(C)(vii) and § 1.148-7(k), an overpayment of less than $5,000 may not be recovered before the final computation date.

(3) Time and manner for requesting refund. (i) An issuer must request a refund of an overpayment (claim) no later than the date that is two years after the final computation date for the issue to which the overpayment relates (the filing deadline). The claim must be made using the form provided by the Commissioner for this purpose.

(ii) The Commissioner may request additional information to support a claim. The issuer must file the additional information by the date specified in the Commissioner's request, which date may be extended by the Commissioner if unusual circumstances warrant. An issuer will be given at least 21 calendar days to respond to a request for additional information.

(iii) A claim described in either paragraph (i)(3)(iii)(A) or (B) of this section that has been denied by the Commissioner may be appealed to the Office of Appeals under this paragraph (i)(3)(iii). Upon a determination in favor of the issuer, the Office of Appeals must return the undeveloped case to the Commissioner for further consideration of the substance of the claim.

(A) A claim is described in this paragraph (i)(3)(iii)(A) if the Commissioner asserts that the claim was filed after the filing deadline.

(B) A claim is described in this paragraph (i)(3)(iii)(B) if the Commissioner asserts that additional information to support the claim was not submitted within the time specified in the request for information or in any extension of such specified time period.

(j) Examples. The provisions of this section may be illustrated by the following examples.

Example 1. Calculation and payment of rebate for a fixed yield issue.

(i) Facts. On January 1, 1994, City A issues a fixed yield issue and invests all the sale proceeds of the issue ($49 million). There are no other gross proceeds. The issue has a yield of 7.0000 percent per year compounded semiannually (computed on a 30 day month/360 day year basis). City A receives amounts from the investment and immediately expends them for the governmental purpose of the issue as follows:

Date Amount
2/1/94 $3,000,000
5/1/94 5,000,000
1/1/95 5,000,000
9/1/95 20,000,000
3/1/96 22,000,000

(ii) First computation date. (A) City A chooses January 1, 1999, as its first computation date. This date is the latest date that may be used to compute the first required rebate installment payment. The rebate amount as of this date is computed by determining the future value of the receipts and the payments for the investment. The compounding interval is each 6-month (or shorter) period and the 30 day month/360 day year basis is used because these conventions were used to compute yield on the issue. The future value of these amounts, plus the computation credit, as of January 1, 1999, is:

Date Receipts
(payments)
FV (7.0000
percent)
1/1/94 ($49,000,000) ($69,119,339)
2/1/94 3,000,000 4,207,602
5/1/94 5,000,000 6,893,079
1/1/95 5,000,000 6,584,045
1/1/95 (1,000) (1,317)
9/1/95 20,000,000 25,155,464
1/1/96 (1,000) 1,229)
3/1/96 22,000,000 26,735,275
1/1/97 (1,000) (1,148)
Rebate amount (1/01/99) 452,432

(B) City A pays 90 percent of the rebate amount ($407,189) to the United States within 60 days of January 1, 1999.

(iii) Second computation date. (A) On the next required computation date, January 1, 2004, the future value of the payments and receipts is:

Date Receipts (payments) FV (7.0000 percent)
1/1/99 $452,432 $638,200
Rebate amount (1/01/04) 638,200

(B) As of this computation date, the future value of the payment treated as made on January 1, 1999, is $574,380, which equals at least 90 percent of the rebate amount as of this computation date ($638,200 × 0.9), and thus no additional rebate payment is due as of this date.

(iv) Final computation date. (A) On January 1, 2009, City A redeems all the bonds, and thus this date is the final computation date. The future value of the receipts and payments as of this date is:

Date Receipts (payments) FV (7.0000 percent)
1/1/04 $638,200 $900,244
1/1/09 (1,000) (1,000)
Rebate amount (1/01/09) 899,244

(B) As of this computation date, the future value of the payment made on January 1, 1999, is $810,220 and thus an additional rebate payment of $89,024 is due. This payment reflects the future value of the 10 percent unpaid portion, and thus would not be owed had the issuer paid the full rebate amount as of any prior computation date.

Example 2. Calculation and payment of rebate for a variable yield issue.

(i) Facts. On July 1, 1994, City B issues a variable yield issue and invests all of the sale proceeds of the issue ($30 million). There are no other gross proceeds. As of July 1, 1999, there are nonpurpose investments allocated to the issue. Prior to July 1, 1999, City B receives amounts from nonpurpose investments and immediately expends them for the governmental purpose of the issue as follows:

Date Amount
8/1/1994 $5,000,000
7/1/1995 8,000,000
12/1/1995 17,000,000
7/1/1999 650,000

(ii) First computation date. (A) City B treats the last day of the fifth bond year (July 1, 1999) as a computation date. The yield on the variable yield issue during the first computation period (the period beginning on the issue date and ending on the first computation date) is 6.0000 percent per year compounded semiannually. The value of the nonpurpose investments allocated to the issue as of July 1, 1999, is $3 million. The rebate amount as of July 1, 1999, is computed by determining the future value of the receipts and the payments for the nonpurpose investments. The compounding interval is each 6-month (or shorter) period and the 30 day month/360 day year basis is used because these conventions were used to compute yield on the issue. The future value of these amounts and of the computation date credits as of July 1, 1999, is:

Date Receipts (payments) FV (6.0000 percent)
7/1/1994 ($30,000,000) ($40,317,491)
8/1/1994 5,000,000 6,686,560
7/1/1995 (1,000) (1,267)
7/1/1995 8,000,000 10,134,161
12/1/1995 17,000,000 21,011,112
7/1/1996 (1,000) (1,194)
7/1/1997 (1,000) (1,126)
7/1/1998 (1,000) (1,061)
7/1/1999 3,000,000 3,000,000
7/1/1999 650,000 650,000
7/1/1999 (1,000) (1,000)
Rebate amount (7/01/1999) 1,158,694

(B) City B pays 90 percent of the rebate amount ($1,042,824.60) to the United States within 60 days of July 1, 1999.

(iii) Next computation date. (A) On July 1, 2004, City B redeems all of the bonds. Thus, the next computation date is July 1, 2004. On July 30, 1999, City B chose to compute rebate for periods following the first computation period by treating the end of each fifth bond year as a computation date. The yield during the second computation period is 5.0000 percent per year compounded semiannually. The computation of the rebate amount as of this date reflects the value of the nonpurpose investments allocated to the issue at the end of the prior computation period. On July 1, 2004, City B sells those nonpurpose investments for $3,925,000 and expends that amount for the governmental purpose of the issue.

(B) As of July 1, 2004, the future value of the rebate amount computed as of July 1, 1999, and of all other payments and receipts is:

Date Receipts (payments) FV (5.0000 percent)
7/1/1999 $1,158,694 $1,483,226
7/1/1999 (3,000,000) (3,840,254)
7/1/2000 (1,000) (1,218)
7/1/2001 (1,000) (1,160)
7/1/2002 (1,000) (1,104)
7/1/2003 (1,000) (1,051)
7/1/2004 (2,000) (2,000)
7/1/2004 3,925,000 3,925,000
1,561,439

(C) As of this computation date, the future value of the payment made on July 1, 1999, is $1,334,904 and thus an additional rebate payment of $226,535 is due.

(D) If the yield during the second computation period were, instead, 7.0000 percent, the rebate amount computed as of July 1, 2004, would be $1,320,891. The future value of the payment made on July 1, 1999, would be $1,471,007. Although the future value of the payment made on July 1, 1999 ($1,471,007), exceeds the rebate amount computed as of July 1, 2004 ($1,320,891), § 1.148-3(i) limits the amount recoverable as a defined overpayment of rebate under section 148 to the excess of the total “amount paid” over the sum of the amount determined under the future value method to be the “rebate amount” as of the most recent computation date and all other amounts that are otherwise required to be paid under section 148 as of the date the recovery is requested. Because the total amount that the issuer paid on July 1, 1999 ($1,042,824.60), does not exceed the rebate amount as of July 1, 2004 ($1,320,891), the issuer would not be entitled to recover any overpayment of rebate in this case.

(k) Bona fide debt service fund exception. Under section 148(f)(4)(A), the rebate requirement does not apply to amounts in certain bona fide debt service funds. An issue with an average annual debt service that is not in excess of $2,500,000 may be treated as satisfying the $100,000 limitation in section 148(f)(4)(A)(ii).

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33522, June 18, 1993; 58 FR 44452, Aug. 23, 1993, as amended by T.D. 8538, 59 FR 24042, May 10, 1994; T.D. 8476, 59 FR 24350, May 11, 1994; T.D. 8718, 62 FR 25507, May 9, 1997; T.D. 9701, 79 FR 67351, Nov. 13, 2014; T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46593, July 18, 2016]

§ 1.148-4 Yield on an issue of bonds.

(a) In general. The yield on an issue of bonds is used to apply investment yield restrictions under section 148(a) and to compute rebate liability under section 148(f). Yield is computed under the economic accrual method using any consistently applied compounding interval of not more than one year. A short first compounding interval and a short last compounding interval may be used. Yield is expressed as an annual percentage rate that is calculated to at least four decimal places (for example, 5.2525 percent). Other reasonable, standard financial conventions, such as the 30 days per month/360 days per year convention, may be used in computing yield but must be consistently applied. The yield on an issue that would be a purpose investment (absent section 148(b)(3)(A)) is equal to the yield on the conduit financing issue that financed that purpose investment.

(b) Computing yield on a fixed yield issue—(1) In general—(i) Yield on an issue. The yield on a fixed yield issue is the discount rate that, when used in computing the present value as of the issue date of all unconditionally payable payments of principal, interest, and fees for qualified guarantees on the issue and amounts reasonably expected to be paid as fees for qualified guarantees on the issue, produces an amount equal to the present value, using the same discount rate, of the aggregate issue price of bonds of the issue as of the issue date. Further, payments include certain amounts properly allocable to a qualified hedge. Yield on a fixed yield issue is computed as of the issue date and is not affected by subsequent unexpected events, except to the extent provided in paragraphs (b)(4) and (h)(3) of this section.

(ii) Yield on a bond. Yield on a fixed yield bond is computed in the same manner as yield on a fixed yield issue.

(2) Yield on certain fixed yield bonds subject to mandatory or contingent early redemption—(i) In general. The yield on a fixed yield issue that includes a bond subject to mandatory early redemption or expected contingent redemption is computed by treating that bond as redeemed on its reasonably expected early redemption date for an amount equal to its value on that date. Reasonable expectations are determined on the issue date. A bond is subject to mandatory early redemption if it is unconditionally payable in full before its final maturity date. A bond is subject to a contingent redemption if it must be, or is reasonably expected to be, redeemed prior to final maturity upon the occurrence of a contingency. A contingent redemption is taken into account only if the contingency is reasonably expected to occur, in which case the date of occurrence of the contingency must be reasonably estimated. For example, if bonds are reasonably expected to be redeemed early using excess revenues from general or special property taxes or benefit assessments or similar amounts, the reasonably expected redemption schedule is used to determine yield. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(i), excess proceeds calls for issues for which the requirements of § 1.148-2(e) (2) or (3) are satisfied, calamity calls, and refundings do not cause a bond to be subject to early redemption. The value of a bond is determined under paragraph (e) of this section.

(ii) Substantially identical bonds subject to mandatory early redemption. If substantially identical bonds of an issue are subject to specified mandatory redemptions prior to final maturity (e.g., a mandatory sinking fund redemption requirement), yield on that issue is computed by treating those bonds as redeemed in accordance with the redemption schedule for an amount equal to their value. Generally, bonds are substantially identical if the stated interest rate, maturity, and payment dates are the same. In computing the yield on an issue containing bonds described in this paragraph (b)(2)(ii), each of those bonds must be treated as redeemed at its present value, unless the stated redemption price at maturity of the bond does not exceed the issue price of the bond by more than one-fourth of one percent multiplied by the product of the stated redemption price at maturity and the number of years to the weighted average maturity date of the substantially identical bonds, in which case each of those bonds must be treated as redeemed at its outstanding stated principal amount, plus accrued, unpaid interest. Weighted average maturity is determined by taking into account the mandatory redemption schedule.

(3) Yield on certain fixed yield bonds subject to optional early redemption—(i) In general. If a fixed yield bond is subject to optional early redemption and is described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the yield on the issue containing the bond is computed by treating the bond as redeemed at its stated redemption price on the optional redemption date that would produce the lowest yield on that bond.

(ii) Fixed yield bonds subject to special yield calculation rule. A fixed yield bond is described in this paragraph (b)(3)(ii) only if it—

(A) Is subject to optional redemption within five years of the issue date, but only if the yield on the issue computed by assuming all bonds in the issue subject to redemption within 5 years of the issue date are redeemed at maturity is more than one-eighth of one percentage point higher than the yield on that issue computed by assuming all bonds subject to optional redemption within 5 years of the issue date are redeemed at the earliest date for their redemption;

(B) Is issued at an issue price that exceeds the stated redemption price at maturity by more than one-fourth of one percent multiplied by the product of the stated redemption price at maturity and the number of complete years to the first optional redemption date for the bond; or

(C) Bears interest at increasing interest rates (i.e., a stepped coupon bond).

(4) Yield recomputed upon transfer of certain rights associated with the bond. For purposes of § 1.148-3, as of the date of any transfer, waiver, modification, or similar transaction (collectively, a transfer) of any right that is part of the terms of a bond or is otherwise associated with a bond (e.g., a redemption right), in a transaction that is separate and apart from the original sale of the bond, the issue is treated as if it were retired and a new issue issued on the date of the transfer (reissued). The redemption price of the retired issue and the issue price of the new issue equal the aggregate values of all the bonds of the issue on the date of the transfer. In computing yield on the new issue, any amounts received by the issuer as consideration for the transfer are taken into account.

(5) Special aggregation rule treating certain bonds as a single fixed yield bond. Two variable yield bonds of an issue are treated in the aggregate as a single fixed yield bond if—

(i) Aggregate treatment would result in the single bond being a fixed yield bond; and

(ii) The terms of the bonds do not contain any features that could distort the aggregate fixed yield from what the yield would be if a single fixed yield bond were issued. For example, if an issue contains a bond bearing interest at a floating rate and a related bond bearing interest at a rate equal to a fixed rate minus that floating rate, those two bonds are treated as a single fixed yield bond only if neither bond may be redeemed unless the other bond is also redeemed at the same time.

(6) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph (b) may be illustrated by the following examples.

Example 1.

No early call—(i) Facts. On January 1, 1994, City A issues an issue consisting of four identical fixed yield bonds. The stated final maturity date of each bond is January 1, 2004, and no bond is subject to redemption before this date. Interest is payable on January 1 of each year at a rate of 6.0000 percent per year on the outstanding principal amount. The total stated principal amount of the bonds is $20 million. The issue price of the bonds $20,060,000.

(ii) Computation. The yield on the issue is computed by treating the bonds as retired at the stated maturity under the general rule of § 1.148-4(b)(1). The bonds are treated as redeemed for their stated redemption prices. The yield on the issue is 5.8731 percent per year compounded semiannually, computed as follows:

Date Payments PV (5.8731 percent)
1/1/1995 $1,200,000 $1,132,510
1/1/1996 1,200,000 1,068,816
1/1/1997 1,200,000 1,008,704
1/1/1998 1,200,000 951,973
1/1/1999 1,200,000 898,433
1/1/2000 1,200,000 847,903
1/1/2001 1,200,000 800,216
1/1/2002 1,200,000 755,210
1/1/2003 1,200,000 712,736
1/1/2004 21,200,000 11,883,498
20,060,000
Example 2. Mandatory calls.

(i) Facts. The facts are the same as in Example 1. In this case, however, the bonds are subject to mandatory sinking fund redemption on January 1 of each year, beginning January 1, 2001. On each sinking fund redemption date, one of the bonds is chosen by lottery and is required to be redeemed at par plus accrued interest.

(ii) Computation. Because the bonds are subject to specified redemptions, yield on the issue is computed by treating the bonds as redeemed in accordance with the redemption schedule under § 1.148-4(b)(2)(ii). Because the bonds are not sold at a discount, the bonds are treated as retired at their stated redemption prices. The yield on the issue is 5.8678 percent per year compounded semiannually, computed as follows:

Date Payments PV (5.8678 percent)
1/1/1995 $1,200,000 $1,132,569
1/1/1996 1,200,000 1,068,926
1/1/1997 1,200,000 1,008,860
1/1/1998 1,200,000 952,169
1/1/1999 1,200,000 898,664
1/1/2000 1,200,000 848,166
1/1/2001 6,200,000 4,135,942
1/1/2002 5,900,000 3,714,650
1/1/2003 5,600,000 3,327,647
1/1/2004 5,300,000 2,972,407
$20,060,000
Example 3. Optional early call.

(i) Facts. On January 1, 1994, City C issues an issue consisting of three bonds. Each bond has a stated principal amount of $10 million dollars and is issued for par. Bond X bears interest at 5 percent per year and matures on January 1, 1999. BondY bears interest at 6 percent per year and matures on January 1, 2002. Bond Z bears interest at 7 percent per year and matures on January 1, 2004. Bonds Y and Z are callable by the issuer at par plus accrued interest after December 31, 1998.

(ii) Computation. (A) The yield on the issue computed as if each bond is outstanding to its maturity is 6.0834 percent per year compounded semiannually, computed as follows:

Date Payments PV (6.0834 percent)
1/1/1995 $1,800,000 $1,695,299
1/1/1996 1,800,000 1,596,689
1/1/1997 1,800,000 1,503,814
1/1/1998 1,800,000 1,416,342
1/1/1999 11,800,000 8,744,830
1/1/2000 1,300,000 907,374
1/1/2001 1,300,000 854,595
1/1/2002 11,300,000 6,996,316
1/1/2003 700,000 408,190
1/1/2004 10,700,000 5,876,551
30,000,000

(B) The yield on the issue computed as if all bonds are called at the earliest date for redemption is 5.9126 percent per year compounded semiannually, computed as follows:

Date Payments PV (5.9126 percent)
1/1/1995 $1,800,000 $1,698,113
1/1/1996 1,800,000 1,601,994
1/1/1997 1,800,000 1,511,315
1/1/1998 1,800,000 1,425,769
1/1/1999 31,800,000 23,762,809
30,000,000

(C) Because the yield on the issue computed by assuming all bonds in the issue subject to redemption within 5 years of the issue date are redeemed at maturity is more than one-eighth of one percentage point higher than the yield on the issue computed by assuming all bonds subject to optional redemption within 5 years of the issue date are redeemed at the earliest date for their redemption, each bond is treated as redeemed on the date that would produce the lowest yield for the issue. The lowest yield on the issue would result from a redemption of all the bonds on January 1, 1999. Thus, the yield on the issue is 5.9126 percent per year compounded semiannually.

(c) Computing yield on a variable yield issue—(1) In general. The yield on a variable yield issue is computed separately for each computation period. The yield for each computation period is the discount rate that, when used in computing the present value as of the first day of the computation period of all the payments of principal and interest and fees for qualified guarantees that are attributable to the computation period, produces an amount equal to the present value, using the same discount rate, of the aggregate issue price (or deemed issue price, as determined in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section) of the bonds of the issue as of the first day of the computation period. The yield on a variable yield bond is computed in the same manner as the yield on a variable yield issue. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, yield on any fixed yield bond in a variable yield issue is computed in the same manner as the yield on a fixed yield issue as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.

(2) Payments on bonds included in yield for a computation period—(i) Payments in general. The payments on a bond that are attributable to a computation period include any amounts actually paid during the period for principal on the bond. Payments also include any amounts paid during the current period both for interest accruing on the bond during the current period and for interest accruing during the prior period that was included in the deemed issue price of the bond as accrued unpaid interest at the start of the current period under this paragraph (c)(2). Further, payments include any amounts properly allocable to fees for a qualified guarantee of the bond for the period and to any amounts properly allocable to a qualified hedge for the period.

(ii) Payments at actual redemption. If a bond is actually redeemed during a computation period, an amount equal to the greater of its value on the redemption date or the actual redemption price is a payment on the actual redemption date.

(iii) Payments for bonds outstanding at end of computation period. If a bond is outstanding at the end of a computation period, a payment equal to the bond's value is taken into account on the last day of that period.

(iv) Issue price for bonds outstanding at beginning of next computation period. A bond outstanding at the end of a computation period is treated as if it were immediately reissued on the next day for a deemed issue price equal to the value from the day before as determined under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section.

(3) Example. The provisions of this paragraph (c) may be illustrated by the following example.

Example.

On January 1, 1994, City A issues an issue of identical plain par bonds in an aggregate principal amount of $1,000,000. The bonds pay interest at a variable rate on each June 1 throughout the term of the issue. The entire principal amount of the bonds plus accrued, unpaid interest is payable on the final maturity date of January 1, 2000. No bond year is selected. On June 1, 1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, and 1998, interest in the amounts of $30,000, $55,000, $57,000, $56,000, and $45,000 is paid on the bonds. From June 1, 1998, to January 1, 1999, $30,000 of interest accrues on the bonds. From January 1, 1999, to June 1, 1999, another $35,000 of interest accrues. On June 1, 1999, the issuer actually pays $65,000 of interest. On January 1, 2000, $1,000,000 of principal and $38,000 of accrued interest are paid. The payments for the computation period starting on the issue date and ending on January 1, 1999, include all annual interest payments paid from the issue date to June 1, 1998. Because the issue is outstanding on January 1, 1999, it is treated as redeemed on that date for amount equal to its value ($1,000,000 plus accrued, unpaid interest of $30,000 under paragraph (e)(1) of this section). Thus, $1,030,000 is treated as paid on January 1, 1999. The issue is then treated as reissued on January 1, 1999, for $1,030,000. The payments for the next computation period starting on January 1, 1999, and ending on January 1, 2000, include the interest actually paid on the bonds during that period ($65,000 on June 1, 1999, plus $38,000 paid on January 1, 2000). Because the issue was actually redeemed on January 1, 2000, an amount equal to its stated redemption price is also treated as paid on January 1, 2000.

(d) Conversion from variable yield issue to fixed yield issue. For purposes of determining yield under this section, as of the first day on which a variable yield issue would qualify as a fixed yield issue if it were newly issued on that date (a conversion date), that issue is treated as if it were reissued as a fixed yield issue on the conversion date. The redemption price of the variable yield issue and the issue price of the fixed yield issue equal the aggregate values of all the bonds on the conversion date. Thus, for example, for plain par bonds (e.g., tender bonds), the deemed issue price would be the outstanding principal amount, plus accrued unpaid interest. If the conversion date occurs on a date other than a computation date, the issuer may continue to treat the issue as a variable yield issue until the next computation date, at which time it must be treated as converted to a fixed yield issue.

(e) Value of bonds—(1) Plain par bonds. Except as otherwise provided, the value of a plain par bond is its outstanding stated principal amount, plus accrued unpaid interest. The value of a plain par bond that is actually redeemed or treated as redeemed is its stated redemption price on the redemption date, plus accrued, unpaid interest.

(2) Other bonds. The value of a bond other than a plain par bond on a date is its present value on that date. The present value of a bond is computed under the economic accrual method taking into account all the unconditionally payable payments of principal, interest, and fees for a qualified guarantee to be paid on or after that date and using the yield on the bond as the discount rate, except that for purposes of § 1.148-6(b)(2) (relating to the universal cap), these values may be determined by consistently using the yield on the issue of which the bonds are a part. To determine yield on fixed yield bonds, see paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The rules contained in paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section apply for this purpose. In the case of bonds described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, the present value of those bonds on any date is computed using the yield to the final maturity date of those bonds as the discount rate. In determining the present value of a variable yield bond under this paragraph (e)(2), the initial interest rate on the bond established by the interest index or other interest rate setting mechanism is used to determine the interest payments on that bond.

(f) Qualified guarantees—(1) In general. Fees properly allocable to payments for a qualified guarantee for an issue (as determined under paragraph (f)(6) of this section) are treated as additional interest on that issue under section 148. A guarantee is a qualified guarantee if it satisfies each of the requirements of paragraphs (f)(2) through (f)(4) of this section.

(2) Interest savings. As of the date the guarantee is obtained, the issuer must reasonably expect that the present value of the fees for the guarantee will be less than the present value of the expected interest savings on the issue as a result of the guarantee. For this purpose, present value is computed using the yield on the issue, determined with regard to guarantee payments, as the discount rate.

(3) Guarantee in substance. The arrangement must create a guarantee in substance. The arrangement must impose a secondary liability that unconditionally shifts substantially all of the credit risk for all or part of the payments, such as payments for principal and interest, redemption prices, or tender prices, on the guaranteed bonds. Reasonable procedural or administrative requirements of the guarantee do not cause the guarantee to be conditional. In the case of a guarantee against failure to remarket a qualified tender bond, commercially reasonable limitations based on credit risk, such as limitations on payment in the event of default by the primary obligor or the bankruptcy of a long-term credit guarantor, do not cause the guarantee to be conditional. The guarantee may be in any form. The guarantor may not be a co-obligor. Thus, the guarantor must not expect to make any payments other than under a direct-pay letter of credit or similar arrangement for which the guarantor will be reimbursed immediately. The guarantor and any related parties together must not use more than 10 percent of the proceeds of the portion of the issue allocable to the guaranteed bonds.

(4) Reasonable charge—(i) In general. Fees for a guarantee must not exceed a reasonable, arm's-length charge for the transfer of credit risk. In complying with this requirement, the issuer may not rely on the representations of the guarantor.

(ii) Fees for services other than transfer of credit risk must be separately stated. A fee for a guarantee must not include any payment for any direct or indirect services other than the transfer of credit risk, unless the compensation for those other services is separately stated, reasonable, and excluded from the guarantee fee. Fees for the transfer of credit risk include fees for the guarantor's overhead and other costs relating to the transfer of credit risk. For example, a fee includes payment for services other than transfer of credit risk if—

(A) It includes payment for the cost of underwriting or remarketing bonds or for the cost of insurance for casualty to bond-financed property;

(B) It is refundable upon redemption of the guaranteed bond before the final maturity date and the amount of the refund would exceed the portion of the fee that had not been earned; or

(C) The requirements of § 1.148-2(e)(2) (relating to temporary periods for capital projects) are not satisfied, and the guarantor is not reasonably assured that the bonds will be repaid if the project to be financed is not completed.

(5) Guarantee of purpose investments. Except for guarantees of qualified mortgage loans and qualified student loans, a guarantee of payments on a purpose investment is a qualified guarantee of the issue if all payments on the purpose investment reasonably coincide with payments on the related bonds and the payments on the purpose investment are unconditionally payable no more than 6 months before the corresponding interest payment and 12 months before the corresponding principal payments on the bonds. This paragraph (f)(5) only applies if, in addition to satisfying the other requirements of this paragraph (f), the guarantee is, in substance, a guarantee of the bonds allocable to that purpose investment and to no other bonds except for bonds that are equally and ratably secured by purpose investments of the same conduit borrower.

(6) Allocation of qualified guarantee payments—(i) In general. Payments for a qualified guarantee must be allocated to bonds and to computation periods in a manner that properly reflects the proportionate credit risk for which the guarantor is compensated. Proportionate credit risk for bonds that are not substantially identical may be determined using any reasonable, consistently applied method. For example, this risk may be based on the ratio of the total principal and interest paid and to be paid on a guaranteed bond to the total principal and interest paid and to be paid on all bonds of the guaranteed issue. An allocation method generally is not reasonable, for example, if a substantial portion of the fee is allocated to the construction portion of the issue and a correspondingly insubstantial portion is allocated to the later years covered by the guarantee. Reasonable letter of credit set up fees may be allocated ratably during the initial term of the letter of credit. Upon an early redemption of a variable yield bond, fees otherwise allocable to the period after the redemption are allocated to remaining outstanding bonds of the issue or, if none remain outstanding, to the period before the redemption.

(ii) Safe harbor for allocation of qualified guarantee fees for variable yield issues. An allocation of non-level payments for a qualified guarantee for variable yield bonds is treated as meeting the requirements of paragraph (f)(6)(i) of this section if, for each bond year for which the guarantee is in effect, an equal amount (or for any short bond year, a proportionate amount of the equal amount) is treated as paid as of the beginning of that bond year. The present value of the annual amounts must equal the fee for the guarantee allocated to that bond, with present value computed as of the first day the guarantee is in effect by using as the discount rate the yield on the variable yield bonds covered by the guarantee, determined without regard to any fee allocated under this paragraph (f)(6)(ii).

(7) Refund or reduction of guarantee payments. If as a result of an investment of proceeds of a refunding issue in a refunding escrow, there will be a reduction in, or refund of, payments for a guarantee (savings), the savings must be treated as a reduction in the payments on the refunding issue.

(g) Yield on certain mortgage revenue and student loan bonds. For purposes of section 148 and this section, section 143(g)(2)(C)(ii) applies to the computation of yield on an issue of qualified mortgage bonds or qualified veterans' mortgage bonds. For purposes of applying section 148 and section 143(g) with respect to purpose investments allocable to a variable yield issue of qualified mortgage bonds, qualified veterans' mortgage bonds, or qualified student loan bonds that is reasonably expected as of the issue date to convert to a fixed yield issue, the yield may be computed over the term of the issue, and, if the yield is so computed, paragraph (d) of this section does not apply to the issue. As of any date, the yield over the term of the issue is based on—

(1) With respect to any bond of the issue that has not converted to a fixed and determinable yield on or before that date, the actual amounts paid or received to that date and the amounts that are reasonably expected (as of that date) to be paid or received with respect to that bond over the remaining term of the issue (taking into account prepayment assumptions under section 143(g)(2)(B)(iv), if applicable); and

(2) With respect to any bond of the issue that has converted to a fixed and determinable yield on or before that date, the actual amounts paid or received before that bond converted, if any, and the amount that was reasonably expected (on the date that bond converted) to be paid or received with respect to that bond over the remaining term of the issue (taking into account prepayment assumptions under section 143(g)(2)(B)(iv), if applicable).

(h) Qualified hedging transactions—(1) In general. Payments made or received by an issuer under a qualified hedge (as defined in paragraph (h)(2) of this section) relating to bonds of an issue are taken into account (as provided in paragraph (h)(3) of this section) to determine the yield on the issue. Except as provided in paragraphs (h)(4) and (h)(5)(ii)(E) of this section, the bonds to which a qualified hedge relates are treated as variable yield bonds from the issue date of the bonds. This paragraph (h) applies solely for purposes of sections 143(g), 148, and 149(d).

(2) Qualified hedge defined. Except as provided in paragraph (h)(5) of this section, the term qualified hedge means a contract that satisfies each of the following requirements:

(i) Hedge—(A) In general. The contract is entered into primarily to modify the issuer's risk of interest rate changes with respect to a bond (a hedge). For example, the contract may be an interest rate swap, an interest rate cap, a futures contract, a forward contract, or an option.

(B) Special rule for fixed rate issues. If the contract modifies the issuer's risk of interest rate changes with respect to a bond that is part of an issue that, absent the contract, would be a fixed rate issue, the contract must be entered into—

(1) No later than 15 days after the issue date (or the deemed issue date under paragraph (d) of this section) of the issue; or

(2) No later than the expiration of a qualified hedge with respect to bonds of that issue that satisfies paragraph (h)(2)(i)(B)(1) of this section; or

(3) No later than the expiration of a qualified hedge with respect to bonds of that issue that satisfies either paragraph (h)(2)(i)(B)(2) of this section or this paragraph (h)(2)(i)(B)(3).

(C) Contracts with certain acquisition payments. If a hedge provider makes a single payment to the issuer (e.g., a payment for an off-market swap) in connection with the acquisition of a contract, the issuer may treat a portion of that contract as a hedge provided—

(1) The hedge provider's payment to the issuer and the issuer's payments under the contract in excess of those that it would make if the contract bore rates equal to the on-market rates for the contract (determined as of the date the parties enter into the contract) are separately identified in a certification of the hedge provider; and

(2) The payments described in paragraph (h)(2)(i)(C)(1) of this section are not treated as payments on the hedge.

(ii) No significant investment element—(A) In general. The contract does not contain a significant investment element. Except as provided in paragraph (h)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, a contract contains a significant investment element if a significant portion of any payment by one party relates to a conditional or unconditional obligation by the other party to make a payment on a different date. Examples of contracts that contain a significant investment element are a debt instrument held by the issuer; an interest rate swap requiring any payments other than periodic payments, within the meaning of § 1.446-3 (periodic payments) (e.g., a payment for an off-market swap or prepayment of part or all of one leg of a swap); and an interest rate cap requiring the issuer's premium for the cap to be paid in a single, up-front payment. Solely for purposes of determining if a hedge is a qualified hedge under this section, payments that an issuer receives pursuant to the terms of a hedge that are equal to the issuer's cost of funds are treated as periodic payments under § 1.446-3 without regard to whether the payments are calculated by reference to a “specified index” described in § 1.446-3(c)(2). Accordingly, a hedge does not have a significant investment element under this paragraph (h)(2)(ii)(A) solely because an issuer receives payments pursuant to the terms of a hedge that are computed to be equal to the issuer's cost of funds, such as the issuer's actual market-based tax-exempt variable interest rate on its bonds.

(B) Special level payment rule for interest rate caps. An interest rate cap does not contain a significant investment element if—

(1) All payments to the issuer by the hedge provider are periodic payments;

(2) The issuer makes payments for the cap at the same time as periodic payments by the hedge provider must be made if the specified index (within the meaning of § 1.446-3) of the cap is above the strike price of the cap; and

(3) Each payment by the issuer bears the same ratio to the notional principal amount (within the meaning of § 1.446-3) that is used to compute the hedge provider's payment, if any, on that date.

(iii) Parties. The contract is entered into between the issuer or the political subdivision on behalf of which the issuer issues the bonds (collectively referred to in this paragraph (h) as the issuer) and a provider that is not a related party (the hedge provider).

(iv) Hedged bonds. The contract covers, in whole or in part, all of one or more groups of substantially identical bonds in the issue (i.e., all of the bonds having the same interest rate, maturity, and terms). Thus, for example, a qualified hedge may include a hedge of all or a pro rata portion of each interest payment on the variable rate bonds in an issue for the first 5 years following their issuance. For purposes of this paragraph (h), unless the context clearly requires otherwise, hedged bonds means the specific bonds or portions thereof covered by a hedge.

(v) Interest-based contract and size and scope of hedge. The contract is primarily interest-based (for example, a hedge based on a debt index, including a tax-exempt debt index or a taxable debt index, rather than an equity index). In addition, the size and scope of the hedge under the contract is limited to that which is reasonably necessary to hedge the issuer's risk with respect to interest rate changes on the hedged bonds. For example, a contract is limited to hedging an issuer's risk with respect to interest rate changes on the hedged bonds if the hedge is based on the principal amount and the reasonably expected interest payments of the hedged bonds. For anticipatory hedges under paragraph (h)(5) of this section, the size and scope limitation applies based on the reasonably expected terms of the hedged bonds to be issued. A contract is not primarily interest based unless—

(A) The hedged bond, without regard to the contract, is either a fixed rate bond, a variable rate debt instrument within the meaning of § 1.1275-5 provided the rate is not based on an objective rate other than a qualified inverse floating rate or a qualified inflation rate, a tax-exempt obligation described in § 1.1275-4(d)(2), or an inflation-indexed debt instrument within the meaning of § 1.1275-7; and

(B) As a result of treating all payments on (and receipts from) the contract as additional payments on (and receipts from) the hedged bond, the resulting bond would be substantially similar to either a fixed rate bond, a variable rate debt instrument within the meaning of § 1.1275-5 provided the rate is not based on an objective rate other than a qualified inverse floating rate or a qualified inflation rate, a tax-exempt obligation described in § 1.1275-4(d)(2), or an inflation-indexed debt instrument within the meaning of § 1.1275-7. For this purpose, differences that would not prevent the resulting bond from being substantially similar to another type of bond include: a difference between the interest rate used to compute payments on the hedged bond and the interest rate used to compute payments on the hedge where one interest rate is substantially similar to the other; the difference resulting from the payment of a fixed premium for a cap (for example, payments for a cap that are made in other than level installments); and the difference resulting from the allocation of a termination payment where the termination was not expected as of the date the contract was entered into.

(vi) Payments closely correspond. The payments received by the issuer from the hedge provider under the contract correspond closely in time to either the specific payments being hedged on the hedged bonds or specific payments required to be made pursuant to the bond documents, regardless of the hedge, to a sinking fund, debt service fund, or similar fund maintained for the issue of which the hedged bond is a part. For this purpose, such payments will be treated as corresponding closely in time under this paragraph (h)(2)(vi) if they are made within 90 calendar days of each other.

(vii) Source of payments. Payments to the hedge provider are reasonably expected to be made from the same source of funds that, absent the hedge, would be reasonably expected to be used to pay principal and interest on the hedged bonds.

(viii) Identification—(A) In general. The actual issuer must identify the contract on its books and records maintained for the hedged bonds not later than 15 calendar days after the date on which there is a binding agreement to enter into a hedge contract (for example, the date of a hedge pricing confirmation, as distinguished from the closing date for the hedge or start date for payments on the hedge, if different). The identification must specify the name of the hedge provider, the terms of the contract, the hedged bonds, and include a hedge provider's certification as described in paragraph (h)(2)(viii)(B) of this section. The identification must contain sufficient detail to establish that the requirements of this paragraph (h)(2) and, if applicable, paragraph (h)(4) of this section are satisfied. In addition, the existence of the hedge must be noted on the first form relating to the issue of which the hedged bonds are a part that is filed with the Internal Revenue Service on or after the date on which the contract is identified pursuant to this paragraph (h)(2)(viii).

(B) Hedge provider's certification. The hedge provider's certification must—

(1) Provide that the terms of the hedge were agreed to between a willing buyer and willing seller in a bona fide, arm's-length transaction;

(2) Provide that the hedge provider has not made, and does not expect to make, any payment to any third party for the benefit of the issuer in connection with the hedge, except for any such third-party payment that the hedge provider expressly identifies in the documents for the hedge;

(3) Provide that the amounts payable to the hedge provider pursuant to the hedge do not include any payments for underwriting or other services unrelated to the hedge provider's obligations under the hedge, except for any such payment that the hedge provider expressly identifies in the documents for the hedge; and

(4) Contain any other statements that the Commissioner may provide in guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin. See § 601.601(d)(2)(ii) of this chapter.

(3) Accounting for qualified hedges—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (h)(4) of this section, payments made or received by the issuer under a qualified hedge are treated as payments made or received, as appropriate, on the hedged bonds that are taken into account in determining the yield on those bonds. These payments are reasonably allocated to the hedged bonds in the period to which the payments relate, as determined under paragraph (h)(3)(iii) of this section. Payments made or received by the issuer include payments deemed made or received when a contract is terminated or deemed terminated under this paragraph (h)(3). Payments reasonably allocable to the modification of risk of interest rate changes and to the hedge provider's overhead under this paragraph (h) are included as payments made or received under a qualified hedge.

(ii) Exclusions from hedge. If any payment for services or other items under the contract is not expressly treated by paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section as a payment under the qualified hedge, the payment is not a payment with respect to a qualified hedge.

(iii) Timing and allocation of payments. Except as provided in paragraphs (h)(3)(iv) and (h)(5) of this section, payments made or received by the issuer under a qualified hedge are taken into account in the same period in which those amounts would be treated as income or deductions under § 1.446-4 (without regard to § 1.446-4(a)(2)(iv)) and are adjusted as necessary to reflect the end of a computation period and the start of a new computation period.

(iv) Accounting for modifications and terminations—(A) Modification defined. A modification of a qualified hedge includes, without limitation, a change in the terms of the hedge or an issuer's acquisition of another hedge with terms that have the effect of modifying an issuer's risk of interest rate changes or other terms of an existing qualified hedge. For example, if the issuer enters into a qualified hedge that is an interest rate swap under which it receives payments based on the Securities Industry and Financial Market Association (SIFMA) Municipal Swap Index and subsequently enters a second hedge (with the same or different provider) that limits the issuer's exposure under the existing qualified hedge to variations in the SIFMA Municipal Swap Index, the new hedge modifies the qualified hedge.

(B) Termination defined. A termination means either an actual termination or a deemed termination of a qualified hedge. Except as otherwise provided, an actual termination of a qualified hedge occurs to the extent that the issuer sells, disposes of, or otherwise actually terminates all or a portion of the hedge. A deemed termination of a qualified hedge occurs if the hedge ceases to meet the requirements for a qualified hedge; the issuer makes a modification (as defined in paragraph (h)(3)(iv)(A) of this section) that is material either in kind or in extent and, therefore, results in a deemed exchange of the hedge and a realization event to the issuer under section 1001; or the issuer redeems all or a portion of the hedged bonds.

(C) Special rules for certain modifications when the hedge remains qualified. A modification of a qualified hedge that otherwise would result in a deemed termination under paragraph (h)(3)(iv)(B) of this section does not result in such a termination if the modified hedge is re-tested for qualification as a qualified hedge as of the date of the modification, the modified hedge meets the requirements for a qualified hedge as of such date, and the modified hedge is treated as a qualified hedge prospectively in determining the yield on the hedged bonds. For purposes of this paragraph (h)(3)(iv)(C), when determining whether the modified hedge is qualified, the fact that the existing qualified hedge is off-market as of the date of the modification is disregarded and the identification requirement in paragraph (h)(2)(viii) of this section applies by measuring the time period for identification from the date of the modification and without regard to the requirement for a hedge provider's certification.

(D) Continuations of certain qualified hedges in refundings. If hedged bonds are redeemed using proceeds of a refunding issue, the qualified hedge for the refunded bonds is not actually terminated, and the hedge meets the requirements for a qualified hedge for the refunding bonds as of the issue date of the refunding bonds, then no termination of the hedge occurs and the hedge instead is treated as a qualified hedge for the refunding bonds. For purposes of this paragraph (h)(3)(iv)(D), when determining whether the hedge is a qualified hedge for the refunding bonds, the fact that the hedge is off-market with respect to the refunding bonds as of the issue date of the refunding bonds is disregarded and the identification requirement in paragraph (h)(2)(viii) of this section applies by measuring the time period for identification from the issue date of the refunding bonds and without regard to the requirement for a hedge provider's certification.

(E) General allocation rules for hedge termination payments. Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (h)(3)(iv)(F), (G), and (H) of this section, a payment made or received by an issuer to terminate a qualified hedge, or a payment deemed made or received for a deemed termination, is treated as a payment made or received, as appropriate, on the hedged bonds. Upon an actual termination or a deemed termination of a qualified hedge, the amount that an issuer may treat as a termination payment made or received on the hedged bonds is the fair market value of the qualified hedge on its termination date, based on all of the facts and circumstances. Except as otherwise provided, a termination payment is reasonably allocated to the remaining periods originally covered by the terminated hedge in a manner that reflects the economic substance of the hedge.

(F) Special rule for terminations when bonds are redeemed. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (h)(3)(iv)(F) and in paragraph (h)(3)(iv)(G) of this section, when a qualified hedge is deemed terminated because the hedged bonds are redeemed, the termination payment as determined under paragraph (h)(3)(iv)(E) of this section is treated as made or received on that date. When hedged bonds are redeemed, any payment received by the issuer on termination of a hedge, including a termination payment or a deemed termination payment, reduces, but not below zero, the interest payments made by the issuer on the hedged bonds in the computation period ending on the termination date. The remainder of the payment, if any, is reasonably allocated over the bond years in the immediately preceding computation period or periods to the extent necessary to eliminate the excess.

(G) Special rules for refundings. When there is a termination of a qualified hedge because there is a refunding of the hedged bonds, to the extent that the hedged bonds are redeemed using the proceeds of a refunding issue, the termination payment is accounted for under paragraph (h)(3)(iv)(E) of this section by treating it as a payment on the refunding issue, rather than the hedged bonds. In addition, to the extent that the refunding issue is redeemed during the period to which the termination payment has been allocated to that issue, paragraph (h)(3)(iv)(F) of this section applies to the termination payment by treating it as a payment on the redeemed refunding issue.

(H) Safe harbor for allocation of certain termination payments. A payment to terminate a qualified hedge does not result in that hedge failing to satisfy the applicable provisions of paragraph (h)(3)(iv)(E) of this section if that payment is allocated in accordance with this paragraph (h)(3)(iv)(H). For an issue that is a variable yield issue after termination of a qualified hedge, an amount must be allocated to each date on which the hedge provider's payment, if any, would have been made had the hedge not been terminated. The amounts allocated to each date must bear the same ratio to the notional principal amount (within the meaning of § 1.446-3) that would have been used to compute the hedge provider's payment, if any, on that date, and the sum of the present values of those amounts must equal the present value of the termination payment. Present value is computed as of the day the qualified hedge is terminated, using the yield on the hedged bonds, determined without regard to the termination payment. The yield used for this purpose is computed for the period beginning on the first date the qualified hedge is in effect and ending on the date the qualified hedge is terminated. On the other hand, for an issue that is a fixed yield issue after termination of a qualified hedge, the termination payment is taken into account as a single payment on the date it is paid.

(4) Certain variable yield bonds treated as fixed yield bonds—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (h)(4), if the issuer of variable yield bonds enters into a qualified hedge, the hedged bonds are treated as fixed yield bonds paying a fixed interest rate if:

(A) Maturity. The term of the hedge is equal to the entire period during which the hedged bonds bear interest at variable interest rates, and the issuer does not reasonably expect that the hedge will be terminated before the end of that period.

(B) Payments closely correspond. Payments to be received under the hedge correspond closely in time to the hedged portion of payments on the hedged bonds. Hedge payments received within 15 days of the related payments on the hedged bonds generally so correspond.

(C) Aggregate payments fixed. Taking into account all payments made and received under the hedge and all payments on the hedged bonds (i.e., after netting all payments), the issuer's aggregate payments are fixed and determinable as of a date not later than 15 days after the issue date of the hedged bonds. Payments on bonds are treated as fixed for purposes of this paragraph (h)(4)(i)(C) if payments on the bonds are based, in whole or in part, on one interest rate, payments on the hedge are based, in whole or in part, on a second interest rate that is substantially the same as, but not identical to, the first interest rate and payments on the bonds would be fixed if the two rates were identical. Rates are treated as substantially the same if they are reasonably expected to be substantially the same throughout the term of the hedge. For example, an objective 30-day tax-exempt variable rate index or other objective index may be substantially the same as an issuer's individual 30-day interest rate. A hedge based on a taxable interest rate or taxable interest index cannot meet the requirements of this paragraph (h)(4)(i)(C) unless either—

(1) The hedge is an anticipatory hedge that is terminated or otherwise closed substantially contemporaneously with the issuance of the hedged bond in accordance with paragraph (h)(5)(ii) or (iii) of this section; or

(2) The issuer's payments on the hedged bonds and the hedge provider's payments on the hedge are based on identical interest rates.

(ii) Accounting. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (h)(4)(ii), in determining yield on the hedged bonds, all the issuer's payments on the hedged bonds and all payments made and received on a hedge described in paragraph (h)(4)(i) of this section are taken into account. If payments on the bonds and payments on the hedge are based, in whole or in part, on variable interest rates that are substantially the same within the meaning of paragraph (h)(4)(i)(C) of this section (but not identical), yield on the issue is determined by treating the variable interest rates as identical. For example, if variable rate bonds bearing interest at a weekly rate equal to the rate necessary to remarket the bonds at par are hedged with an interest rate swap under which the issuer receives payments based on a short-term floating rate index that is substantially the same as, but not identical to, the weekly rate on the bonds, the interest payments on the bonds are treated as equal to the payments received by the issuer under the swap for purposes of computing the yield on the bonds.

(iii) Effect of termination—(A) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (h)(4)(iii) and paragraph (h)(5) of this section, the issue of which the hedged bonds are a part is treated as if it were reissued as of the termination date of the qualified hedge covered by paragraph (h)(4)(i) of this section in determining yield on the hedged bonds for purposes of § 1.148-3. The redemption price of the retired issue and the issue price of the new issue equal the aggregate values of all the bonds of the issue on the termination date. In computing the yield on the new issue for this purpose, any termination payment is accounted for under paragraph (h)(3)(iv) of this section, applied by treating the termination payment as made or received on the new issue under this paragraph (h)(4)(iii).

(B) Effect of early termination. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (h)(4)(iii), the general rules of paragraph (h)(4)(i) of this section do not apply in determining the yield on the hedged bonds for purposes of § 1.148-3 if the hedge is terminated or deemed terminated within 5 years after the issue date of the issue of which the hedged bonds are a part. Thus, the hedged bonds are treated as variable yield bonds for purposes of § 1.148-3 from the issue date.

(C) Certain terminations disregarded. This paragraph (h)(4)(iii) does not apply to a termination if, based on the facts and circumstances (e.g., taking into account both the termination and any qualified hedge that immediately replaces the terminated hedge), there is no change in the yield.

(iv) Consequences of certain modifications. The special rules under paragraph (h)(4)(iii) of this section regarding the effects of termination of a qualified hedge of fixed yield hedged bonds apply to a modification described in paragraph (h)(3)(iv)(C) of this section. Thus, such a modification is treated as a termination for purposes of paragraph (h)(4)(iii) of this section unless the rule in paragraph (h)(4)(iii)(C) applies.

(5) Contracts entered into before issue date of hedged bond—(i) In general. A contract does not fail to be a hedge under paragraph (h)(2)(i) of this section solely because it is entered into before the issue date of the hedged bond. However, that contract must be one to which either paragraph (h)(5)(ii) or (h)(5)(iii) of this section applies.

(ii) Contracts expected to be closed substantially contemporaneously with the issue date of hedged bond—(A) Application. This paragraph (h)(5)(ii) applies to a contract if, on the date the contract is identified, the issuer reasonably expects to terminate or otherwise close (terminate) the contract substantially contemporaneously with the issue date of the hedged bond.

(B) Contract terminated. If a contract to which this paragraph (h)(5)(ii) applies is terminated substantially contemporaneously with the issue date of the hedged bond, the amount paid or received, or deemed to be paid or received, by the issuer in connection with the issuance of the hedged bond to terminate the contract is treated as an adjustment to the issue price of the hedged bond and as an adjustment to the sale proceeds of the hedged bond for purposes of section 148. Amounts paid or received, or deemed to be paid or received, before the issue date of the hedged bond are treated as paid or received on the issue date in an amount equal to the future value of the payment or receipt on that date. For this purpose, future value is computed using yield on the hedged bond without taking into account amounts paid or received (or deemed paid or received) on the contract.

(C) Contract not terminated. If a contract to which this paragraph (h)(5)(ii) applies is not terminated substantially contemporaneously with the issue date of the hedged bond, the contract is deemed terminated for its fair market value as of the issue date of the hedged bond. Once a contract has been deemed terminated pursuant to this paragraph (h)(5)(ii)(C), payments on and receipts from the contract are no longer taken into account under this paragraph (h) for purposes of determining yield on the hedged bond.

(D) Relation to other requirements of a qualified hedge. Payments made in connection with the issuance of a bond to terminate a contract to which this paragraph (h)(5)(ii) applies do not prevent the contract from satisfying the requirements of paragraph (h)(2)(vi) of this section.

(E) Fixed yield treatment. A bond that is hedged with a contract to which this paragraph (h)(5)(ii) applies does not fail to be a fixed yield bond if, taking into account payments on the contract and the payments to be made on the bond, the bond satisfies the definition of fixed yield bond. See also paragraph (h)(4) of this section.

(iii) Contracts expected not to be closed substantially contemporaneously with the issue date of hedged bond—(A) Application. This paragraph (h)(5)(iii) applies to a contract if, on the date the contract is identified, the issuer does not reasonably expect to terminate the contract substantially contemporaneously with the issue date of the hedge bond.

(B) Contract terminated. If a contract to which this paragraph (h)(5)(iii) applies is terminated in connection with the issuance of the hedged bond, the amount paid or received, or deemed to be paid or received, by the issuer to terminate the contract is treated as an adjustment to the issue price of the hedged bond and as an adjustment to the sale proceeds of the hedged bond for purposes of section 148.

(C) Contract not terminated. If a contract to which this paragraph (h)(5)(iii) applies is not terminated substantially contemporaneously with the issue date of the hedged bond, no payments with respect to the hedge made by the issuer before the issue date of the hedged bond are taken into account under this section.

(iv) Identification. The identification required under paragraph (h)(2)(viii) of this section must specify the reasonably expected governmental purpose, issue price, maturity, and issue date of the hedged bond, the manner in which interest is reasonably expected to be computed, and whether paragraph (h)(5)(ii) or (h)(5)(iii) of this section applies to the contract. If an issuer identifies a contract under this paragraph (h)(5)(iv) that would be a qualified hedge with respect to the anticipated bond, but does not issue the anticipated bond on the identified issue date, the contract is taken into account as a qualified hedge of any bond of the issuer that is issued for the identified governmental purpose within a reasonable interval around the identified issue date of the anticipated bond.

(6) Authority of the Commissioner. The Commissioner, by publication of a revenue ruling or revenue procedure (see § 601.601(d)(2) of this chapter), may specify contracts that, although they do not meet the requirements of paragraph (h)(2) of this section, are qualified hedges or, although they do not meet the requirements of paragraph (h)(4) of this section, cause the hedged bonds to be treated as fixed yield bonds.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33524, June 18, 1993; 58 FR 44452, Aug. 23, 1993, as amended by T.D. 8538, 59 FR 24042, May 10, 1994; T.D. 8718, 62 FR 25507, May 9, 1997; T.D. 8838, 64 FR 48547, Sept. 7, 1999; T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46593, July 18, 2016; 83 FR 14175, Apr. 3, 2018]

§ 1.148-5 Yield and valuation of investments.

(a) In general. This section provides rules for computing the yield and value of investments allocated to an issue for various purposes under section 148.

(b) Yield on an investment—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided, the yield on an investment allocated to an issue is computed under the economic accrual method, using the same compounding interval and financial conventions used to compute the yield on the issue. The yield on an investment allocated to an issue is the discount rate that, when used in computing the present value as of the date the investment is first allocated to the issue of all unconditionally payable receipts from the investment, produces an amount equal to the present value of all unconditionally payable payments for the investment. For this purpose, payments means amounts to be actually or constructively paid to acquire the investment, and receipts means amounts to be actually or constructively received from the investment, such as earnings and return of principal. The yield on a variable rate investment is determined in a manner comparable to the determination of the yield on a variable rate issue. For an issue of qualified mortgage bonds, qualified veterans' mortgage bonds, or qualified student loan bonds on which interest is paid semiannually, all regular monthly loan payments to be received during a semiannual debt service period may be treated as received at the end of that period. In addition, for any conduit financing issue, payments made by the conduit borrower are not treated as paid until the conduit borrower ceases to receive the benefit of earnings on those amounts.

(2) Yield on a separate class of investments—(i) In general. For purposes of the yield restriction rules of section 148(a) and § 1.148-2, yield is computed separately for each class of investments. For this purpose, in determining the yield on a separate class of investments, the yield on each individual investment within the class is blended with the yield on other individual investments within the class, whether or not held concurrently, by treating those investments as a single investment. The yields on investments that are not within the same class are not blended.

(ii) Separate classes of investments. Each of the following is a separate class of investments—

(A) Each category of yield restricted purpose investment and program investment that is subject to a different definition of materially higher under § 1.148-2(d)(2);

(B) Yield-restricted nonpurpose investments; and

(C) All other nonpurpose investments;

(iii) Permissive application of single investment rules to certain yield restricted investments for all purposes of section 148. For all purposes of section 148, if an issuer reasonably expects as of the issue date to establish and maintain a sinking fund solely to reduce the yield on the investments in a refunding escrow, then the issuer may treat all of the yield restricted nonpurpose investments in the refunding escrow and that sinking fund as a single investment having a single yield, determined under this paragraph (b)(2). Thus, an issuer may not treat the nonpurpose investments in a reasonably required reserve fund and a refunding escrow as a single investment having a single yield under this paragraph (b)(2)(iii).

(iv) Mandatory application of single investment rules for refunding escrows for all purposes of section 148. For all purposes of section 148, in computing the yield on yield restricted investments allocable to proceeds (i.e., sale proceeds, investment proceeds, and transferred proceeds) of a refunding issue that are held in one or more refunding escrows, the individual investments are treated as a single investment having a single yield, whether or not held concurrently. For example, this single investment includes both the individual investments allocable to sale and investment proceeds of a refunding issue that are held in one refunding escrow for a prior issue and the investments allocable to transferred proceeds of that refunding issue that are held in another refunding escrow.

(3) Investments to be held beyond issue's maturity or beyond temporary period. In computing the yield on investments allocable to an issue that are to be held beyond the reasonably expected redemption date of the issue, those investments are treated as sold for an amount equal to their value on that date. In computing the yield on investments that are held beyond an applicable temporary period under § 1.148-2, for purposes of § 1.148-2 those investments may be treated as purchased for an amount equal to their fair market value as of the end of the temporary period.

(4) Consistent redemption assumptions on purpose investments. The yield on purpose investments allocable to an issue is computed using the same redemption assumptions used to compute the yield on the issue. Yield on purpose investments allocable to an issue of qualified mortgage bonds and qualified veterans' mortgage bonds must be determined in a manner that is consistent with, and using the assumptions required by, section 143(g)(2)(B).

(5) Student loan special allowance payments included in yield. Except as provided in § 1.148-11(e), the yield on qualified student loans is computed by including as receipts any special allowance payments made by the Secretary of Education pursuant to section 438 of the Higher Education Act of 1965.

(c) Yield reduction payments to the United States—(1) In general. In determining the yield on an investment to which this paragraph (c) applies, any amount paid to the United States in accordance with this paragraph (c), including a rebate amount, is treated as a payment for that investment that reduces the yield on that investment.

(2) Manner of payment—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, an amount is paid under this paragraph (c) if it is paid to the United States at the same time and in the same manner as rebate amounts are required to be paid or at such other time or in such manner as the Commissioner may prescribe. For example, yield reduction payments must be made on or before the date of required rebate installment payments as described in §§ 1.148-3(f), (g), and (h). The provisions of § 1.148-3(i) apply to payments made under this paragraph (c).

(ii) Special rule for purpose investments. For purpose investments allocable to an issue—

(A) No amounts are required to be paid to satisfy this paragraph (c) until the earlier of the end of the tenth bond year after the issue date of the issue or 60 days after the date on which the issue is no longer outstanding; and

(B) For payments made prior to the date on which the issue is retired, the issuer need not pay more than 75 percent of the amount otherwise required to be paid as of the date to which the payment relates.

(3) Applicability of special yield reduction rule. Paragraph (c) applies only to investments that are described in at least one of paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (ix) of this section and, except as otherwise expressly provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (ix) of this section, that are allocated to proceeds of an issue other than gross proceeds of an advance refunding issue.

(i) Nonpurpose investments allocated to proceeds of an issue that qualified for certain temporary periods. Nonpurpose investments allocable to proceeds of an issue that qualified for one of the temporary periods available for capital projects, working capital expenditures, pooled financings, or investment proceeds under § 1.148-2(e)(2), (3), (4), or (6), respectively.

(ii) Investments allocable to certain variable yield issues. Investments allocable to a variable yield issue during any computation period in which at least 5 percent of the value of the issue is represented by variable yield bonds, unless the issue is an issue of hedge bonds (as defined in section 149(g)(3)(A)).

(iii) Nonpurpose investments allocable to certain transferred proceeds. Nonpurpose investments allocable to transferred proceeds of—

(A) A current refunding issue to the extent necessary to reduce the yield on those investments to satisfy yield restrictions under section 148(a); or

(B) An advance refunding issue to the extent that investment of the refunding escrows allocable to the proceeds, other than transferred proceeds, of the refunding issue in zero-yielding nonpurpose investments is insufficient to satisfy yield restrictions under section 148(a).

(iv) Purpose investments allocable to qualified student loans and qualified mortgage loans. Purpose investments allocable to qualified student loans and qualified mortgage loans.

(v) Nonpurpose investments allocable to gross proceeds in certain reserve funds. Nonpurpose investments allocable to gross proceeds of an issue in a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund or a fund that, except for its failure to satisfy the size limitation in § 1.148-2(f)(2)(ii), would qualify as a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund, but only to the extent the requirements in paragraphs (c)(3)(v)(A) or (B) of this section are met. This paragraph (c)(3)(v) includes nonpurpose investments described in this paragraph that are allocable to transferred proceeds of an advance refunding issue, but only to the extent necessary to satisfy yield restriction under section 148(a) on those proceeds treating all investments allocable to those proceeds as a separate class.

(A) The value of the nonpurpose investments in the fund is not greater than 15 percent of the stated principal amount of the issue, as computed under § 1.148-2(f)(2)(ii).

(B) The amounts in the fund (other than investment earnings) are not reasonably expected to be used to pay debt service on the issue other than in connection with reductions in the amount required to be in that fund (for example, a reserve fund for a revolving fund loan program).

(vi) Nonpurpose investments allocable to certain replacement proceeds of refunded issues. Nonpurpose investments allocated to replacement proceeds of a refunded issue, including a refunded issue that is an advance refunding issue, as a result of the application of the universal cap to amounts in a refunding escrow.

(vii) Investments allocable to replacement proceeds under a certain transition rule. Investments described in § 1.148-11(f).

(viii) Nonpurpose investments allocable to proceeds when State and Local Government Series Securities are unavailable. Nonpurpose investments allocable to proceeds of an issue, including an advance refunding issue, that an issuer purchases if, on the date the issuer enters into the agreement to purchase such investments, the issuer is unable to subscribe for State and Local Government Series Securities because the U.S. Department of the Treasury, Bureau of the Fiscal Service, has suspended sales of those securities.

(ix) Nonpurpose investments allocable to proceeds of certain variable yield advance refunding issues. Nonpurpose investments allocable to proceeds of the portion of a variable yield issue used for advance refunding purposes that are deposited in a yield restricted defeasance escrow if—

(A) The issuer has entered into a qualified hedge under § 1.148-4(h)(2) with respect to all of the variable yield bonds of the issue allocable to the yield restricted defeasance escrow and that hedge is in the form of a variable-to-fixed interest rate swap under which the issuer pays the hedge provider a fixed interest rate and receives from the hedge provider a floating interest rate;

(B) Such qualified hedge covers a period beginning on the issue date of the hedged bonds and ending on or after the date on which the final payment is to be made from the yield restricted defeasance escrow; and

(C) The issuer restricts the yield on the yield restricted defeasance escrow to a yield that is not greater than the yield on the issue, determined by taking into account the issuer's fixed payments to be made under the hedge and by assuming that the issuer's variable yield payments to be paid on the hedged bonds are equal to the floating payments to be received by the issuer under the qualified hedge and are paid on the same dates (that is, such yield reduction payments can only be made to address basis risk differences between the variable yield payments on the hedged bonds and the floating payments received on the hedge).

(d) Value of investments—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided, the value of an investment (including a payment or receipt on the investment) on a date must be determined using one of the following valuation methods consistently for all purposes of section 148 to that investment on that date:

(i) Plain par investment—outstanding principal amount. A plain par investment may be valued at its outstanding stated principal amount, plus any accrued unpaid interest on that date.

(ii) Fixed rate investment—present value. A fixed rate investment may be valued at its present value on that date.

(iii) Any investment—fair market value. An investment may be valued at its fair market value on that date.

(2) Mandatory valuation of certain yield restricted investments at present value. A purpose investment must be valued at present value, and except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b)(3) and (d)(3) of this section, a yield restricted nonpurpose investment must be valued at present value.

(3) Mandatory valuation of certain investments at fair market value—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (d)(3)(ii) and (d)(4) of this section, a nonpurpose investment must be valued at fair market value on the date that it is first allocated to an issue or first ceases to be allocated to an issue as a consequence of a deemed acquisition or deemed disposition. For example, if an issuer deposits existing nonpurpose investments into a sinking fund for an issue, those investments must be valued at fair market value as of the date first deposited into the fund.

(ii) Exception to fair market value requirement for transferred proceeds allocations, certain universal cap allocations, and commingled funds. Paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section does not apply if the investment is allocated from one issue to another as a result of the transferred proceeds allocation rule under § 1.148-9(b) or is deallocated from one issue as a result of the universal cap rule under § 1.148-6(b)(2) and reallocated to another issue as a result of a preexisting pledge of the investment to secure that other issue, provided that, in either circumstance (that is, transferred proceeds allocations or universal cap deallocations), the issue from which the investment is allocated (that is, the first issue in an allocation from one issue to another issue) consists of tax-exempt bonds. In addition, paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section does not apply to investments in a commingled fund (other than a bona fide debt service fund) unless it is an investment being initially deposited in or withdrawn from a commingled fund described in § 1.148-6(e)(5)(iii).

(4) Special transition rule for transferred proceeds. The value of a nonpurpose investment that is allocated to transferred proceeds of a refunding issue on a transfer date may not exceed the value of that investment on the transfer date used for purposes of applying the arbitrage restrictions to the refunded issue.

(5) Definition of present value of an investment. Except as otherwise provided, present value of an investment is computed under the economic accrual method, using the same compounding interval and financial conventions used to compute the yield on the issue. The present value of an investment on a date is equal to the present value of all unconditionally payable receipts to be received from and payments to be paid for the investment after that date, using the yield on the investment as the discount rate.

(6) Definition of fair market value—(i) In general. The fair market value of an investment is the price at which a willing buyer would purchase the investment from a willing seller in a bona fide, arm's-length transaction. Fair market value generally is determined on the date on which a contract to purchase or sell the nonpurpose investment becomes binding (i.e., the trade date rather than the settlement date). Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (d)(6), an investment that is not of a type traded on an established securities market, within the meaning of section 1273, is rebuttably presumed to be acquired or disposed of for a price that is not equal to its fair market value. On the purchase date, the fair market value of a United States Treasury obligation that is purchased directly from the United States Treasury, including a State and Local Government Series Security, is its purchase price. The fair market value of a State and Local Government Series Security on any date other than the purchase date is the redemption price for redemption on that date.

(ii) Safe harbor for establishing fair market value for certificates of deposit. This paragraph (d)(6)(ii) applies to a certificate of deposit that has a fixed interest rate, a fixed payment schedule, and a substantial penalty for early withdrawal. The purchase price of such a certificate of deposit is treated as its fair market value on the purchase date if the yield on the certificate of deposit is not less than—

(A) The yield on reasonably comparable direct obligations of the United States; and

(B) The highest yield that is published or posted by the provider to be currently available from the provider on reasonably comparable certificates of deposit offered to the public.

(iii) Safe harbor for establishing fair market value for guaranteed investment contracts and investments purchased for a yield restricted defeasance escrow. The purchase price of a guaranteed investment contract and the purchase price of an investment purchased for a yield restricted defeasance escrow will be treated as the fair market value of the investment on the purchase date if all of the following requirements are satisfied:

(A) The issuer makes a bona fide solicitation for the purchase of the investment. A bona fide solicitation is a solicitation that satisfies all of the following requirements:

(1) The bid specifications are in writing and are timely disseminated to potential providers. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(6)(iii)(A)(1), a writing may be in electronic form and may be disseminated by fax, email, an internet-based Web site, or other electronic medium that is similar to an internet-based Web site and regularly used to post bid specifications.

(2) The bid specifications include all material terms of the bid. A term is material if it may directly or indirectly affect the yield or the cost of the investment.

(3) The bid specifications include a statement notifying potential providers that submission of a bid is a representation that the potential provider did not consult with any other potential provider about its bid, that the bid was determined without regard to any other formal or informal agreement that the potential provider has with the issuer or any other person (whether or not in connection with the bond issue), and that the bid is not being submitted solely as a courtesy to the issuer or any other person for purposes of satisfying the requirements of paragraph (d)(6)(iii)(B)(1) or (2) of this section.

(4) The terms of the bid specifications are commercially reasonable. A term is commercially reasonable if there is a legitimate business purpose for the term other than to increase the purchase price or reduce the yield of the investment. For example, for solicitations of investments for a yield restricted defeasance escrow, the hold firm period must be no longer than the issuer reasonably requires.

(5) For purchases of guaranteed investment contracts only, the terms of the solicitation take into account the issuer's reasonably expected deposit and drawdown schedule for the amounts to be invested.

(6) All potential providers have an equal opportunity to bid. If the bidding process affords any opportunity for a potential provider to review other bids before providing a bid, then providers have an equal opportunity to bid only if all potential providers have an equal opportunity to review other bids. Thus, no potential provider may be given an opportunity to review other bids that is not equally given to all potential providers (that is, no exclusive “last look”).

(7) At least three reasonably competitive providers are solicited for bids. A reasonably competitive provider is a provider that has an established industry reputation as a competitive provider of the type of investments being purchased.

(B) The bids received by the issuer meet all of the following requirements:

(1) The issuer receives at least three bids from providers that the issuer solicited under a bona fide solicitation meeting the requirements of paragraph (d)(6)(iii)(A) of this section and that do not have a material financial interest in the issue. A lead underwriter in a negotiated underwriting transaction is deemed to have a material financial interest in the issue until 15 days after the issue date of the issue. In addition, any entity acting as a financial advisor with respect to the purchase of the investment at the time the bid specifications are forwarded to potential providers has a material financial interest in the issue. A provider that is a related party to a provider that has a material financial interest in the issue is deemed to have a material financial interest in the issue.

(2) At least one of the three bids described in paragraph (d)(6)(iii)(B)(1) of this section is from a reasonably competitive provider, within the meaning of paragraph (d)(6)(iii)(A)(7) of this section.

(3) If the issuer uses an agent to conduct the bidding process, the agent did not bid to provide the investment.

(C) The winning bid meets the following requirements:

(1) Guaranteed investment contracts. If the investment is a guaranteed investment contract, the winning bid is the highest yielding bona fide bid (determined net of any broker's fees).

(2) Other investments. If the investment is not a guaranteed investment contract, the following requirements are met:

(i) The winning bid is the lowest cost bona fide bid (including any broker's fees). The lowest cost bid is either the lowest cost bid for the portfolio or, if the issuer compares the bids on an investment-by-investment basis, the aggregate cost of a portfolio comprised of the lowest cost bid for each investment. Any payment received by the issuer from a provider at the time a guaranteed investment contract is purchased (e.g., an escrow float contract) for a yield restricted defeasance escrow under a bidding procedure meeting the requirements of this paragraph (d)(6)(iii) is taken into account in determining the lowest cost bid.

(ii) The lowest cost bona fide bid (including any broker's fees) is not greater than the cost of the most efficient portfolio comprised exclusively of State and Local Government Series Securities from the United States Department of the Treasury, Bureau of Public Debt. The cost of the most efficient portfolio of State and Local Government Series Securities is to be determined at the time that bids are required to be submitted pursuant to the terms of the bid specifications.

(iii) If State and Local Government Series Securities from the United States Department of the Treasury, Bureau of Public Debt are not available for purchase on the day that bids are required to be submitted pursuant to terms of the bid specifications because sales of those securities have been suspended, the cost comparison of paragraph (d)(6)(iii) (C)(2)(ii) of this section is not required.

(D) The provider of the investments or the obligor on the guaranteed investment contract certifies the administrative costs that it pays (or expects to pay, if any) to third parties in connection with supplying the investment.

(E) The issuer retains the following records with the bond documents until three years after the last outstanding bond is redeemed:

(1) For purchases of guaranteed investment contracts, a copy of the contract, and for purchases of investments other than guaranteed investment contracts, the purchase agreement or confirmation.

(2) The receipt or other record of the amount actually paid by the issuer for the investments, including a record of any administrative costs paid by the issuer, and the certification under paragraph (d)(6)(iii)(D) of this section.

(3) For each bid that is submitted, the name of the person and entity submitting the bid, the time and date of the bid, and the bid results.

(4) The bid solicitation form and, if the terms of the purchase agreement or the guaranteed investment contract deviated from the bid solicitation form or a submitted bid is modified, a brief statement explaining the deviation and stating the purpose for the deviation. For example, if the issuer purchases a portfolio of investments for a yield restricted defeasance escrow and, in order to satisfy the yield restriction requirements of section 148, an investment in the winning bid is replaced with an investment with a lower yield, the issuer must retain a record of the substitution and how the price of the substitute investment was determined. If the issuer replaces an investment in the winning bid portfolio with another investment, the purchase price of the new investment is not covered by the safe harbor unless the investment is bid under a bidding procedure meeting the requirements of this paragraph (d)(6)(iii).

(5) For purchases of investments other than guaranteed investment contracts, the cost of the most efficient portfolio of State and Local Government Series Securities, determined at the time that the bids were required to be submitted pursuant to the terms of the bid specifications.

(e) Administrative costs of investments—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (e), an allocation of gross proceeds of an issue to a payment or a receipt on an investment is not adjusted to take into account any costs or expenses paid, directly or indirectly, to purchase, carry, sell, or retire the investment (administrative costs). Thus, these administrative costs generally do not increase the payments for, or reduce the receipts from, investments.

(2) Qualified administrative costs on nonpurpose investments—(i) In general. In determining payments and receipts on nonpurpose investments, qualified administrative costs are taken into account. Thus, qualified administrative costs increase the payments for, or decrease the receipts from, the investments. Qualified administrative costs are reasonable, direct administrative costs, other than carrying costs, such as separately stated brokerage or selling commissions, but not legal and accounting fees, recordkeeping, custody, and similar costs. General overhead costs and similar indirect costs of the issuer such as employee salaries and office expenses and costs associated with computing the rebate amount under section 148(f) are not qualified administrative costs. In general, administrative costs are not reasonable unless they are comparable to administrative costs that would be charged for the same investment or a reasonably comparable investment if acquired with a source of funds other than gross proceeds of tax-exempt bonds.

(ii) Special rule for administrative costs of nonpurpose investments in certain regulated investment companies and commingled funds. Qualified administrative costs include all reasonable administrative costs, without regard to the limitation on indirect costs under paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, incurred by:

(A) Regulated investment companies. A publicly offered regulated investment company (as defined in section 67(c)(2)(B)); and

(B) External commingled funds. A widely held commingled fund in which no investor in the fund owns more than 10 percent of the beneficial interest in the fund. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(B), a fund is treated as widely held only if, during the immediately preceding fixed, semiannual period chosen by the fund (for example, semiannual periods ending June 30 and December 31), the fund had a daily average of more than 15 investors that were not related parties, and at least 16 of the unrelated investors each maintained a daily average amount invested in the fund that was not less than the lesser of $500,000 and one percent (1%) of the daily average of the total amount invested in the fund (with it being understood that additional smaller investors will not disqualify the fund). For purposes of this paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(B), an investor will be treated as owning not more than 10 percent of the beneficial interest in the fund if, on the date of each deposit by the investor into the fund, the total amount the investor and any related parties have on deposit in the fund is not more than 10 percent of the total amount that all investors have on deposit in the fund. For purposes of the preceding sentence, the total amount that all investors have on deposit in the fund is equal to the sum of all deposits made by the investor and any related parties on the date of those deposits and the closing balance in the fund on the day before those deposits. If any investor in the fund owns more than 10 percent of the beneficial interest in the fund, the fund does not qualify under this paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(B) until that investor makes sufficient withdrawals from the fund to reduce its beneficial interest in the fund to 10 percent or less.

(iii) Special rule for guaranteed investment contracts and investments purchased for a yield restricted defeasance escrow—(A) In general. An amount paid for a broker's commission or similar fee with respect to a guaranteed investment contract or investments purchased for a yield restricted defeasance escrow is a qualified administrative cost if the fee is reasonable within the meaning of paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section.

(B) Safe harbor—(1) In general. A broker's commission or similar fee with respect to the acquisition of a guaranteed investment contract or investments purchased for a yield restricted defeasance escrow is reasonable within the meaning of paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section to the extent that—

(i) The amount of the fee that the issuer treats as a qualified administrative cost does not exceed the lesser of:

(A) $30,000 and

(B) 0.2% of the computational base or, if more, $3,000; and

(ii) For any issue, the issuer does not treat as qualified administrative costs more than $85,000 in brokers' commissions or similar fees with respect to all guaranteed investment contracts and investments for yield restricted defeasance escrows purchased with gross proceeds of the issue.

(2) Computational base. For purposes of paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(1) of this section, computational base shall mean—

(i) For a guaranteed investment contract, the amount of gross proceeds the issuer reasonably expects, as of the date the contract is acquired, to be deposited in the guaranteed investment contract over the term of the contract, and

(ii) For investments (other than guaranteed investment contracts) to be deposited in a yield restricted defeasance escrow, the amount of gross proceeds initially invested in those investments.

(3) Cost-of-living adjustment. In the case of a calendar year after 2004, each of the dollar amounts in paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(1) of this section shall be increased by an amount equal to—

(i) Such dollar amount; multiplied by

(ii) The cost-of-living adjustment determined under section 1(f)(3) for such calendar year by using the language “calendar year 2003” instead of “calendar year 1992” in section 1(f)(3)(B).

(4) Rounding. If any increase determined under paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(3) of this section is not a multiple of $1,000, such increase shall be rounded to the nearest multiple thereof.

(5) Applicable year for cost-of-living adjustment. The cost-of-living adjustments under paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(3) of this section shall apply to the safe harbor amounts under paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(1) of this section based on the year the guaranteed investment contract or the investments for the yield restricted defeasance escrow, as applicable, are acquired.

(6) Cost-of-living adjustment to determine remaining amount of per-issue safe harbor—(i) In general. This paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(6) applies to determine the portion of the safe harbor amount under paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(1)(ii) of this section, as modified by paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(3) of this section (the per-issue safe harbor), that is available (the remaining amount) for any year (the determination year) if the per-issue safe harbor was partially used in one or more prior years.

(ii) Remaining amount of per-issue safe harbor. The remaining amount of the per-issue safe harbor for any determination year is equal to the per-issue safe harbor for that year, reduced by the portion of the per-issue safe harbor used in one or more prior years.

(iii) Portion of per-issue safe harbor used in prior years. The portion of the per-issue safe harbor used in any prior year (the prior year) is equal to the total amount of broker's commissions or similar fees paid in connection with guaranteed investment contracts or investments for a yield restricted defeasance escrow acquired in the prior year that the issuer treated as qualified administrative costs for the issue, multiplied by a fraction the numerator of which is the per-issue safe harbor for the determination year and the denominator of which is the per-issue safe harbor for the prior year. See paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(C) Example 2 of this section.

(C) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of the safe harbor in paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B) of this section:

Example 1. Multipurpose issue.

In 2003, the issuer of a multipurpose issue uses brokers to acquire the following investments with gross proceeds of the issue: a guaranteed investment contract for amounts to be deposited in a construction fund (construction GIC), Treasury securities to be deposited in a yield restricted defeasance escrow (Treasury investments) and a guaranteed investment contract that will be used to earn a return on what otherwise would be idle cash balances from maturing investments in the yield restricted defeasance escrow (the float GIC). The issuer deposits $22,000,000 into the construction GIC and reasonably expects that no further deposits will be made over its term. The issuer uses $8,040,000 of the proceeds to purchase the Treasury investments. The issuer reasonably expects that it will make aggregate deposits of $600,000 to the float GIC over its term. The brokers' fees are $30,000 for the construction GIC, $16,080 for the Treasury investments and $3,000 for the float GIC. The issuer has not previously treated any brokers' commissions or similar fees as qualified administrative costs. The issuer may claim all $49,080 in brokers' fees for these investments as qualified administrative costs because the fees do not exceed the safe harbors in paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B) of this section. Specifically, each of the brokers' fees equals the lesser of $30,000 and 0.2% of the computational base (or, if more, $3,000) (i.e., lesser of $30,000 and 0.2% × $22,000,000 for the construction GIC; lesser of $30,000 and 0.2% × $8,040,000 for the Treasury investments; and lesser of $30,000 and $3,000 for the float GIC). In addition, the total amount of brokers' fees claimed by the issuer as qualified administrative costs ($49,080) does not exceed the per-issue safe harbor of $85,000.

Example 2. Cost-of-living adjustment.

In 2003, an issuer issues bonds and uses gross proceeds of the issue to acquire two guaranteed investment contracts. The issuer pays a total of $50,000 in brokers' fees for the two guaranteed investment contracts and treats these fees as qualified administrative costs. In a year subsequent to 2003 (Year Y), the issuer uses gross proceeds of the issue to acquire two additional guaranteed investment contracts, paying a total of $20,000 in broker's fees for the two guaranteed investment contracts, and treats those fees as qualified administrative costs. For Year Y, applying the cost-of-living adjustment under paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(3) of this section, the safe harbor dollar limits under paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(1) of this section are $3,000, $32,000 and $90,000. The remaining amount of the per-issue safe harbor for Year Y is $37,059 ($90,000-[$50,000 × $90,000/$85,000]). The broker's fees in Year Y do not exceed the per-issue safe harbor under paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(1)(ii) (as modified by paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(3)) of this section because the broker's fees do not exceed the remaining amount of the per-issue safe harbor determined under paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(6) of this section for Year Y. In a year subsequent to Year Y (Year Z), the issuer uses gross proceeds of the issue to acquire an additional guaranteed investment contract, pays a broker's fee of $15,000 for the guaranteed investment contract, and treats the broker's fee as a qualified administrative cost. For Year Z, applying the cost-of-living adjustment under paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(3) of this section, the safe harbor dollar limits under paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(1) of this section are $3,000, $33,000 and $93,000. The remaining amount of the per-issue safe harbor for Year Z is $17,627 ($93,000—[($50,000 × $93,000/$85,000) + ($20,000 × $93,000/$90,000)]). The broker's fee incurred in Year Z does not exceed the per-issue safe harbor under paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(1)(ii) (as modified by paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(3)) of this section because the broker's fee does not exceed the remaining amount of the per-issue safe harbor determined under paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(6) of this section for Year Z. See paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(B)(6) of this section.

(3) Qualified administrative costs on purpose investments—(i) In general. In determining payments and receipts on purpose investments, qualified administrative costs described in this paragraph (e)(3) paid by the conduit borrower are taken into account. Thus, these costs increase the payments for, or decrease the receipts from, the purpose investments. This rule applies even if those payments merely reimburse the issuer. Although the actual payments by the conduit borrower may be made at any time, for this purpose, a pro rata portion of each payment made by a conduit borrower is treated as a reimbursement of reasonable administrative costs, if the present value of those payments does not exceed the present value of the reasonable administrative costs paid by the issuer, using the yield on the issue as the discount rate.

(ii) Definition of qualified administrative costs of purpose investments—(A) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (e)(3)(ii), qualified administrative costs of a purpose investment means—

(1) Costs or expenses paid, directly or indirectly, to purchase, carry, sell, or retire the investment; and

(2) Costs of issuing, carrying, or repaying the issue, and any underwriters' discount.

(B) Limitation on program investments. For a program investment, qualified administrative costs include only those costs described in paragraph (e)(3)(ii)(A)(2) of this section.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33529, June 18, 1993; 58 FR 44452, Aug. 23, 1993, as amended by T.D. 8538, 59 FR 24044, May 10, 1994; T.D. 8718, 62 FR 25511, May 9, 1997; T.D. 8801, 63 FR 71751, Dec. 30, 1998; T.D. 9097, 68 FR 69022, Dec. 11, 2003; T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46595, July 17, 2016]

§ 1.148-6 General allocation and accounting rules.

(a) In general—(1) Reasonable accounting methods required. An issuer may use any reasonable, consistently applied accounting method to account for gross proceeds, investments, and expenditures of an issue.

(2) Bona fide deviations from accounting method. An accounting method does not fail to be reasonable and consistently applied solely because a different accounting method is used for a bona fide governmental purpose to consistently account for a particular item. Bona fide governmental purposes may include special State law restrictions imposed on specific funds or actions to avoid grant forfeitures.

(3) Absence of allocation and accounting methods. If an issuer fails to maintain books and records sufficient to establish the accounting method for an issue and the allocation of the proceeds of that issue, the rules of this section are applied using the specific tracing method. This paragraph (a)(3) applies to bonds issued on or after May 16, 1997.

(b) Allocation of gross proceeds to an issue—(1) One-issue rule and general ordering rules. Except as otherwise provided, amounts are allocable to only one issue at a time as gross proceeds, and if amounts simultaneously are proceeds of one issue and replacement proceeds of another issue, those amounts are allocable to the issue of which they are proceeds. Amounts cease to be allocated to an issue as proceeds only when those amounts are allocated to an expenditure for a governmental purpose, are allocated to transferred proceeds of another issue, or cease to be allocated to that issue at retirement of the issue or under the universal cap of paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Amounts cease to be allocated to an issue as replacement proceeds only when those amounts are allocated to an expenditure for a governmental purpose, are no longer used in a manner that causes those amounts to be replacement proceeds of that issue, or cease to be allocated to that issue because of the retirement of the issue or the application of the universal cap under paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Amounts that cease to be allocated to an issue as gross proceeds are eligible for allocation to another issue. Under § 1.148-10(a), however, the rules in this paragraph (b)(1) do not apply in certain cases involving abusive arbitrage devices.

(2) Universal cap on value of nonpurpose investments allocated to an issue—(i) Application. The rules in this paragraph (b)(2) provide an overall limitation on the amount of gross proceeds allocable to an issue. Although the universal cap generally may be applied at any time in the manner described in this paragraph (b)(2), it need not be applied on any otherwise required date of application if its application on that date would not result in a reduction or reallocation of gross proceeds of an issue. For this purpose, if an issuer reasonably expects as of the issue date that the universal cap will not reduce the amount of gross proceeds allocable to the issue during the term of the issue, the universal cap need not be applied on any date on which an issue actually has all of the following characteristics—

(A) No replacement proceeds are allocable to the issue, other than replacement proceeds in a bona fide debt service fund or a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund;

(B) The net sale proceeds of the issue—

(1) Qualified for one of the temporary periods available for capital projects, restricted working capital expenditures, or pooled financings under § 1.148-2 (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4), and those net sales proceeds were in fact allocated to expenditures prior to the expiration of the longest applicable temporary period; or

(2) were deposited in a refunding escrow and expended as originally expected;

(C) The issue does not refund a prior issue that, on any transfer date, has unspent proceeds allocable to it;

(D) None of the bonds are retired prior to the date on which those bonds are treated as retired in computing the yield on the issue; and

(E) No proceeds of the issue are invested in qualified student loans or qualified mortgage loans.

(ii) General rule. Except as otherwise provided below, amounts that would otherwise be gross proceeds allocable to an issue are allocated (and remain allocated) to the issue only to the extent that the value of the nonpurpose investments allocable to those gross proceeds does not exceed the value of all outstanding bonds of the issue. For this purpose, gross proceeds allocable to cash, tax-exempt bonds that would be nonpurpose investments (absent section 148(b)(3)(A)), qualified student loans, and qualified mortgage loans are treated as nonpurpose investments. The values of bonds and investments are determined under § 1.148-4(e) and § 1.148-5(d), respectively. The value of all outstanding bonds of the issue is referred to as the universal cap. Thus, for example, the universal cap for an issue of plain par bonds is equal to the outstanding stated principal amount of those bonds plus accrued interest.

(iii) Determination and application of the universal cap. Except as otherwise provided, beginning with the first bond year that commences after the second anniversary of the issue date, the amount of the universal cap and the value of the nonpurpose investments must be determined as of the first day of each bond year. For refunding and refunded issues, the cap and values must be determined as of each date that, but for this paragraph (b)(2), proceeds of the refunded issue would become transferred proceeds of the refunding issue, and need not otherwise be determined in the bond year in which that date occurs. All values are determined as of the close of business on each determination date, after giving effect to all payments on bonds and payments for and receipts on investments on that date.

(iv) General ordering rule for allocations of amounts in excess of the universal cap—(A) In general. If the value of all nonpurpose investments allocated to the gross proceeds of an issue exceeds the universal cap for that issue on a date as of which the cap is determined under paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section, nonpurpose investments allocable to gross proceeds necessary to eliminate that excess cease to be allocated to the issue, in the following order of priority—

(1) First, nonpurpose investments allocable to replacement proceeds;

(2) Second, nonpurpose investments allocable to transferred proceeds; and

(3) Third, nonpurpose investments allocable to sale proceeds and investment proceeds.

(B) Re-allocation of certain amounts. Except as provided in § 1.148-9(b)(3), amounts that cease to be allocated to an issue as a result of the application of the universal cap may only be allocated to another issue as replacement proceeds.

(C) Allocations of portions of investments. Portions of investments to which this paragraph (b)(2)(iv) applies are allocated under either the ratable method or the representative method in the same manner as allocations of portions of investments to transferred proceeds under § 1.148-9(c).

(v) Nonpurpose investments in a bona fide debt service fund not counted. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), nonpurpose investments allocated to gross proceeds in a bona fide debt service fund for an issue are not taken into account in determining the value of the nonpurpose investments, and those nonpurpose investments remain allocated to the issue.

(c) Fair market value limit on allocations to nonpurpose investments. Upon a purchase or sale of a nonpurpose investment, gross proceeds of an issue are not allocated to a payment for that nonpurpose investment in an amount greater than, or to a receipt from that nonpurpose investment in an amount less than, the fair market value of the nonpurpose investment as of the purchase or sale date. For purposes of this paragraph (c) only, the fair market value of a nonpurpose investment is adjusted to take into account qualified administrative costs allocable to the investment.

(d) Allocation of gross proceeds to expenditures—(1) Expenditures in general—(i) General rule. Reasonable accounting methods for allocating funds from different sources to expenditures for the same governmental purpose include any of the following methods if consistently applied: a specific tracing method; a gross proceeds spent first method; a first-in, first-out method; or a ratable allocation method.

(ii) General limitation. An allocation of gross proceeds of an issue to an expenditure must involve a current outlay of cash for a governmental purpose of the issue. A current outlay of cash means an outlay reasonably expected to occur not later than 5 banking days after the date as of which the allocation of gross proceeds to the expenditure is made.

(iii) Timing. An issuer must account for the allocation of proceeds to expenditures not later than 18 months after the later of the date the expenditure is paid or the date the project, if any, that is financed by the issue is placed in service. This allocation must be made in any event by the date 60 days after the fifth anniversary of the issue date or the date 60 days after the retirement of the issue, if earlier. This paragraph (d)(1)(iii) applies to bonds issued on or after May 16, 1997.

(2) Treatment of gross proceeds invested in purpose investments—(i) In general. Gross proceeds of an issue invested in a purpose investment are allocated to an expenditure on the date on which the conduit borrower under the purpose investment allocates the gross proceeds to an expenditure in accordance with this paragraph (d).

(ii) Exception for qualified mortgage loans and qualified student loans. If gross proceeds of an issue are allocated to a purpose investment that is a qualified mortgage loan or a qualified student loan, those gross proceeds are allocated to an expenditure for the governmental purpose of the issue on the date on which the issuer allocates gross proceeds to that purpose investment.

(iii) Continuing allocation of gross proceeds to purpose investments. Regardless of whether gross proceeds of a conduit financing issue invested in a purpose investment have been allocated to an expenditure under paragraph (d)(2) (i) or (ii) of this section, with respect to the actual issuer those gross proceeds continue to be allocated to the purpose investment until the sale, discharge, or other disposition of the purpose investment.

(3) Expenditures for working capital purposes—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (d)(3) or paragraph (d)(4) of this section, proceeds of an issue may only be allocated to working capital expenditures as of any date to the extent that those working capital expenditures exceed available amounts (as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section) as of that date (i.e., a “proceeds-spent-last” method). For this purpose, proceeds include replacement proceeds described in § 1.148-1(c)(4).

(ii) Exceptions—(A) General de minimis exception. Paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section does not apply to expenditures to pay—

(1) Any issuance costs of the issue or any qualified administrative costs within the meaning of §§ 1.148-5(e)(2) (i) or (ii), or § 1.148-5(e)(3)(ii)(A);

(2) Fees for qualified guarantees of the issue or payments for a qualified hedge for the issue;

(3) Interest on the issue for a period commencing on the issue date and ending on the date that is the later of three years from the issue date or one year after the date on which the project is placed in service;

(4) Amounts paid to the United States under §§ 1.148-3, 1.148-5(c), or 1.148-7 for the issue;

(5) Costs, other than those described in paragraphs (d)(3)(ii)(A) (1) through (4) of this section, that do not exceed 5 percent of the sale proceeds of an issue and that are directly related to capital expenditures financed by the issue (e.g., initial operating expenses for a new capital project);

(6) Principal or interest on an issue paid from unexpected excess sale or investment proceeds; and

(7) Principal or interest on an issue paid from investment earnings on a reserve or replacement fund that are deposited in a bona fide debt service fund.

(B) Exception for extraordinary items. Paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section does not apply to expenditures for extraordinary, nonrecurring items that are not customarily payable from current revenues, such as casualty losses or extraordinary legal judgments in amounts in excess of reasonable insurance coverage. If, however, an issuer or a related party maintains a reserve for such items (e.g., a self-insurance fund) or has set aside other available amounts for such expenses, gross proceeds within that reserve must be allocated to expenditures only after all other available amounts in that reserve are expended.

(C) Exception for payment of principal and interest on prior issues. Paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section does not apply to expenditures for payment of principal, interest, or redemption prices on a prior issue and, for a crossover refunding issue, interest on that issue.

(D) No exceptions if replacement proceeds created. The exceptions provided in this paragraph (d)(3)(ii) do not apply if the allocation merely substitutes gross proceeds for other amounts that would have been used to make those expenditures in a manner that gives rise to replacement proceeds. For example, if a purported reimbursement allocation of proceeds of a reimbursement bond does not result in an expenditure under § 1.150-2, those proceeds may not be allocated to pay interest on an issue that, absent this allocation, would have been paid from the issuer's current revenues.

(iii) Definition of available amount—(A) In general. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(3), available amount means any amount that is available to an issuer for working capital expenditure purposes of the type financed by an issue. Except as otherwise provided, available amount excludes proceeds of any issue but includes cash, investments, and other amounts held in accounts or otherwise by the issuer or a related party if those amounts may be used by the issuer for working capital expenditures of the type being financed by an issue without legislative or judicial action and without a legislative, judicial, or contractual requirement that those amounts be reimbursed.

(B) Reasonable working capital reserve treated as unavailable. A reasonable working capital reserve is treated as unavailable. Any working capital reserve is reasonable if it does not exceed 5 percent of the actual working capital expenditures of the issuer in the fiscal year before the year in which the determination of available amounts is made. For this purpose only, in determining the working capital expenditures of an issuer for a prior fiscal year, any expenditures (whether capital or working capital expenditures) that are paid out of current revenues may be treated as working capital expenditures.

(C) Qualified endowment funds treated as unavailable. For a 501(c)(3) organization, a qualified endowment fund is treated as unavailable. A fund is a qualified endowment fund if—

(1) The fund is derived from gifts or bequests, or the income thereon, that were neither made nor reasonably expected to be used to pay working capital expenditures;

(2) Pursuant to reasonable, established practices of the organization, the governing body of the 501(c)(3) organization designates and consistently operates the fund as a permanent endowment fund or quasi-endowment fund restricted as to use; and

(3) There is an independent verification that the fund is reasonably necessary as part of the organization's permanent capital.

(D) Application to statutory safe harbor for tax and revenue anticipation bonds. For purposes of section 148(f)(4)(B)(iii)(II), available amount has the same meaning as in paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section, except that the otherwise-permitted reasonable working capital reserve is treated as part of the available amount.

(4) Expenditures for grants—(i) In general. Gross proceeds of an issue that are used to make a grant are allocated to an expenditure on the date on which the grant is made.

(ii) Characterization of repayments of grants. If any amount of a grant financed by gross proceeds of an issue is repaid to the grantor, the repaid amount is treated as unspent proceeds of the issue as of the repayment date unless expended within 60 days of repayment.

(5) Expenditures for reimbursement purposes. In allocating gross proceeds of issues of reimbursement bonds (as defined in § 1.150-2)) to certain expenditures, § 1.150-2 applies. In allocating gross proceeds to an expenditure to reimburse a previously paid working capital expenditure, paragraph (d)(3) of this section applies. Thus, if the expenditure is described in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section or there are no available amounts on the date a working capital expenditure is made and there are no other available amounts on the date of the reimbursement of that expenditure, gross proceeds are allocated to the working capital expenditure as of the date of the reimbursement.

(6) Expenditures of certain commingled investment proceeds of governmental issues. This paragraph (d)(6) applies to any issue of governmental bonds, any issue of private activity bonds issued to finance a facility that is required by section 142 to be owned by a governmental unit, and any portion of an issue that is not treated as consisting of private activity bonds under section 141(b)(9). Investment proceeds of the issue (other than investment proceeds held in a refunding escrow) are treated as allocated to expenditures for a governmental purpose when the amounts are deposited in a commingled fund with substantial tax or other revenues from governmental operations of the issuer and the amounts are reasonably expected to be spent for governmental purposes within 6 months from the date of the commingling. In establishing these reasonable expectations, an issuer may use any reasonable accounting assumption and is not bound by the proceeds-spent-last assumption generally required for working capital expenditures under paragraph (d)(3) of this section.

(7) Payments to related parties. Any payment of gross proceeds of the issue to a related party of the payor is not an expenditure of those gross proceeds.

(e) Special rules for commingled funds—(1) In general. An accounting method for gross proceeds of an issue in a commingled fund, other than a bona fide debt service fund, is reasonable only if it satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (e)(2) through (6) of this section in addition to the other requirements of this section.

(2) Investments held by a commingled fund—(i) Required ratable allocations. Not less frequently than as of the close of each fiscal period, all payments and receipts (including deemed payments and receipts) on investments held by a commingled fund must be allocated (but not necessarily distributed) among the different investors in the fund. This allocation must be based on a consistently applied, reasonable ratable allocation method.

(ii) Safe harbors for ratable allocation methods. Reasonable ratable allocation methods include, without limitation, methods that allocate these items in proportion to either—

(A) The average daily balances of the amounts in the commingled fund from different investors during a fiscal period (as described in paragraph (e)(4) of this section); or

(B) The average of the beginning and ending balances of the amounts in the commingled fund from different investors for a fiscal period that does not exceed one month.

(iii) Definition of investor. For purposes of this paragraph (e), the term investor means each different source of funds invested in a commingled fund. For example, if a city invests gross proceeds of an issue and tax revenues in a commingled fund, it is treated as two different investors.

(3) Certain expenditures involving a commingled fund. If a ratable allocation method is used under paragraph (d) of this section to allocate expenditures from the commingled fund, the same ratable allocation method must be used to allocate payments and receipts on investments in the commingled fund under paragraph (e)(2) of this section.

(4) Fiscal periods. The fiscal year of a commingled fund is the calendar year unless the fund adopts another fiscal year. A commingled fund may use any consistent fiscal period that does not exceed three months (e.g., a daily, weekly, monthly, or quarterly fiscal period).

(5) Unrealized gains and losses on investments of a commingled fund—(i) Mark-to-market requirement for internal commingled funds with longer-term investment portfolios. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (e), in the case of a commingled fund in which the issuer and any related party own more than 25 percent of the beneficial interests in the fund (an internal commingled fund), the fund must treat all its investments as if sold at fair market value either on the last day of the fiscal year or the last day of each fiscal period. The net gains or losses from these deemed sales of investments must be allocated to all investors of the commingled fund during the period since the last allocation.

(ii) Exception for internal commingled funds with shorter-term investment portfolios. If the remaining weighted average maturity of all investments held by a commingled fund during a particular fiscal year does not exceed 18 months, and the investments held by the commingled fund during that fiscal year consist exclusively of obligations, the mark-to-market requirement of paragraph (e)(5)(i) of this section does not apply.

(iii) Exception for commingled reserve funds and sinking funds. The mark-to-market requirement of paragraph (e)(5)(i) of this section does not apply to a commingled fund that operates exclusively as a reserve fund, sinking fund, or replacement fund for two or more issues of the same issuer.

(6) Allocations of commingled funds serving as common reserve funds or sinking funds—(i) Permitted ratable allocation methods. If a commingled fund serves as a common reserve fund, replacement fund, or sinking fund for two or more issues (a commingled reserve), after making reasonable adjustments to account for proceeds allocated under paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section, investments held by that commingled fund must be allocated ratably among the issues served by the commingled fund in accordance with one of the following methods—

(A) The relative values of the bonds of those issues under § 1.148-4(e);

(B) The relative amounts of the remaining maximum annual debt service requirements on the outstanding principal amounts of those issues; or

(C) The relative original stated principal amounts of the outstanding issues.

(ii) Frequency of allocations. An issuer must make any allocations required by this paragraph (e)(6) as of a date at least every 3 years and as of each date that an issue first becomes secured by the commingled reserve. If relative original principal amounts are used to allocate, allocations must also be made on the retirement of any issue secured by the commingled reserve.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33532, June 18, 1993; 58 FR 44452, Aug. 23, 1993, as amended by T.D. 8538, 59 FR 24045, May 10, 1994; T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2304, Jan. 16, 1997; T.D. 8718, 62 FR 25512, May 9, 1997; T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46597, July 18, 2016]

§ 1.148-7 Spending exceptions to the rebate requirement.

(a) Scope of section—(1) In general. This section provides guidance on the spending exceptions to the arbitrage rebate requirement of section 148(f)(2). These exceptions are the 6-month exception in section 148(f)(4)(B) (the 6-month exception), the 18-month exception under paragraph (d) of this section (the 18-month exception), and the 2-year construction exception under section 148(f)(4)(C) (the 2-year exception) (collectively, the spending exceptions).

(2) Relationship of spending exceptions. Each of the spending exceptions is an independent exception to arbitrage rebate. For example, a construction issue may qualify for the 6-month exception or the 18-month exception even though the issuer makes one or more elections under the 2-year exception with respect to the issue.

(3) Spending exceptions not mandatory. Use of the spending exceptions is not mandatory. An issuer may apply the arbitrage rebate requirement to an issue that otherwise satisfies a spending exception. If an issuer elects to pay penalty in lieu of rebate under the 2-year exception, however, the issuer must apply those penalty provisions.

(b) Rules applicable for all spending exceptions. The provisions of this paragraph (b) apply for purposes of applying each of the spending exceptions.

(1) Special transferred proceeds rules—(i) Application to prior issues. For purposes of applying the spending exceptions to a prior issue only, proceeds of the prior issue that become transferred proceeds of the refunding issue continue to be treated as unspent proceeds of the prior issue. If the prior issue satisfies one of the spending exceptions, the proceeds of the prior issue that are excepted from rebate under that spending exception are not subject to rebate either as proceeds of the prior issue or as transferred proceeds of the refunding issue.

(ii) Application to refunding issues—(A) In general. The only spending exception applicable to refunding issues is the 6-month exception. For purposes of applying the 6-month exception to a refunding issue only, proceeds of the prior issue that become transferred proceeds of the refunding issue generally are not treated as proceeds of the refunding issue and need not be spent for the refunding issue to satisfy that spending exception. Even if the refunding issue qualifies for that spending exception, those transferred proceeds are subject to rebate as proceeds of the refunding issue unless an exception to rebate applied to those proceeds as proceeds of the prior issue.

(B) Exception. For purposes of applying the 6-month exception to refunding issues, those transferred proceeds of the refunding issue excluded from the gross proceeds of the prior issue under the special definition of gross proceeds in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, and those that transferred from a prior taxable issue, are generally treated as gross proceeds of the refunding issue. Thus, for the refunding issue to qualify for the 6-month exception, those proceeds must be spent within 6 months of the issue date of the refunding issue, unless those amounts continue to be used in a manner that does not cause those amounts to be gross proceeds under paragraph (c)(3) of this section.

(2) Application of multipurpose issue rules. Except as otherwise provided, if any portion of an issue is treated as a separate issue allocable to refunding purposes under § 1.148-9(h) (relating to multipurpose issues), for purposes of this section, that portion is treated as a separate issue.

(3) Expenditures for governmental purposes of the issue. For purposes of this section, expenditures for the governmental purpose of an issue include payments for interest, but not principal, on the issue, and for principal or interest on another issue of obligations. The preceding sentence does not apply for purposes of the 18-month and 2-year exceptions if those payments cause the issue to be a refunding issue.

(4) De minimis rule. Any failure to satisfy the final spending requirement of the 18-month exception or the 2-year exception is disregarded if the issuer exercises due diligence to complete the project financed and the amount of the failure does not exceed the lesser of 3 percent of the issue price of the issue or $250,000.

(5) Special definition of reasonably required reserve or replacement fund. For purposes of this section only, a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund also includes any fund to the extent described in § 1.148-5(c)(3)(i)(E) or (G).

(6) Pooled financing issue—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (b)(6), the spending exceptions apply to a pooled financing issue as a whole, rather than to each loan separately.

(ii) Election to apply spending exceptions separately to each loan—(A) In general. At the election (made on or before the issue date) of the issuer of a pooled financing issue, the spending exceptions are applied separately to each conduit loan, and the applicable spending requirements for a loan begin on the earlier of the date the loan is made, or the first day following the 1-year period beginning on the issue date of the pooled financing issue. If this election is made, the rebate requirement applies to, and none of the spending exceptions are available for, gross proceeds of the pooled financing bonds before the date on which the spending requirements for those proceeds begin.

(B) Application of spending exceptions. If the issuer makes the election under this paragraph (b)(6)(ii), the rebate requirement is satisfied for proceeds used to finance a particular conduit loan to the extent that the loan satisfies a spending exception or the small issuer exception under § 1.148-8, regardless of whether any other conduit loans allocable to the issue satisfy such an exception. A pooled financing issue is an issue of arbitrage bonds, however, unless the entire issue satisfies the requirements of section 148. An issuer may pay rebate for some conduit loans and 1 1/2 percent penalty for other conduit loans from the same pooled financing issue. The 1 1/2 percent penalty is computed separately for each conduit loan.

(C) Elections under 2-year exception. If the issuer makes the election under this paragraph (b)(6)(ii), the issuer may make all elections under the 2-year exception separately for each loan. Elections regarding a loan that otherwise must be made by the issuer on or before the issue date instead may be made on or before the date the loan is made (but not later than 1 year after the issue date).

(D) Example. The operation of this paragraph (b)(6) is illustrated by the following example:

Example. Pooled financing issue.

On January 1, 1994, Authority J issues bonds. As of the issue date, J reasonably expects to use the proceeds of the issue to make loans to City K, County L, and City M. J does not reasonably expect to use more than 75 percent of the available construction proceeds of the issue for construction expenditures. On or before the issue date, J elects to apply the spending exceptions separately for each loan, with spending requirements beginning on the earlier of the date the loan is made or the first day following the 1-year period beginning on the issue date. On February 1, 1994, J loans a portion of the proceeds to K, and K reasonably expects that 45 percent of those amounts will be used for construction expenditures. On the date this loan is made, J elects under paragraph (j) of this section to treat 60 percent of the amount loaned to K as a separate construction issue, and also elects the 1 1/2 percent penalty under paragraph (k) of this section for the separate construction issue. On March 1, 1994, J loans a portion of the proceeds to L, and L reasonably expects that more than 75 percent of those amounts will be used for construction expenditures. On March 1, 1995, J loans the remainder of the proceeds to M, and none of those amounts will be used for construction expenditures. J must satisfy the rebate requirement for all gross proceeds before those amounts are loaned. For the loan to K, the spending periods begin on February 1, 1994, and the 1 1/2 percent penalty must be paid for any failure to meet a spending requirement for the portion of the loan to K that is treated as a separate construction issue. Rebate must be paid on the remaining portion of the loan to K, unless that portion qualifies for the 6-month exception. For the loan to L, the spending periods begin on March 1, 1994, and the rebate requirement must be satisfied unless the 6-month, 18-month, or the 2-year exception is satisfied with respect to those amounts. For the loan to M, the spending periods begin on January 2, 1995, and the rebate requirement must be satisfied for those amounts unless the 6-month or 18-month exception is satisfied.

(c) 6-month exception—(1) General rule. An issue is treated as meeting the rebate requirement if—

(i) The gross proceeds (as modified by paragraph (c)(3) of this section) of the issue are allocated to expenditures for the governmental purposes of the issue within the 6-month period beginning on the issue date (the 6-month spending period); and

(ii) The rebate requirement is met for amounts not required to be spent within the 6-month spending period (excluding earnings on a bona fide debt service fund).

(2) Additional period for certain bonds. The 6-month spending period is extended for an additional 6 months in certain circumstances specified under section 148(f)(4)(B)(ii).

(3) Amounts not included in gross proceeds. For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section only, gross proceeds has the meaning used in § 1.148-1, except it does not include amounts—

(i) In a bona fide debt service fund;

(ii) In a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund (see § 1.148-7(b)(5));

(iii) That, as of the issue date, are not reasonably expected to be gross proceeds but that become gross proceeds after the end of the 6-month spending period;

(iv) Representing sale or investment proceeds derived from payments under any purpose investment of the issue; and

(v) Representing repayments of grants (as defined in § 1.150-1(f)) financed by the issue.

(4) Series of refundings. If a principal purpose of a series of refunding issues is to exploit the difference between taxable and tax-exempt interest rates by investing proceeds during the temporary periods provided in § 1.148-9(d), the 6-month spending period for all issues in the series begins on the issue date of the first issue in the series.

(d) 18-month exception—(1) General rule. An issue is treated as meeting the rebate requirement if all of the following requirements are satisfied—

(i) 18-month expenditure schedule met. The gross proceeds (as defined in paragraph (d)(3) of this section) are allocated to expenditures for a governmental purpose of the issue in accordance with the following schedule (the 18-month expenditure schedule) measured from the issue date—

(A) At least 15 percent within 6 months (the first spending period);

(B) At least 60 percent within 12 months (the second spending period); and

(C) 100 percent within 18 months (the third spending period).

(ii) Rebate requirement met for amounts not required to be spent. The rebate requirement is met for all amounts not required to be spent in accordance with the 18-month expenditure schedule (other than earnings on a bona fide debt service fund).

(iii) Issue qualifies for initial temporary period. All of the gross proceeds (as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section) of the issue qualify for the initial temporary period under § 1.148-2(e)(2).

(2) Extension for reasonable retainage. An issue does not fail to satisfy the spending requirement for the third spending period as a result of a reasonable retainage if the reasonable retainage is allocated to expenditures within 30 months of the issue date. Reasonable retainage has the meaning under paragraph (h) of this section, as modified to refer to net sale proceeds on the date 18 months after the issue date.

(3) Gross proceeds—(i) Definition of gross proceeds. For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section only, gross proceeds means gross proceeds as defined in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, as modified to refer to “18 months” in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section in lieu of “6 months.”

(ii) Estimated earnings. For purposes of determining compliance with the first two spending periods under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, the amount of investment proceeds included in gross proceeds of the issue is determined based on the issuer's reasonable expectations on the issue date.

(4) Application to multipurpose issues. This paragraph (d) does not apply to an issue any portion of which is treated as meeting the rebate requirement under paragraph (e) of this section (relating to the 2-year exception).

(e) 2-year exception—(1) General rule. A construction issue is treated as meeting the rebate requirement for available construction proceeds if those proceeds are allocated to expenditures for governmental purposes of the issue in accordance with the following schedule (the 2-year expenditure schedule), measured from the issue date—

(i) At least 10 percent within 6 months (the first spending period);

(ii) At least 45 percent within 1 year (the second spending period);

(iii) At least 75 percent within 18 months (the third spending period); and

(iv) 100 percent within 2 years (the fourth spending period).

(2) Extension for reasonable retainage. An issue does not fail to satisfy the spending requirement for the fourth spending period as a result of unspent amounts for reasonable retainage (as defined in paragraph (h) of this section) if those amounts are allocated to expenditures within 3 years of the issue date.

(3) Definitions. For purposes of the 2-year exception, the following definitions apply:

(i) Real property means land and improvements to land, such as buildings or other inherently permanent structures, including interests in real property. For example, real property includes wiring in a building, plumbing systems, central heating or air-conditioning systems, pipes or ducts, elevators, escalators installed in a building, paved parking areas, roads, wharves and docks, bridges, and sewage lines.

(ii) Tangible personal property means any tangible property other than real property, including interests in tangible personal property. For example, tangible personal property includes machinery that is not a structural component of a building, subway cars, fire trucks, automobiles, office equipment, testing equipment, and furnishings.

(iii) Substantially completed. Construction may be treated as substantially completed when the issuer abandons construction or when at least 90 percent of the total costs of the construction reasonably expected, as of that date, to be financed with the available construction proceeds have been allocated to expenditures.

(f) Construction issue—(1) Definition. Construction issue means any issue that is not a refunding issue if—

(i) The issuer reasonably expects, as of the issue date, that at least 75 percent of the available construction proceeds of the issue will be allocated to construction expenditures (as defined in paragraph (g) of this section) for property owned by a governmental unit or a 501(c)(3) organization; and

(ii) Any private activity bonds that are part of the issue are qualified 501(c)(3) bonds or private activity bonds issued to finance property to be owned by a governmental unit or a 501(c)(3) organization.

(2) Use of actual facts. For the provisions of paragraphs (e) through (m) of this section that apply based on the issuer's reasonable expectations, an issuer may elect on or before the issue date to apply all of those provisions based on actual facts, except that this election does not apply for purposes of determining whether an issue is a construction issue under paragraph (f)(1) of this section if the 1 1/2 percent penalty election is made under paragraph (k) of this section.

(3) Ownership requirement—(i) In general. A governmental unit or 501(c)(3) organization is treated as the owner of property if it would be treated as the owner for Federal income tax purposes. For obligations issued on behalf of a State or local governmental unit, the entity that actually issues the bonds is treated as a governmental unit.

(ii) Safe harbor for leases and management contracts. Property leased by a governmental unit or a 501(c)(3) organization is treated as owned by the governmental unit or 501(c)(3) organization if the lessee complies with the requirements of section 142(b)(1)(B). For a bond described in section 142(a)(6), the requirements of section 142(b)(1)(B) apply as modified by section 146(h)(2).

(g) Construction expenditures—(1) Definition. Except as otherwise provided, construction expenditures means capital expenditures (as defined in § 1.150-1) that are allocable to the cost of real property or constructed personal property (as defined in paragraph (g)(3) of this section). Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, construction expenditures do not include expenditures for acquisitions of interests in land or other existing real property.

(2) Certain acquisitions under turnkey contracts treated as construction expenditures. Expenditures are not for the acquisition of an interest in existing real property other than land if the contract between the seller and the issuer requires the seller to build or install the property (e.g., a turnkey contract), but only to the extent that the property has not been built or installed at the time the parties enter into the contract.

(3) Constructed personal property. Constructed personal property means tangible personal property (or, if acquired pursuant to a single acquisition contract, properties) or specially developed computer software if—

(i) A substantial portion of the property or properties is completed more than 6 months after the earlier of the date construction or rehabilitation commenced and the date the issuer entered into an acquisition contract;

(ii) Based on the reasonable expectations of the issuer, if any, or representations of the person constructing the property, with the exercise of due diligence, completion of construction or rehabilitation (and delivery to the issuer) could not have occurred within that 6-month period; and

(iii) If the issuer itself builds or rehabilitates the property, not more than 75 percent of the capitalizable cost is attributable to property acquired by the issuer (e.g., components, raw materials, and other supplies).

(4) Specially developed computer software. Specially developed computer software means any programs or routines used to cause a computer to perform a desired task or set of tasks, and the documentation required to describe and maintain those programs, provided that the software is specially developed and is functionally related and subordinate to real property or other constructed personal property.

(5) Examples. The operation of this paragraph (g) is illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1. Purchase of construction materials.

City A issues bonds to finance a new office building. A uses proceeds of the bonds to purchase materials to be used in constructing the building, such as bricks, pipes, wires, lighting, carpeting, heating equipment, and similar materials. Expenditures by A for the construction materials are construction expenditures because those expenditures will be capitalizable to the cost of the building upon completion, even though they are not initially capitalizable to the cost of existing real property. This result would be the same if A hires a third-party to perform the construction, unless the office building is partially constructed at the time that A contracts to purchase the building.

Example 2. Turnkey contract.

City B issues bonds to finance a new office building. B enters into a turnkey contract with developer D under which D agrees to provide B with a completed building on a specified completion date on land currently owned by D. Under the agreement, D holds title to the land and building and assumes any risk of loss until the completion date, at which time title to the land and the building will be transferred to B. No construction has been performed by the date that B and D enter into the agreement. All payments by B to D for construction of the building are construction expenditures because all the payments are properly capitalized to the cost of the building, but payments by B to D allocable to the acquisition of the land are not construction expenditures.

Example 3. Right-of-way. P,

a public agency, issues bonds to finance the acquisition of a right-of-way and the construction of sewage lines through numerous parcels of land. The right-of-way is acquired primarily through P' s exercise of its powers of eminent domain. As of the issue date, P reasonably expects that it will take approximately 2 years to acquire the entire right-of-way because of the time normally required for condemnation proceedings. No expenditures for the acquisition of the right-of-way are construction expenditures because they are costs incurred to acquire an interest in existing real property.

Example 4. Subway cars.

City C issues bonds to finance new subway cars. C reasonably expects that it will take more than 6 months for the subway cars to be constructed to C's specifications. The subway cars are constructed personal property. Alternatively, if the builder of the subway cars informs C that it will only take 3 months to build the subway cars to C's specifications, no payments for the subway cars are construction expenditures.

Example 5. Fractional interest in property. U,

a public agency, issues bonds to finance an undivided fractional interest in a newly constructed power-generating facility. U contributes its ratable share of the cost of building the new facility to the project manager for the facility. U's contributions are construction expenditures in the same proportion that the total expenditures for the facility qualify as construction expenditures.

Example 6. Park land.

City D issues bonds to finance the purchase of unimproved land and the cost of subsequent improvements to the land, such as grading and landscaping, necessary to transform it into a park. The costs of the improvements are properly capitalizable to the cost of the land, and therefore, are construction expenditures, but expenditures for the acquisition of the land are not.

(h) Reasonable retainage definition. Reasonable retainage means an amount, not to exceed 5 percent of available construction proceeds as of the end of the fourth spending period, that is retained for reasonable business purposes relating to the property financed with the proceeds of the issue. For example, a reasonable retainage may include a retention to ensure or promote compliance with a construction contract in circumstances in which the retained amount is not yet payable, or in which the issuer reasonably determines that a dispute exists regarding completion or payment.

(i) Available construction proceeds—(1) Definition in general. Available construction proceeds has the meaning used in section 148(f)(4)(C)(vi). For purposes of this definition, earnings include earnings on any tax-exempt bond. Pre-issuance accrued interest and earnings thereon may be disregarded. Amounts that are not gross proceeds as a result of the application of the universal cap under § 1.148-6(b)(2) are not available construction proceeds.

(2) Earnings on a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund. Earnings on any reasonably required reserve or replacement fund are available construction proceeds only to the extent that those earnings accrue before the earlier of the date construction is substantially completed or the date that is 2 years after the issue date. An issuer may elect on or before the issue date to exclude from available construction proceeds the earnings on such a fund. If the election is made, the rebate requirement applies to the excluded amounts from the issue date.

(3) Reasonable expectations test for future earnings. For purposes of determining compliance with the spending requirements as of the end of each of the first three spending periods, available construction proceeds include the amount of future earnings that the issuer reasonably expected as of the issue date.

(4) Issuance costs. Available construction proceeds do not include gross proceeds used to pay issuance costs financed by an issue, but do include earnings on such proceeds. Thus, an expenditure of gross proceeds of an issue for issuance costs does not count toward meeting the spending requirements. The expenditure of earnings on gross proceeds used to pay issuance costs does count toward meeting those requirements. If the spending requirements are met and the proceeds used to pay issuance costs are expended by the end of the fourth spending period, those proceeds and the earnings thereon are treated as having satisfied the rebate requirement.

(5) One and one-half percent penalty in lieu of arbitrage rebate. For purposes of the spending requirements of paragraph (e) of this section, available construction proceeds as of the end of any spending period are reduced by the amount of penalty in lieu of arbitrage rebate (under paragraph (k) of this section) that the issuer has paid from available construction proceeds before the last day of the spending period.

(6) Payments on purpose investments and repayments of grants. Available construction proceeds do not include—

(i) Sale or investment proceeds derived from payments under any purpose investment of the issue; or

(ii) Repayments of grants (as defined in § 1.150-1(f)) financed by the issue.

(7) Examples. The operation of this paragraph (i) is illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1. Treatment of investment earnings.

City F issues bonds having an issue price of $10,000,000. F deposits all of the proceeds of the issue into a construction fund to be used for expenditures other than costs of issuance. F estimates on the issue date that, based on reasonably expected expenditures and rates of investment, earnings on the construction fund will be $800,000. As of the issue date and the end of each of the first three spending periods, the amount of available construction proceeds is $10,800,000. To qualify as a construction issue, F must reasonably expect on the issue date that at least $8,100,000 (75 percent of $10,800,000) will be used for construction expenditures. In order to meet the 10 percent spending requirement at the end of the first spending period, F must spend at least $1,080,000. As of the end of the fourth spending period, F has received $1,100,000 in earnings. In order to meet the spending requirement at the end of the fourth spending period, however, F must spend all of the $11,100,000 of actual available construction proceeds (except for reasonable retainage not exceeding $555,000).

Example 2. Treatment of investment earnings without a reserve fund.

City G issues bonds having an issue price of $11,200,000. G does not elect to exclude earnings on the reserve fund from available construction proceeds. G uses $200,000 of proceeds to pay issuance costs and deposits $1,000,000 of proceeds into a reasonably required reserve fund. G deposits the remaining $10,000,000 of proceeds into a construction fund to be used for construction expenditures. On the issue date, G reasonably expects that, based on the reasonably expected date of substantial completion and rates of investment, total earnings on the construction fund will be $800,000, and total earnings on the reserve fund to the date of substantial completion will be $150,000. G reasonably expects that substantial completion will occur during the fourth spending period. As of the issue date, the amount of available construction proceeds is $10,950,000 ($10,000,000 originally deposited into the construction fund plus $800,000 expected earnings on the construction fund and $150,000 expected earnings on the reserve fund). To qualify as a construction issue, G must reasonably expect on the issue date that at least $8,212,500 will be used for construction expenditures.

Example 3. Election to exclude earnings on a reserve fund.

The facts are the same as Example 2, except that G elects on the issue date to exclude earnings on the reserve fund from available construction proceeds. The amount of available construction proceeds as of the issue date is $10,800,000.

(j) Election to treat portion of issue used for construction as separate issue—(1) In general. For purposes of paragraph (e) of this section, if any proceeds of an issue are to be used for construction expenditures, the issuer may elect on or before the issue date to treat the portion of the issue that is not a refunding issue as two, and only two, separate issues, if—

(i) One of the separate issues is a construction issue as defined in paragraph (f) of this section;

(ii) The issuer reasonably expects, as of the issue date, that this construction issue will finance all of the construction expenditures to be financed by the issue; and

(iii) The issuer makes an election to apportion the issue under this paragraph (j)(1) in which it identifies the amount of the issue price of the issue allocable to the construction issue.

(2) Example. The operation of this paragraph (j) is illustrated by the following example.

Example.

City D issues bonds having an issue price of $19,000,000. On the issue date, D reasonably expects to use $10,800,000 of bond proceeds (including investment earnings) for construction expenditures for the project being financed. D deposits $10,000,000 in a construction fund to be used for construction expenditures and $9,000,000 in an acquisition fund to be used for acquisition of equipment not qualifying as construction expenditures. D estimates on the issue date, based on reasonably expected expenditures and rates of investment, that total earnings on the construction fund will be $800,000 and total earnings on the acquisition fund will be $200,000. Because the total construction expenditures to be financed by the issue are expected to be $10,800,000, the maximum available construction proceeds for a construction issue is $14,400,000 ($10,800,000 divided by 0.75). To determine the maximum amount of the issue price allocable to a construction issue, the estimated investment earnings allocable to the construction issue are subtracted. The entire $800,000 of earnings on the construction fund are allocable to the construction issue. Only a portion of the $200,000 of earnings on the acquisition fund, however, are allocable to the construction issue. The total amount of the available construction proceeds that is expected to be used for acquisition is $3,600,000 ($14,400,000−$10,800,000). The portion of earnings on the acquisition fund that is allocable to the construction issue is $78,261 ($200,000 × $3,600,000/$9,200,000). Accordingly, D may elect on or before the issue date to treat up to $13,521,739 of the issue price as a construction issue ($14,400,000−$800,000−$78,261). D's election must specify the amount of the issue price treated as a construction issue. The balance of the issue price is treated as a separate nonconstruction issue that is subject to the rebate requirement unless it meets another exception to arbitrage rebate. Because the financing of a construction issue is a separate governmental purpose under § 1.148-9(h), the election causes the issue to be a multipurpose issue under that section.

(k) One and one-half percent penalty in lieu of arbitrage rebate—(1) In general. Under section 148(f)(4)(C)(vii), an issuer of a construction issue may elect on or before the issue date to pay a penalty (the 1 1/2 percent penalty) to the United States in lieu of the obligation to pay the rebate amount on available construction proceeds upon failure to satisfy the spending requirements of paragraph (e) of this section. The 1 1/2 percent penalty is calculated separately for each spending period, including each semiannual period after the end of the fourth spending period, and is equal to 1.5 percent times the underexpended proceeds as of the end of the spending period. For each spending period, underexpended proceeds equal the amount of available construction proceeds required to be spent by the end of the spending period, less the amount actually allocated to expenditures for the governmental purposes of the issue by that date. The 1 1/2 percent penalty must be paid to the United States no later than 90 days after the end of the spending period to which it relates. The 1 1/2 percent penalty continues to apply at the end of each spending period and each semiannual period thereafter until the earliest of the following—

(i) The termination of the penalty under paragraph (l) of this section;

(ii) The expenditure of all of the available construction proceeds; or

(iii) The last stated final maturity date of bonds that are part of the issue and any bonds that refund those bonds.

(2) Application to reasonable retainage. If an issue meets the exception for reasonable retainage except that all retainage is not spent within 3 years of the issue date, the issuer must pay the 1 1/2 percent penalty to the United States for any reasonable retainage that was not so spent as of the close of the 3-year period and each later spending period.

(3) Coordination with rebate requirement. The rebate requirement is treated as met with respect to available construction proceeds for a period if the 1 1/2 percent penalty is paid in accordance with this section.

(l) Termination of 1 1/2 percent penalty—(1)Termination after initial temporary period. The issuer may terminate the 1 1/2 percent penalty after the initial temporary period (a section 148(f)(4)(C)(viii) penalty termination) if—

(i) Not later than 90 days after the earlier of the end of the initial temporary period or the date construction is substantially completed, the issuer elects to terminate the 1 1/2 percent penalty; provided that solely for this purpose, the initial temporary period may be extended by the issuer to a date ending 5 years after the issue date;

(ii) Within 90 days after the end of the initial temporary period, the issuer pays a penalty equal to 3 percent of the unexpended available construction proceeds determined as of the end of the initial temporary period, multiplied by the number of years (including fractions of years computed to 2 decimal places) in the initial temporary period;

(iii) For the period beginning as of the close of the initial temporary period, the unexpended available construction proceeds are not invested in higher yielding investments; and

(iv) On the earliest date on which the bonds may be called or otherwise redeemed, with or without a call premium, the unexpended available construction proceeds as of that date (not including any amount earned after the date on which notice of the redemption was required to be given) must be used to redeem the bonds. Amounts used to pay any call premium are treated as used to redeem bonds. This redemption requirement may be met by purchases of bonds by the issuer on the open market at prices not exceeding fair market value. A portion of the annual principal payment due on serial bonds of a construction issue may be paid from the unexpended amount, but only in an amount no greater than the amount that bears the same ratio to the annual principal due that the total unexpended amount bears to the issue price of the construction issue.

(2) Termination before end of initial temporary period. If the construction to be financed by the construction issue is substantially completed before the end of the initial temporary period, the issuer may elect to terminate the 1 1/2 percent penalty before the end of the initial temporary period (a section 148(f)(4)(C)(ix) penalty termination) if—

(i) Before the close of the initial temporary period and not later than 90 days after the date the construction is substantially completed, the issuer elects to terminate the 1 1/2 percent penalty;

(ii) The election identifies the amount of available construction proceeds that will not be spent for the governmental purposes of the issue; and

(iii) The issuer has met all of the conditions for a section 148(f)(4)(C)(viii) penalty termination, applied as if the initial temporary period ended as of the date the required election for a section 148(f)(4)(C)(ix) penalty termination is made. That penalty termination election satisfies the required election for a section 148(f)(4)(C)(viii) termination.

(3) Application to reasonable retainage. Solely for purposes of determining whether the conditions for terminating the 1 1/2 percent penalty are met, reasonable retainage may be treated as spent for a governmental purpose of the construction issue. Reasonable retainage that is so treated continues to be subject to the 1 1/2 percent penalty.

(4) Example. The operation of this paragraph (l) is illustrated by the following example.

Example.

City I issues a construction issue having a 20-year maturity and qualifying for a 3-year initial temporary period. The bonds are first subject to optional redemption 10 years after the issue date at a premium of 3 percent. I elects, on or before the issue date, to pay the 1 1/2 percent penalty in lieu of arbitrage rebate. At the end of the 3-year temporary period, the project is not substantially completed, and $1,500,000 of available construction proceeds of the issue are unspent. At that time, I reasonably expects to need $500,000 to complete the project. I may terminate the 1 1/2 percent penalty in lieu of arbitrage rebate with respect to the excess $1,500,000 by electing to terminate within 90 days of the end of the initial temporary period; paying a penalty to the United States of $135,000 (3 percent of $1,500,000 multiplied by 3 years); restricting the yield on the investment of unspent available construction proceeds for 7 years until the first call date, although any portion of these proceeds may still be spent on the project prior to that call date; and using the available construction proceeds that, as of the first call date, have not been allocated to expenditures for the governmental purposes of the issue to redeem bonds on that call date. If I fails to make the termination election, I is required to pay the 1 1/2 percent penalty on unspent available construction proceeds every 6 months until the latest maturity date of bonds of the issue (or any bonds of another issue that refund such bonds).

(m) Payment of penalties. Each penalty payment under this section must be paid in the manner provided in § 1.148-3(g). See § 1.148-3(h) for rules on failures to pay penalties under this section.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33535, June 18, 1993; 58 FR 44452, Aug. 23, 1993; T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46597, July 18, 2016]

§ 1.148-8 Small issuer exception to rebate requirement.

(a) Scope. Under section 148(f)(4)(D), bonds issued to finance governmental activities of certain small issuers are treated as meeting the arbitrage rebate requirement of section 148(f)(2) (the “small issuer exception”). This section provides guidance on the small issuer exception.

(b) General taxing powers. The small issuer exception generally applies only to bonds issued by governmental units with general taxing powers. A governmental unit has general taxing powers if it has the power to impose taxes (or to cause another entity to impose taxes) of general applicability which, when collected, may be used for the general purposes of the issuer. The taxing power may be limited to a specific type of tax, provided that the applicability of the tax is not limited to a small number of persons. The governmental unit's exercise of its taxing power may be subject to procedural limitations, such as voter approval requirements, but may not be contingent on approval by another governmental unit. See, also, section 148(f)(4)(D)(iv).

(c) Size limitation—(1) In general. An issue (other than a refunding issue) qualifies for the small issuer exception only if the issuer reasonably expects, as of the issue date, that the aggregate face amount of all tax-exempt bonds (other than private activity bonds) issued by it during that calendar year will not exceed $5,000,000; or the aggregate face amount of all tax-exempt bonds of the issuer (other than private activity bonds) actually issued during that calendar year does not exceed $5,000,000. For this purpose, if an issue has more than a de minimis amount of original issue discount or premium, aggregate face amount means the aggregate issue price of that issue (determined without regard to pre-issuance accrued interest).

(2) Aggregation rules. The following aggregation rules apply for purposes of applying the $5,000,000 size limitation under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

(i) On-behalf-of issuers. An issuer and all entities (other than political subdivisions) that issue bonds on behalf of that issuer are treated as one issuer.

(ii) Subordinate entities—(A) In general. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d) of this section and section 148(f)(4)(D)(iv), all bonds issued by a subordinate entity are also treated as issued by each entity to which it is subordinate. An issuer is subordinate to another governmental entity if it is directly or indirectly controlled by the other entity within the meaning of § 1.150-1(e).

(B) Exception for allocations of size limitation. If an entity properly makes an allocation of a portion of its $5,000,000 size limitation to a subordinate entity (including an on behalf of issuer) under section 148(f)(4)(D)(iv), the portion of bonds issued by the subordinate entity under the allocation is treated as issued only by the allocating entity and not by any other entity to which the issuing entity is subordinate. These allocations are irrevocable and must bear a reasonable relationship to the benefits received by the allocating unit from issues issued by the subordinate entity. The benefits to be considered include the manner in which—

(1) Proceeds are to be distributed;

(2) The debt service is to be paid;

(3) The facility financed is to be owned;

(4) The use or output of the facility is to be shared; and

(5) Costs of operation and maintenance are to be shared.

(iii) Avoidance of size limitation. An entity formed or availed of to avoid the purposes of the $5,000,000 size limitation and all entities that would benefit from the avoidance are treated as one issuer. Situations in which an entity is formed or availed of to avoid the purposes of the $5,000,000 size limitation include those in which the issuer—

(A) Issues bonds which, but for the $5,000,000 size limitation, would have been issued by another entity; and

(B) Does not receive a substantial benefit from the project financed by the bonds.

(3) Certain refunding bonds not taken into account. In applying the $5,000,000 size limitation, there is not taken into account the portion of an issue that is a current refunding issue to the extent that the stated principal amount of the refunding bond does not exceed the portion of the outstanding stated principal amount of the refunded bond paid with proceeds of the refunding bond. For this purpose, principal amount means, in reference to a plain par bond, its stated principal amount plus accrued unpaid interest, and in reference to any other bond, its present value.

(d) Pooled financings—treatment of conduit borrowers. A loan to a conduit borrower in a pooled financing qualifies for the small issuer exception, regardless of the size of either the pooled financing or of any loan to other conduit borrowers, only if—

(1) The bonds of the pooled financing are not private activity bonds;

(2) None of the loans to conduit borrowers are private activity bonds; and

(3) The loan to the conduit borrower meets all the requirements of the small issuer exception.

(e) Refunding issues—(1) In general. Sections 148(f)(4)(D) (v) and (vi) provide restrictions on application of the small issuer exception to refunding issues.

(2) Multipurpose issues. The multipurpose issue allocation rules of § 1.148-9(h) apply for purposes of determining whether refunding bonds meet the requirements of section 148(f)(4)(D)(v).

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33540, June 18, 1993, as amended by T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46597, July 18, 2016]

§ 1.148-9 Arbitrage rules for refunding issues.

(a) Scope of application. This section contains special arbitrage rules for refunding issues. These rules apply for all purposes of section 148 and govern allocations of proceeds, bonds, and investments to determine transferred proceeds, temporary periods, reasonably required reserve or replacement funds, minor portions, and separate issue treatment of certain multipurpose issues.

(b) Transferred proceeds allocation rule—(1) In general. When proceeds of the refunding issue discharge any of the outstanding principal amount of the prior issue, proceeds of the prior issue become transferred proceeds of the refunding issue and cease to be proceeds of the prior issue. The amount of proceeds of the prior issue that becomes transferred proceeds of the refunding issue is an amount equal to the proceeds of the prior issue on the date of that discharge multiplied by a fraction—

(i) The numerator of which is the principal amount of the prior issue discharged with proceeds of the refunding issue on the date of that discharge; and

(ii) The denominator of which is the total outstanding principal amount of the prior issue on the date immediately before the date of that discharge.

(2) Special definition of principal amount. For purposes of this section, principal amount means, in reference to a plain par bond, its stated principal amount, and in reference to any other bond, its present value.

(3) Relation of transferred proceeds rule to universal cap rule—(i) In general. Paragraphs (b)(1) and (c) of this section apply to allocate transferred proceeds and corresponding investments to a refunding issue on any date required by those paragraphs before the application of the universal cap rule of § 1.148-6(b)(2) to reallocate any of those amounts. To the extent nonpurpose investments allocable to proceeds of a refunding issue exceed the universal cap for the issue on the date that amounts become transferred proceeds of the refunding issue, those transferred proceeds and corresponding investments are reallocated back to the issue from which they transferred on that same date to the extent of the unused universal cap on that prior issue.

(ii) Example. The following example illustrates the application of this paragraph of (b)(3):

Example.

On January 1, 1995, $100,000 of nonpurpose investments allocable to proceeds of issue A become transferred proceeds of issue B under § 1.148-9, but the unused portion of issue B' s universal cap is $75,000 as of that date. On January 1, 1995, issue A has unused universal cap in excess of $25,000. Thus, $25,000 of nonpurpose investments representing the transferred proceeds are immediately reallocated back to issue A on January 1, 1995, and are proceeds of issue A. On the next transfer date under § 1.148-9, the $25,000 receives no priority in determining transferred proceeds as of that date but is treated the same as all other proceeds of issue A subject to transfer.

(4) Limitation on multi-generational transfers. This paragraph (b)(4) contains limitations on the manner in which proceeds of a first generation issue that is refunded by a refunding issue (a second generation issue) become transferred proceeds of a refunding issue (a third generation issue) that refunds the second generation issue. Proceeds of the first generation issue that become transferred proceeds of the third generation issue are treated as having a yield equal to the yield on the refunding escrow allocated to the second generation issue (i.e., as determined under § 1.148-5(b)(2)(iv)). The determination of the transferred proceeds of the third generation issue does not affect compliance with the requirements of section 148, including the determination of the amount of arbitrage rebate with respect to or the yield on the refunding escrow, of the second generation issue.

(c) Special allocation rules for refunding issues—(1) Allocations of investments—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c), investments purchased with sale proceeds or investment proceeds of a refunding issue must be allocated to those proceeds, and investments not purchased with those proceeds may not be allocated to those proceeds (i.e., a specific tracing method).

(ii) Allocations to transferred proceeds. When proceeds of a prior issue become transferred proceeds of a refunding issue, investments (and the related payments and receipts) of proceeds of the prior issue that are held in a refunding escrow for another issue are allocated to the transferred proceeds under the ratable allocation method described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section. Investments of proceeds of the prior issue that are not held in a refunding escrow for another issue are allocated to the transferred proceeds by application of the allocation methods described in paragraph (c)(1) (iii) or (iv) of this section, consistently applied to all investments on a transfer date.

(iii) Ratable allocation method. Under the ratable allocation method, a ratable portion of each nonpurpose and purpose investment of proceeds of the prior issue is allocated to transferred proceeds of the refunding issue.

(iv) Representative allocation method—(A) In general. Under the representative allocation method, representative portions of the portfolio of nonpurpose investments and the portfolio of purpose investments of proceeds of the prior issue are allocated to transferred proceeds of the refunding issue. Unlike the ratable allocation method, this representative allocation method permits an allocation of particular whole investments. Whether a portion is representative is based on all the facts and circumstances, including, without limitation, whether the current yields, maturities, and current unrealized gains or losses on the particular allocated investments are reasonably comparable to those of the unallocated investments in the aggregate. In addition, if a portion of nonpurpose investments is otherwise representative, it is within the issuer's discretion to allocate the portion from whichever source of funds it deems appropriate, such as a reserve fund or a construction fund for a prior issue.

(B) Mark-to-market safe harbor for representative allocation method. In addition to other representative allocations, a specific allocation of a particular nonpurpose investment to transferred proceeds (e.g., of lower yielding investments) is treated as satisfying the representative allocation method if that investment is valued at fair market value on the transfer date in determining the payments and receipts on that date, but only if the portion of the nonpurpose investments that transfers is based on the relative fair market value of all nonpurpose investments.

(2) Allocations of mixed escrows to expenditures for principal, interest, and redemption prices on a prior issue—(i) In general. Except for amounts required or permitted to be accounted for under paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, proceeds of a refunding issue and other amounts that are not proceeds of a refunding issue that are deposited in a refunding escrow (a mixed escrow) must be accounted for under this paragraph (c)(2)(i). Those proceeds and other amounts must be allocated to expenditures for principal, interest, or stated redemption prices on the prior issue so that the expenditures of those proceeds do not occur faster than ratably with expenditures of the other amounts in the mixed escrow. During the period that the prior issue has unspent proceeds, however, these allocations must be ratable (with reasonable adjustments for rounding) both between sources for expenditures (i.e., proceeds and other amounts) and between uses (i.e., principal, interest, and stated redemption prices on the prior issue).

(ii) Exceptions—(A) Mandatory allocation of certain non-proceeds to earliest expenditures. If amounts other than proceeds of the refunding issue are deposited in a mixed escrow, but before the issue date of the refunding issue those amounts had been held in a bona fide debt service fund or a fund to carry out the governmental purpose of the prior issue (e.g., a construction fund), those amounts must be allocated to the earliest maturing investments in the mixed escrow.

(B) Permissive allocation of non-proceeds to earliest expenditures. Excluding amounts covered by paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section and subject to any required earlier expenditure of those amounts, any amounts in a mixed escrow that are not proceeds of a refunding issue may be allocated to the earliest maturing investments in the mixed escrow, provided that those investments mature and the proceeds thereof are expended before the date of any expenditure from the mixed escrow to pay any principal of the prior issue.

(d) Temporary periods in refundings—(1) In general. Proceeds of a refunding issue may be invested in higher yielding investments under section 148(c) only during the temporary periods described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.

(2) Types of temporary periods in refundings. The available temporary periods for proceeds of a refunding issue are as follows:

(i) General temporary period for refunding issues. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (d)(2), the temporary period for proceeds (other than transferred proceeds) of a refunding issue is the period ending 30 days after the issue date of the refunding issue.

(ii) Temporary periods for current refunding issues—(A) In general. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, the temporary period for proceeds (other than transferred proceeds) of a current refunding issue is 90 days.

(B) Temporary period for short-term current refunding issues. The temporary period for proceeds (other than transferred proceeds) of a current refunding issue that has an original term to maturity of 270 days or less may not exceed 30 days. The aggregate temporary periods for proceeds (other than transferred proceeds) of all current refunding issues described in the preceding sentence that are part of the same series of refundings is 90 days. An issue is part of a series of refundings if it finances or refinances the same expenditures for a particular governmental purpose as another issue.

(iii) Temporary periods for transferred proceeds—(A) In general. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, each available temporary period for transferred proceeds of a refunding issue begins on the date those amounts become transferred proceeds of the refunding issue and ends on the date that, without regard to the discharge of the prior issue, the available temporary period for those proceeds would have ended had those proceeds remained proceeds of the prior issue.

(B) Termination of initial temporary period for prior issue in an advance refunding. The initial temporary period under § 1.148-2(e) (2) and (3) for the proceeds of a prior issue that is refunded by an advance refunding issue (including transferred proceeds) terminates on the issue date of the advance refunding issue.

(iv) Certain short-term gross proceeds. Except for proceeds of a refunding issue held in a refunding escrow, proceeds otherwise reasonably expected to be used to pay principal or interest on the prior issue, replacement proceeds not held in a bona fide debt service fund, and transferred proceeds, the temporary period for gross proceeds of a refunding issue is the 13-month period beginning on the date of receipt.

(e) Reasonably required reserve or replacement funds in refundings. In addition to the requirements of § 1.148-2(f), beginning on the issue date of a refunding issue, a reserve or replacement fund for a refunding issue or a prior issue is a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund under section 148(d) that may be invested in higher yielding investments only if the aggregate amount invested in higher yielding investments under this paragraph (e) for both the refunding issue and the prior issue does not exceed the size limitations under § 1.148-2 (f)(2) and (f)(3), measured by reference to the refunding issue only (regardless of whether proceeds of the prior issue have become transferred proceeds of the refunding issue).

(f) Minor portions in refundings. Beginning on the issue date of the refunding issue, gross proceeds not in excess of a minor portion of the refunding issue qualify for investment in higher yielding investments under section 148(e), and gross proceeds not in excess of a minor portion of the prior issue qualify for investment in higher yielding investments under either section 148(e) or section 149(d)(3)(A)(v), whichever is applicable. Minor portion is defined in § 1.148-2(g).

(g) Certain waivers permitted. On or before the issue date, an issuer may waive the right to invest in higher yielding investments during any temporary period or as part of a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund. At any time, an issuer may waive the right to invest in higher yielding investments as part of a minor portion.

(h) Multipurpose issue allocations—(1) Application of multipurpose issue allocation rules. The portion of the bonds of a multipurpose issue reasonably allocated to any separate purpose under this paragraph (h) is treated as a separate issue for all purposes of section 148 except the following—

(i) Arbitrage yield. Except to the extent that the proceeds of an issue are allocable to two or more conduit loans that are tax-exempt bonds, determining the yield on a multipurpose issue and the yield on investments for purposes of the arbitrage yield restrictions of section 148 and the arbitrage rebate requirement of section 148(f);

(ii) Rebate amount. Except as provided in paragraph (h)(1)(i) of this section, determining the rebate amount for a multipurpose issue, including subsidiary matters with respect to that determination, such as the computation date credit under § 1.148-3(d)(1), the due date for payments, and the $100,000 bona fide debt service fund exception under section 148(f)(4)(A)(ii);

(iii) Minor portion. Determining the minor portion of an issue under section 148(e);

(iv) Reasonably required reserve or replacement fund. Determining the portion of an issue eligible for investment in higher yielding investments as part of a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund under section 148(d); and

(v) Effective date. Applying the provisions of § 1.148-11(b) (relating to elective retroactive application of §§ 1.148-1 through 1.148-10 to certain issues).

(2) Rules on allocations of multipurpose issues—(i) In general. This paragraph (h) applies to allocations of multipurpose issues, including allocations involving the refunding purposes of the issue. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (h), proceeds, investments, and bonds of a multipurpose issue may be allocated among the various separate purposes of the issue using any reasonable, consistently applied allocation method. An allocation is not reasonable if it achieves more favorable results under section 148 or 149(d) than could be achieved with actual separate issues. An allocation under this paragraph (h) may be made at any time, but once made may not be changed.

(ii) Allocations involving certain common costs. A ratable allocation of common costs (as described in paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of this section) among the separate purposes of the multipurpose issue is generally reasonable. If another allocation method more accurately reflects the extent to which any separate purpose of a multipurpose issue enjoys the economic benefit or bears the economic burden of certain common costs, that allocation method may be used.

(3) Separate purposes of a multipurpose issue—(i) In general. Separate purposes of a multipurpose issue include refunding a separate prior issue, financing a separate purpose investment, financing a construction issue (as defined in § 1.148-7(f)), and any clearly discrete governmental purpose reasonably expected to be financed by that issue. In general, all integrated or functionally related capital projects that qualify for the same initial temporary period under § 1.148-2(e)(2) are treated as having a single governmental purpose. The separate purposes of a refunding issue include the separate purposes of the prior issue, if any. Separate purposes may be treated as a single purpose if the proceeds used to finance those purposes are eligible for the same initial temporary period under section 148(c). For example, the use of proceeds of a multipurpose issue to finance separate qualified mortgage loans may be treated as a single purpose.

(ii) Financing common costs. Common costs of a multipurpose issue are not separate purposes. Common costs include issuance costs, accrued interest, capitalized interest on the issue, a reserve or replacement fund, qualified guarantee fees, and similar costs properly allocable to the separate purposes of the issue.

(iii) Example. The following example illustrates the application of this paragraph (h)(3).

Example.

On January 1, 1994, Housing Authority of State A issues a $10 million issue (the 1994 issue) at an interest rate of 10 percent to finance qualified mortgage loans for owner-occupied residences under section 143. During 1994, A originates $5 million in qualified mortgage loans at an interest rate of 10 percent. In 1995, the market interest rates for housing loans falls to 8 percent and A is unable to originate further loans from the 1994 issue. On January 1, 1996, A issues a $5 million issue (the 1996 issue) at an interest rate of 8 percent to refund partially the 1994 issue. Under paragraph (h) of this section, A treats the portion of the 1994 issue used to originate $5 million in loans as a separate issue comprised of that group of purpose investments. A allocates those purpose investments representing those loans to that separate unrefunded portion of the issue. In addition, A treats the unoriginated portion of the 1994 issue as a separate issue and allocates the nonpurpose investments representing the unoriginated proceeds of the 1994 issue to the refunded portion of the issue. Thus, when proceeds of the 1996 issue are used to pay principal on the refunded portion of the 1994 issue that is treated as a separate issue under paragraph (h) of this section, only the portion of the 1994 issue representing unoriginated loan funds invested in nonpurpose investments transfer to become transferred proceeds of the 1996 issue.

(4) Allocations of bonds of a multipurpose issue—(i) Reasonable allocation of bonds to portions of issue. After reasonable adjustment of the issue price of a multipurpose issue to account for common costs, the portion of the bonds of a multipurpose issue allocated to a separate purpose must have an issue price that bears the same ratio to the aggregate issue price of the multipurpose issue as the portion of the sale proceeds of the multipurpose issue used for that separate purpose bears to the aggregate sale proceeds of the multipurpose issue. For a refunding issue used to refund two or more prior issues, the portion of the sales proceeds allocated to the refunding of a separate prior issue is based on the present value of the refunded debt service on that prior issue, using the yield on investments in the refunding escrow allocable to the entire refunding issue as the discount rate.

(ii) Safe harbor for pro rata allocation method for bonds. The use of the relative amount of sales proceeds used for each separate purpose to ratably allocate each bond or a ratable number of substantially identical whole bonds is a reasonable method for allocating bonds of a multipurpose issue.

(iii) Safe harbor for allocations of bonds used to finance separate purpose investments. An allocation of a portion of the bonds of a multipurpose issue to a particular purpose investment is generally reasonable if that purpose investment has principal and interest payments that reasonably coincide in time and amount to principal and interest payments on the bonds allocated to that purpose investment.

(iv) Rounding of bond allocations to next whole bond denomination permitted. An allocation that rounds each resulting fractional bond up or down to the next integral multiple of a permitted denomination of bonds of that issue not in excess of $100,000 does not prevent the allocation from satisfying this paragraph (h)(4).

(v) Restrictions on allocations of bonds to refunding purposes. For each portion of a multipurpose issue that is used to refund a separate prior issue, a method of allocating bonds of that issue is reasonable under this paragraph (h) only if, in addition to the requirements of paragraphs (h)(1) and (h)(2) of this section, the portion of the bonds allocated to the refunding of that prior issue—

(A) Results from a pro rata allocation under paragraph (h)(4)(ii) of this section;

(B) Reflects aggregate principal and interest payable in each bond year that is less than, equal to, or proportionate to, the aggregate principal and interest payable on the prior issue in each bond year;

(C) Results from an allocation of all the bonds of the entire multipurpose issue in proportion to the remaining weighted average economic life of the capital projects financed or refinanced by the issue, determined in the same manner as under section 147(b); or

(D) Results from another reasonable allocation method, but only to the extent that the application of the allocation methods provided in this paragraph (h)(4)(v) is not permitted under state law restrictions applicable to the bonds, reasonable terms of bonds issued before, or subject to a master indenture that became effective prior to, July 1, 1993, or other similar restrictions or circumstances. This paragraph (h)(4)(v)(D) shall be strictly construed and is available only if it does not result in a greater burden on the market for tax-exempt bonds than would occur using one of the other allocation methods provided in this paragraph (h)(4)(v). (See also § 1.148-11(c)(2).)

(vi) Exception for refundings of interim notes. Paragraph (h)(4)(v) of this section need not be applied to refunding bonds issued to provide permanent financing for one or more projects if the prior issue had a term of less than 3 years and was sold in anticipation of permanent financing, but only if the aggregate term of all prior issues sold in anticipation of permanent financing was less than 3 years.

(5) Limitation on multi-generation allocations. This paragraph (h) does not apply to allocations of a multipurpose refunded issue unless that refunded issue is refunded directly by an issue to which this paragraph (h) applies. For example, if a 1994 issue refunds a 1984 multipurpose issue, which in turn refunded a 1980 multipurpose issue, this paragraph (h) applies to allocations of the 1984 issue for purposes of allocating the refunding purposes of the 1994 issue, but does not permit allocations of the 1980 issue.

(i) Operating rules for separation of prior issue into refunded and unrefunded portions—(1) In general. For purposes of paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section, the separate purposes of a prior issue include the refunded and unrefunded portions of the prior issue. Thus, the refunded and unrefunded portions are treated as separate issues under paragraph (h)(1) of this section. Those separate issues must satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section. The refunded portion of the bonds of a prior issue is based on a fraction the numerator of which is the principal amount of the prior issue to be paid with proceeds of the refunding issue and the denominator of which is the outstanding principal amount of the bonds of the prior issue, each determined as of the issue date of the refunding issue. (See also paragraph (b)(2) of this section.)

(2) Allocations of proceeds and investments in a partial refunding. As of the issue date of a partial refunding issue under this paragraph (i), unspent proceeds of the prior issue are allocated ratably between the refunded and unrefunded portions of the prior issue and the investments allocable to those unspent proceeds are allocated in the manner required for the allocation of investments to transferred proceeds under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.

(3) References to prior issue. If the refunded and unrefunded portions of a prior issue are treated as separate issues under this paragraph (i), then, except to the extent that the context clearly requires otherwise (e.g., references to the aggregate prior issue in the mixed escrow rule in paragraph (c)(2) of this section), all references in this section to a prior issue refer only to the refunded portion of that prior issue.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33541, June 18, 1993; 58 FR 44453, Aug. 23, 1993, as amended by T.D. 8538, 59 FR 24045, May 10, 1994; T.D. 8718, 62 FR 25512, May 9, 1997]

§ 1.148-10 Anti-abuse rules and authority of Commissioner.

(a) Abusive arbitrage device—(1) In general. Bonds of an issue are arbitrage bonds under section 148 if an abusive arbitrage device under paragraph (a)(2) of this section is used in connection with the issue. This paragraph (a) is to be applied and interpreted broadly to carry out the purposes of section 148, as further described in § 1.148-0. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section, any action that is expressly permitted by section 148 or §§ 1.148-1 through 1.148-11 is not an abusive arbitrage device (e.g., investment in higher yielding investments during a permitted temporary period under section 148(c)).

(2) Abusive arbitrage device defined. Any action is an abusive arbitrage device if the action has the effect of—

(i) Enabling the issuer to exploit the difference between tax-exempt and taxable interest rates to obtain a material financial advantage; and

(ii) Overburdening the tax-exempt bond market.

(3) Exploitation of tax-exempt interest rates. An action may exploit tax-exempt interest rates under paragraph (a)(2) of this section as a result of an investment of any portion of the gross proceeds of an issue over any period of time, notwithstanding that, in the aggregate, the gross proceeds of the issue are not invested in higher yielding investments over the term of the issue.

(4) Overburdening the tax-exempt market. An action overburdens the tax-exempt bond market under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section if it results in issuing more bonds, issuing bonds earlier, or allowing bonds to remain outstanding longer than is otherwise reasonably necessary to accomplish the governmental purposes of the bonds, based on all the facts and circumstances. Whether an action is reasonably necessary to accomplish the governmental purposes of the bonds depends on whether the primary purpose of the transaction is a bona fide governmental purpose (e.g., an issue of refunding bonds to achieve a debt service restructuring that would be issued independent of any arbitrage benefit). An important factor bearing on this determination is whether the action would reasonably be taken to accomplish the governmental purpose of the issue if the interest on the issue were not excludable from gross income under section 103(a) (assuming that the hypothetical taxable interest rate would be the same as the actual tax-exempt interest rate). Factors evidencing an overissuance include the issuance of an issue the proceeds of which are reasonably expected to exceed by more than a minor portion the amount necessary to accomplish the governmental purposes of the issue, or an issue the proceeds of which are, in fact, substantially in excess of the amount of sale proceeds allocated to expenditures for the governmental purposes of the issue. One factor evidencing an early issuance is the issuance of bonds that do not qualify for a temporary period under § 1.148-2(e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4). One factor evidencing that bonds may remain outstanding longer than necessary is a term that exceeds the safe harbors against the creation of replacement proceeds under § 1.148-1(c)(4)(i)(B). These factors may be outweighed by other factors, such as bona fide cost underruns, an issuer's bona fide need to finance extraordinary working capital items, or an issuer's long-term financial distress.

(b) Consequences of overburdening the tax-exempt bond market—(1) In general. An issue that overburdens the tax-exempt bond market (within the meaning of paragraph (a)(4) of this section) is subject to the following special limitations—

(i) Special yield restriction. Investments are subject to the definition of materially higher yield under § 1.148-2(d) that is equal to one-thousandth of 1 percent. In addition, each investment is treated as a separate class of investments under § 1.148-5(b)(2)(ii), the yield on which may not be blended with that of other investments.

(ii) Certain regulatory provisions inapplicable. The provisions of § 1.148-5(c) (relating to yield reduction payments) and § 1.148-5(e) (2) and (3) (relating to recovery of qualified administrative costs) do not apply.

(iii) Restrictive expenditure rule. Proceeds are not allocated to expenditures unless the proceeds-spent-last rule under § 1.148-6(d)(3)(i) is satisfied, applied by treating those proceeds as proceeds to be used for restricted working capital expenditures. For this purpose, available amount includes a reasonable working capital reserve as defined in § 1.148-6(d)(3)(iii)(B).

(2) Application. The provisions of this paragraph (b) only apply to the portion of an issue that, as a result of actions taken (or actions not taken) after the issue date, overburdens the market for tax-exempt bonds, except that for an issue that is reasonably expected as of the issue date to overburden the market, those provisions apply to all of the gross proceeds of the issue.

(c) Anti-abuse rules on excess gross proceeds of advance refunding issues—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c), an abusive arbitrage device is used and bonds of an advance refunding issue are arbitrage bonds if the issue has excess gross proceeds.

(2) Definition of excess gross proceeds. Excess gross proceeds means all gross proceeds of an advance refunding issue that exceed an amount equal to 1 percent of sale proceeds of the issue, other than gross proceeds allocable to—

(i) Payment of principal, interest, or call premium on the prior issue;

(ii) Payment of pre-issuance accrued interest on the refunding issue, and interest on the refunding issue that accrues for a period up to the completion date of any capital project for which the prior issue was issued, plus one year;

(iii) A reasonably required reserve or replacement fund for the refunding issue or investment proceeds of such a fund;

(iv) Payment of costs of issuance of the refunding issue;

(v) Payment of administrative costs allocable to repaying the prior issue, carrying and repaying the refunding issue, or investments of the refunding issue;

(vi) Transferred proceeds that will be used or maintained for the governmental purpose of the prior issue;

(vii) Interest on purpose investments;

(viii) Replacement proceeds in a sinking fund for the refunding issue;

(ix) Qualified guarantee fees for the refunding issue or the prior issue; and

(x) Fees for a qualified hedge for the refunding issue.

(3) Special treatment of transferred proceeds. For purposes of this paragraph (c), all unspent proceeds of the prior issue as of the issue date of the refunding issue are treated as transferred proceeds of the advance refunding issue.

(4) Special rule for crossover refundings. An advance refunding issue is not an issue of arbitrage bonds under this paragraph (c) if all excess gross proceeds of the refunding issue are used to pay interest that accrues on the refunding issue before the prior issue is discharged, and no gross proceeds of any refunding issue are used to pay interest on the prior issue or to replace funds used directly or indirectly to pay such interest (other than transferred proceeds used to pay interest on the prior issue that accrues for a period up to the completion date of the project for which the prior issue was issued, plus one year, or proceeds used to pay principal that is attributable to accrued original issue discount).

(5) Special rule for gross refundings. This paragraph (c)(5) applies if an advance refunding issue (the series B issue) is used together with one or more other advance refunding issues (the series A issues) in a gross refunding of a prior issue, but only if the use of a gross refunding method is required under bond documents that were effective prior to November 6, 1992. These advance refunding issues are not arbitrage bonds under this paragraph (c) if—

(i) All excess gross proceeds of the series B issue and each series A issue are investment proceeds used to pay principal and interest on the series B issue;

(ii) At least 99 percent of all principal and interest on the series B issue is paid with proceeds of the series B and series A issues or with the earnings on other amounts in the refunding escrow for the prior issue;

(iii) The series B issue is discharged not later than the prior issue; and

(iv) As of any date, the amount of gross proceeds of the series B issue allocated to expenditures does not exceed the aggregate amount of expenditures before that date for principal and interest on the series B issue, and administrative costs of carrying and repaying the series B issue, or of investments of the series B issue.

(d) Examples. The provisions of this section are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1. Mortgage sale.

In 1982, City issued its revenue issue (the 1982 issue) and lent the proceeds to Developer to finance a low-income housing project under former section 103(b)(4)(A) of the 1954 Code. In 1994, Developer encounters financial difficulties and negotiates with City to refund the 1982 issue. City issues $10 million in principal amount of its 8 percent bonds (the 1994 issue). City lends the proceeds of the 1994 issue to Developer. To evidence Developer's obligation to repay that loan, Developer, as obligor, issues a note to City (the City note). Bank agrees to provide Developer with a direct-pay letter of credit pursuant to which Bank will make all payments to the trustee for the 1994 issue necessary to meet Developer's obligations under the City note. Developer pays Bank a fee for the issuance of the letter of credit and issues a note to Bank (the Bank note). The Bank note is secured by a mortgage on the housing project and is guaranteed by FHA. The Bank note and the 1994 issue have different prepayment terms. The City does not reasonably expect to treat prepayments of the Bank note as gross proceeds of the 1994 issue. At the same time or pursuant to a series of related transactions, Bank sells the Bank note to Investor for $9.5 million. Bank invests these monies together with its other funds. In substance, the transaction is a loan by City to Bank, under which Bank enters into a series of transactions that, in effect, result in Bank retaining $9.5 million in amounts treated as proceeds of the 1994 issue. Those amounts are invested in materially higher yielding investments that provide funds sufficient to equal or exceed the Bank's liability under the letter of credit. Alternatively, the letter of credit is investment property in a sinking fund for the 1994 issue provided by Developer, a substantial beneficiary of the financing. Because, in substance, Developer acquires the $10 million principal amount letter of credit for a fair market value purchase price of $9.5 million, the letter of credit is a materially higher yielding investment. Neither result would change if Developer's obligation under the Bank note is contingent on Bank performing its obligation under the letter of credit. Each characterization causes the bonds to be arbitrage bonds.

Example 2. Bonds outstanding longer than necessary for yield-blending device.

(i) Longer bond maturity to create sinking fund. In 1994, Authority issues an advance refunding issue (the refunding issue) to refund a 1982 prior issue (the prior issue). Under current market conditions, Authority will have to invest the refunding escrow at a yield significantly below the yield on the refunding issue. Authority issues its refunding issue with a longer weighted average maturity than otherwise necessary primarily for the purpose of creating a sinking fund for the refunding issue that will be invested in a guaranteed investment contract. The weighted average maturity of the refunding issue is less than 120 percent of the remaining average economic life of the facilities financed with the proceeds of the prior issue. The guaranteed investment contract has a yield that is higher than the yield on the refunding issue. The yield on the refunding escrow blended with the yield on the guaranteed investment contract does not exceed the yield on the issue. The refunding issue uses an abusive arbitrage device and the bonds of the issue are arbitrage bonds under section 148(a).

(ii) Refunding of noncallable bonds. The facts are the same as in paragraph (i) of this Example 2 except that instead of structuring the refunding issue to enable it to take advantage of sinking fund investments, Authority will also refund other long-term, non-callable bonds in the same refunding issue. There are no savings attributable to the refunding of the non-callable bonds (e.g., a low-to-high refunding). The Authority invests the portion of the proceeds of the refunding issue allocable to the refunding of the non-callable bonds in the refunding escrow at a yield that is higher than the yield on the refunding issue, based on the relatively long escrow period for this portion of the refunding. The Authority invests the other portion of the proceeds of the refunding issue in the refunding escrow at a yield lower than the yield on the refunding issue. The blended yield on all the investments in the refunding escrow for the prior issues does not exceed the yield on the refunding issue. The portion of the refunding issue used to refund the noncallable bonds, however, was not otherwise necessary and was issued primarily to exploit the difference between taxable and tax-exempt rates for that long portion of the refunding escrow to minimize the effect of lower yielding investments in the other portion of the escrow. The refunding issue uses an abusive arbitrage device and the bonds of the issue are arbitrage bonds.

(iii) Governmental purpose. In paragraphs (i) and (ii) of this Example 2, the existence of a governmental purpose for the described financing structures would not change the conclusions unless Authority clearly established that the primary purpose for the use of the particular structure was a bona fide governmental purpose. The fact that each financing structure had the effect of eliminating significant amounts of negative arbitrage is strong evidence of a primary purpose that is not a bona fide governmental purpose. Moreover, in paragraph (i) of this Example 2, the structure of the refunding issue coupled with the acquisition of the guaranteed investment contract to lock in the investment yield associated with the structure is strong evidence of a primary purpose that is not a bona fide governmental purpose.

Example 3. Window refunding.

(i) Authority issues its 1994 refunding issue to refund a portion of the principal and interest on its outstanding 1985 issue. The 1994 refunding issue is structured using zero-coupon bonds that pay no interest or principal for the 5-year period following the issue date. The proceeds of the 1994 refunding issue are deposited in a refunding escrow to be used to pay only the interest requirements of the refunded portion of the 1985 issue. Authority enters into a guaranteed investment contract with a financial institution, G, under which G agrees to provide a guaranteed yield on revenues invested by Authority during the 5-year period following the issue date. The guaranteed investment contract has a yield that is no higher than the yield on the refunding issue. The revenues to be invested under this guaranteed investment contract consist of the amounts that Authority otherwise would have used to pay principal and interest on the 1994 refunding issue. The guaranteed investment contract is structured to generate receipts at times and in amounts sufficient to pay the principal and redemption requirements of the refunded portion of the 1985 issue. A principal purpose of these transactions is to avoid transferred proceeds. Authority will continue to invest the unspent proceeds of the 1985 issue that are on deposit in a refunding escrow for its 1982 issue at a yield equal to the yield on the 1985 issue and will not otherwise treat those unspent proceeds as transferred proceeds of the 1994 refunding issue. The 1994 refunding issue is an issue of arbitrage bonds since those bonds involve a transaction or series of transactions that overburdens the market by leaving bonds outstanding longer than is necessary to obtain a material financial advantage based on arbitrage. Specifically, Authority has structured the 1994 refunding issue to make available for the refunding of the 1985 issue replacement proceeds rather than proceeds so that the unspent proceeds of the 1985 issue will not become transferred proceeds of the 1994 refunding issue.

(ii) The result would be the same in each of the following circumstances:

(A) The facts are the same as in paragraph (i) of this Example 3 except that Authority does not enter into the guaranteed investment contract but instead, as of the issue date of the 1994 refunding issue, reasonably expects that the released revenues will be available for investment until used to pay principal and interest on the 1985 issue.

(B) The facts are the same as in paragraph (i) of this Example 3 except that there are no unspent proceeds of the 1985 issue and Authority invests the released revenues at a yield materially higher than the yield on the 1994 issue.

(C) The facts are the same as in paragraph (i) of this Example 3 except that Authority uses the proceeds of the 1994 issue for capital projects instead of to refund a portion of the 1985 issue.

Example 4. Sale of conduit loan.

On January 1, 1994, Authority issues a conduit financing issue (the 1994 conduit financing issue) and uses the proceeds to purchase from City, an unrelated party, a tax-exempt bond of City (the City note). The proceeds of the 1994 conduit financing issue are to be used to advance refund a prior conduit financing issue that was issued in 1988 and used to make a loan to City. The 1994 conduit financing issue and the City note each have a yield of 8 percent on January 1, 1994. On June 30, 1996, interest rates have decreased and Authority sells the City note to D, a person unrelated to either City or Authority. Based on the sale price of the City note and treating June 30, 1996 as the issue date of the City note, the City note has a 6 percent yield. Authority deposits the proceeds of the sale of the City note into an escrow to redeem the bonds of the 1994 conduit financing issue on January 1, 2001. The escrow is invested in nonpurpose investments having a yield of 8 percent. For purposes of section 149(d), City and Authority are related parties and, therefore, the issue date of the City note is treated as being June 30, 1996. Thus, the City note is an advance refunding of Authority's 1994 conduit financing issue. Interest on the City note is not exempt from Federal income tax from the date it is sold to D under section 149(d), because, by investing the escrow investments at a yield of 8 percent instead of a yield not materially higher than 6 percent, the sale of the City note employs a device to obtain a material financial advantage, based on arbitrage, apart from the savings attributable to lower interest rates. In addition, the City note is not a tax-exempt bond because the note is the second advance refunding of the original bond under section 149(d)(3). The City note also employs an abusive arbitrage device and is an arbitrage bond under section 148.

Example 5. Re-refunding.

(i) On January 1, 1984, City issues a tax-exempt issue (the 1984 issue) to finance the cost of constructing a prison. The 1984 issue has a 7 percent yield and a 30-year maturity. The 1984 issue is callable at any time on or after January 1, 1994. On January 1, 1990, City issues a refunding issue (the 1990 issue) to advance refund the 1984 issue. The 1990 issue has an 8 percent yield and a 30-year maturity. The 1990 issue is callable at any time on or after January 1, 2000. The proceeds of the 1990 issue are invested at an 8 percent yield in a refunding escrow for the 1984 issue (the original 1984 escrow) in a manner sufficient to pay debt service on the 1984 issue until maturity (i.e., an escrow to maturity). On January 1, 1994, City issues a refunding issue (the 1994 issue). The 1994 issue has a 6 percent yield and a 30-year maturity. City does not invest the proceeds of the 1994 issue in a refunding escrow for the 1990 issue in a manner sufficient to pay a portion of the debt service until, and redeem a portion of that issue on, January 1, 2000. Instead, City invests those proceeds at a 6 percent yield in a new refunding escrow for a portion of the 1984 issue (the new 1984 escrow) in a manner sufficient to pay debt service on a portion of the 1984 issue until maturity. City also liquidates the investments allocable to the proceeds of the 1990 issue held in the original 1984 escrow and reinvests those proceeds in an escrow to pay a portion of the debt service on the 1990 issue itself until, and redeem a portion of that issue on, January 1, 2000 (the 1990 escrow). The 1994 bonds are arbitrage bonds and employ an abusive device under section 149(d)(4). Although, in form, the proceeds of the 1994 issue are used to pay principal on the 1984 issue, this accounting for the use of the proceeds of the 1994 issue is an unreasonable, inconsistent accounting method under § 1.148-6(a). Moreover, since the proceeds of the 1990 issue were set aside in an escrow to be used to retire the 1984 issue, the use of proceeds of the 1994 issue for that same purpose involves a replacement of funds invested in higher yielding investments under section 148(a)(2). Thus, using a reasonable, consistent accounting method and giving effect to the substance of the transaction, the proceeds of the 1994 issue are treated as used to refund the 1990 issue and are allocable to the 1990 escrow. The proceeds of the 1990 issue are treated as used to refund the 1984 issue and are allocable to the investments in the new 1984 escrow. The proceeds of the 1990 issue allocable to the nonpurpose investments in the new 1984 escrow become transferred proceeds of the 1994 issue as principal is paid on the 1990 issue from amounts on deposit in the 1990 escrow. As a result, the yield on nonpurpose investments allocable to the 1994 issue is materially higher than the yield on the 1994 issue, causing the bonds of the 1994 issue to be arbitrage bonds. In addition, the transaction employs a device under section 149(d)(4) to obtain a material financial advantage based on arbitrage, other than savings attributable to lower interest rates.

(ii) The following changes in the facts do not affect the conclusion that the 1994 issue consists of arbitrage bonds—

(1) The 1990 issue is a taxable issue;

(2) The original 1984 escrow is used to pay the 1994 issue (rather than the 1990 issue); or

(3) The 1994 issue is used to retire the 1984 issue within 90 days of January 1, 1994.

(e) Authority of the Commissioner to prevent transactions that are inconsistent with the purpose of the arbitrage investment restrictions. If an issuer enters into a transaction for a principal purpose of obtaining a material financial advantage based on the difference between tax-exempt and taxable interest rates in a manner that is inconsistent with the purposes of section 148, the Commissioner may exercise the Commissioner's discretion to depart from the rules of § 1.148-1 through § 1.148-11 as necessary to reflect the economics of the transaction to prevent such financial advantage. For this purpose, the Commissioner may recompute yield on an issue or on investments, reallocate payments and receipts on investments, recompute the rebate amount on an issue, treat a hedge as either a qualified hedge or not a qualified hedge, or otherwise adjust any item whatsoever bearing upon the investments and expenditures of gross proceeds of an issue. For example, if the amount paid for a hedge is specifically based on the amount of arbitrage earned or expected to be earned on the hedged bonds, a principal purpose of entering into the contract is to obtain a material financial advantage based on the difference between tax-exempt and taxable interest rates in a manner that is inconsistent with the purposes of section 148.

(f) Authority of the Commissioner to require an earlier date for payment of rebate. If the Commissioner determines that an issue is likely to fail to meet the requirements of § 1.148-3 and that a failure to serve a notice of demand for payment on the issuer will jeopardize the assessment or collection of tax on interest paid or to be paid on the issue, the date that the Commissioner serves notice on the issuer is treated as a required computation date for payment of rebate for that issue.

(g) Authority of the Commissioner to waive regulatory limitations. Notwithstanding any specific provision in §§ 1.148-1 through 1.148-11, the Commissioner may prescribe extensions of temporary periods, larger reasonably required reserve or replacement funds, or consequences of failures or remedial action under section 148 in lieu of or in addition to other consequences of those failures, or take other action, if the Commissioner finds that good faith or other similar circumstances so warrant, consistent with the purposes of section 148.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33544, June 18, 1993; 58 FR 44453, Aug. 23, 1993, as amended by T.D. 8538, 59 FR 24046, May 10, 1994; T.D. 8476, 59 FR 24351, May 11, 1994; T.D. 8718, 62 FR 25512, May 9, 1997; T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46597, July 18, 2016]

§ 1.148-11 Effective/applicability dates.

(a) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this section, §§ 1.148-1 through 1.148-11 apply to bonds sold on or after July 8, 1997.

(b) Elective retroactive application in whole—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this section, and subject to the applicable effective dates for the corresponding statutory provisions, an issuer may apply the provisions of §§ 1.148-1 through 1.148-11 in whole, but not in part, to any issue that is outstanding on July 8, 1997, and is subject to section 148(f) or to sections 103(c)(6) or 103A(i) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, in lieu of otherwise applicable regulations under those sections.

(2) No elective retroactive application for 18-month spending exception. The provisions of § 1.148-7(d) (relating to the 18-month spending exception) may not be applied to any issue issued on or before June 30, 1993.

(3) No elective retroactive application for hedges of fixed rate issues. The provisions of § 1.148-4(h)(2)(i)(B) (relating to hedges of fixed rate issues) may not be applied to any bond sold on or before July 8, 1997.

(4) No elective retroactive application for safe harbor for establishing fair market value for guaranteed investment contracts and investments purchased for a yield restricted defeasance escrow. The provisions of §§ 1.148-5(d)(6)(iii) (relating to the safe harbor for establishing fair market value of guaranteed investment contracts and yield restricted defeasance escrow investments) and 1.148-5(e)(2)(iv) (relating to a special rule for yield restricted defeasance escrow investments) may not be applied to any bond sold before December 30, 1998.

(c) Elective retroactive application of certain provisions and special rules—(1) Retroactive application of overpayment recovery provisions. An issuer may apply the provisions of § 1.148-3(i) to any issue that is subject to section 148(f) or to sections 103(c)(6) or 103A(i) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.

(2) Certain allocations of multipurpose issues. An allocation of bonds to a refunding purpose under § 1.148-9(h) may be adjusted as necessary to reflect allocations made between May 18, 1992, and August 15, 1993, if the allocations satisfied the corresponding prior provision of § 1.148-11(j)(4) under applicable prior regulations.

(3) Special limitation. The provisions of § 1.148-9 apply to issues issued before August 15, 1993, only if the issuer in good faith estimates the present value savings, if any, associated with the effect of the application of that section on refunding escrows, using any reasonable accounting method, and applies those savings, if any, to redeem outstanding tax-exempt bonds of the applicable issue at the earliest possible date on which those bonds may be redeemed or otherwise retired. These savings are not reduced to take into account any administrative costs associated with applying these provisions retroactively.

(d) Transition rule excepting certain state guarantee funds from the definition of replacement proceeds—(1) Certain perpetual trust funds. (i) A guarantee by a fund created and controlled by a State and established pursuant to its constitution does not cause the amounts in the fund to be pledged funds treated as replacement proceeds if—

(A) Substantially all of the corpus of the fund consists of nonfinancial assets, revenues derived from these assets, gifts, and bequests;

(B) The corpus of the guarantee fund may be invaded only to support specifically designated essential governmental functions (designated functions) carried on by political subdivisions with general taxing powers or public elementary and public secondary schools;

(C) Substantially all of the available income of the fund is required to be applied annually to support designated functions;

(D) The issue guaranteed consists of obligations that are not private activity bonds (other than qualified 501(c)(3) bonds) substantially all of the proceeds of which are to be used for designated functions;

(E) The fund satisfied each of the requirements of paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (d)(1)(iii) of this section on August 16, 1986; and

(F) As of the sale date of the bonds to be guaranteed, the amount of the bonds to be guaranteed by the fund plus the then-outstanding amount of bonds previously guaranteed by the fund does not exceed a total amount equal to 500 percent of the total costs of the assets held by the fund as of December 16, 2009.

(ii) The Commissioner may, by published guidance, set forth additional circumstances under which guarantees by certain perpetual trust funds will not cause amounts in the fund to be treated as replacement proceeds.

(2) Permanent University Fund. Replacement proceeds do not include amounts allocable to investments of the fund described in section 648 of Public Law 98-369.

(e) Transition rule regarding special allowance payments. Section 1.148-5(b)(5) applies to any bond issued after January 5, 1990, except a bond issued exclusively to refund a bond issued before January 6, 1990, if the amount of the refunding bond does not exceed 101 percent of the amount of the refunded bond, and the maturity date of the refunding bond is not later than the date that is 17 years after the date on which the refunded bond was issued (or, in the case of a series of refundings, the date on which the original bond was issued), but only if § 1.148-2(d)(2)(iv) is applied by substituting 1 and one-half percentage points for 2 percentage points.

(f) Transition rule regarding applicability of yield reduction rule. Section 1.148-5(c) applies to nonpurpose investments allocable to replacement proceeds of an issue that are held in a reserve or replacement fund to the extent that—

(1) Amounts must be paid into the fund under a constitutional provision, statute, or ordinance adopted before May 3, 1978;

(2) Under that provision, amounts paid into the fund (and investment earnings thereon) can be used only to pay debt service on the issues; and

(3) The size of the payments made into the fund is independent of the size of the outstanding issues or the debt service thereon.

(g) Provisions applicable to certain bonds sold before effective date. Except for bonds to which paragraph (b)(1) of this section applies—

(1) Section 1.148-11A provides rules applicable to bonds sold after June 6, 1994, and before July 8, 1997; and

(2) Sections 1.148-1 through 1.148-11 as in effect on July 1, 1993 (see 26 CFR part 1 as revised April 1, 1994), and § 1.148-11A(i) (relating to elective retroactive application of certain provisions) provide rules applicable to certain issues issued before June 7, 1994.

(h) Safe harbor for establishing fair market value for guaranteed investment contracts and investments purchased for a yield restricted defeasance escrow. The provisions of § 1.148-5(d)(6)(iii) are applicable to bonds sold on or after March 1, 1999. Issuers may apply these provisions to bonds sold on or after December 30, 1998, and before March 1, 1999.

(i) Special rule for certain broker's commissions and similar fees. Section 1.148-5(e)(2)(iii) applies to bonds sold on or after February 9, 2004. In the case of bonds sold before February 9, 2004, that are subject to § 1.148-5 (pre-effective date bonds), issuers may apply § 1.148-5(e)(2)(iii), in whole but not in part, with respect to transactions entered into on or after December 11, 2003. If an issuer applies § 1.148-5(e)(2)(iii) to pre-effective date bonds, the per-issue safe harbor in § 1.148-5(e)(2)(iii)(B)(1)(ii) is applied by taking into account all brokers' commissions or similar fees with respect to guaranteed investment contracts and investments for yield restricted defeasance escrows that the issuer treats as qualified administrative costs for the issue, including all such commissions or fees paid before February 9, 2004. For purposes of §§ 1.148-5(e)(2)(iii)(B)(3) and 1.148-5(e)(2)(iii)(B)(6) (relating to cost-of-living adjustments), transactions entered into before 2003 are treated as entered into in 2003.

(j) Certain prepayments. Section 1.148-1(e)(1) and (2) apply to bonds sold on or after October 3, 2003. Issuers may apply § 1.148-1(e)(1) and (2), in whole but not in part, to bonds sold before October 3, 2003, that are subject to § 1.148-1.

(k) Certain arbitrage guidance updates—(1) In general. Sections 1.148-1(c)(4)(i)(B)(1); 1.148-1(c)(4)(i)(B)(4); 1.148-1(c)(4)(ii); 1.148-2(e)(3)(i); 1.148-3(d)(1)(iv); 1.148-3(d)(4); 1.148-4(a); 1.148-4(b)(3)(i); 1.148-4(h)(2)(ii)(A); 1.148-4(h)(2)(v); 1.148-4(h)(2)(vi); 1.148(h)(4)(i)(C); 1.148-5(c)(3); 1.148-5(d)(2); 1.148-5(d)(3); 1.148-5(d)(6)(i); 1.148-5(d)(6)(iii)(A); 1.148-5(e)(2)(ii)(B); 1.148-6(d)(3)(iii)(A); 1.148-6(d)(4); 1.148-7(c)(3)(v); 1.148-7(i)(6)(ii); 1.148-10(a)(4); 1.148-10(e); 1.148-11(d)(1)(i)(B); 1.148-11(d)(1)(i)(D); 1.148-11(d)(1)(i)(F); and 1.148-11(d)(1)(ii) apply to bonds sold on or after October 17, 2016.

(2) Valuation of investments in refunding transactions. Section 1.148-5(d)(3) also applies to bonds refunded by bonds sold on or after October 17, 2016.

(3) Rebate overpayment recovery. (i) Section 1.148-3(i)(3)(i) applies to claims arising from an issue of bonds to which § 1.148-3(i) applies and for which the final computation date is after June 24, 2008. For purposes of this paragraph (k)(3)(i), issues for which the actual final computation date is on or before June 24, 2008, are deemed to have a final computation date of July 1, 2008, for purposes of applying § 1.148-3(i)(3)(i).

(ii) Section 1.148-3(i)(3)(ii) and (iii) apply to claims arising from an issue of bonds to which § 1.148-3(i) applies and for which the final computation date is after September 16, 2013.

(iii) Section 1.148-3(j) applies to bonds subject to § 1.148-3(i).

(4) Hedge identification. Section 1.148-4(h)(2)(viii) applies to hedges that are entered into on or after October 17, 2016.

(5) Hedge modifications and termination. Section 1.148-4(h)(3)(iv)(A) through (H) and (h)(4)(iv) apply to—

(i) Hedges that are entered into on or after October 17, 2016;

(ii) Qualified hedges that are modified on or after October 17, 2016 with respect to modifications on or after such date; and

(iii) Qualified hedges on bonds that are refunded on or after October 17, 2016 with respect to the refunding on or after such date.

(6) Small issuer exception to rebate requirement for conduit borrowers of pooled financings. Section 1.148-8(d) applies to bonds issued after May 17, 2006.

(l) Permissive application of certain arbitrage updates—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (l), issuers may apply the provisions described in paragraph (k)(1), (2), and (5) in whole, but not in part, to bonds sold before October 17, 2016.

(2) Computation credit. Issuers may apply § 1.148-3(d)(1)(iv) and (d)(4) for bond years ending on or after July 18, 2016.

(3) Yield reduction payments. Issuers may apply § 1.148-5(c)(3) for investments purchased on or after July 18, 2016.

(4) External commingled funds. Issuers may apply § 1.148-5(e)(2)(ii)(B) with respect to costs incurred on or after July 18, 2016.

(m) Definition of issue price. The definition of issue price in § 1.148-1(b) and (f) applies to bonds that are sold on or after June 7, 2017.

(n) Investment-type property. Section 1.148-1(e)(1) and (4) apply to bonds sold on or after July 8, 2019. An issuer may apply the provisions of § 1.148-1(e)(1) and (4) to bonds sold before July 8, 2019.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33547, June 18, 1993]

§ 1.149(b)-1 Federally guaranteed bonds.

(a) General rule. Under section 149(b) and this section, nothing in section 103(a) or in any other provision of law shall be construed to provide an exemption from Federal income tax for interest on any bond issued as part of an issue that is federally guaranteed.

(b) Exceptions. Pursuant to section 149(b)(3)(B), section 149(b)(1) and paragraph (a) of this section do not apply to—

(1) Investments in obligations issued pursuant to § 21B(d)(3) of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act, as amended by § 511 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, or any successor provision; or

(2) Any investments that are held in a refunding escrow (as defined in § 1.148-1).

(c) Effective date. This section applies to investments made after June 30, 1993.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33548, June 18, 1993]

§ 1.149(d)-1 Limitations on advance refundings.

(a) General rule. Under section 149(d) and this section, nothing in section 103(a) or in any other provision of law shall be construed to provide an exemption from Federal income tax for interest on any bond issued as part of an issue described in paragraphs (2), (3), or (4) of section 149(d).

(b) Advance refunding issues that employ abusive devices—(1) In general. An advance refunding issue employs an abusive device and is described in section 149(d)(4) if the issue violates any of the anti-abuse rules under § 1.148-10.

(2) Failure to pay required rebate. An advance refunding issue is described in section 149(d)(4) if the issue fails to meet the requirements of § 1.148-3. This paragraph (b)(2) applies to any advance refunding issue issued after August 31, 1986.

(3) Mixed escrows invested in tax-exempt bonds. An advance refunding issue is described in section 149(d)(4) if—

(i) Any of the proceeds of the issue are invested in a refunding escrow in which a portion of the proceeds are invested in tax-exempt bonds and a portion of the proceeds are invested in nonpurpose investments;

(ii) The yield on the tax-exempt bonds in the refunding escrow exceeds the yield on the issue;

(iii) The yield on all the investments (including investment property and tax-exempt bonds) in the refunding escrow exceeds the yield on the issue; and

(iv) The weighted average maturity of the tax-exempt bonds in the refunding escrow is more than 25 percent greater or less than the weighted average maturity of the nonpurpose investments in the refunding escrow, and the weighted average maturity of nonpurpose investments in the refunding escrow is greater than 60 days.

(4) Tax-exempt conduit loans. For purposes of applying section 149(d) to a conduit financing issue that finances any conduit loan that is a tax-exempt bond, the actual issuer of a conduit financing issue and the conduit borrower of that conduit financing issue are treated as related parties. Thus, the issue date of the conduit loan does not occur prior to the date on which the actual issuer of the conduit financing issue sells, exchanges, or otherwise disposes of that conduit loan, and the use of the proceeds of the disposition to pay debt service on the conduit financing issue causes the conduit loan to be a refunding issue. See § 1.148-10(d), Example 4.

(c) Unrefunded debt service remains eligible for future advance refunding. For purposes of section 149(d)(3)(A)(i), any principal or interest on a prior issue that has not been paid or provided for by any advance refunding issue is treated as not having been advance refunded.

(d) Application of arbitrage regulations—(1) Application of multipurpose issue rules. For purposes of sections 149(d)(2) and (3)(A)(i), (ii), and (iii), the provisions of the multipurpose issue rule in § 1.148-9(h) apply, except that the limitation in § 1.148-9(h)(5) is disregarded.

(2) General mixed escrow rules. For purposes of section 149(d), the provisions of § 1.148-9(c) (relating to mixed escrows) apply, except that those provisions do not apply for purposes of section 149(d)(2) and (d)(3)(A) (i) and (ii) to amounts that were not gross proceeds of the prior issue before the issue date of the refunding issue.

(3) Temporary periods and minor portions. Section 1.148-9(d) and (f) contains rules applicable to temporary periods and minor portions for advance refunding issues.

(4) Definitions. Section 1.148-1 applies for purposes of section 149(d).

(e) Taxable refundings—(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, for purposes of section 149(d)(3)(A)(i), an advance refunding issue the interest on which is not excludable from gross income under section 103(a) (i.e., a taxable advance refunding issue) is not taken into account. In addition, for this purpose, an advance refunding of a taxable issue is not taken into account unless the taxable issue is a conduit loan of a tax-exempt conduit financing issue.

(2) Use to avoid section 149(d)(3)(A)(i). A taxable issue is taken into account under section 149(d)(3)(A)(i) if it is issued to avoid the limitations of that section. For example, in the case of a refunding of a tax-exempt issue with a taxable advance refunding issue that is, in turn, currently refunded with a tax-exempt issue, the taxable advance refunding issue is taken into account under section 149(d)(3)(A)(i) if the two tax-exempt issues are outstanding concurrently for more than 90 days.

(f) Redemption at first call date—(1) General rule. Under sections 149(d)(3)(A) (ii) and (iii) (the first call requirement), bonds refunded by an advance refunding must be redeemed on their first call date if the savings test under section 149(d)(3)(B)(i) (the savings test) is satisfied. The savings test is satisfied if the issuer may realize present value debt service savings (determined without regard to administrative expenses) in connection with the issue of which the refunding bond is a part.

(2) First call date. First call date means the earliest date on which a bond may be redeemed (or, if issued before 1986, on the earliest date on which that bond may be redeemed at a redemption price not in excess of 103 percent of par). If, however, the savings test is not met with respect to the date described in the preceding sentence (i.e., there are no present value savings if the refunded bonds are retired on that date), the first call date is the first date thereafter on which the bonds can be redeemed and on which the savings test is met.

(3) Application of savings test to multipurpose issues. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (f)(3), the multipurpose issue rules in § 1.148-9(h) apply for purposes of the savings test. If any separate issue in a multipurpose issue increases the aggregate present value debt service savings on the entire multipurpose issue or reduces the present value debt service losses on that entire multipurpose issue, that separate issue satisfies the savings test.

(g) Limitation on advance refundings of private activity bonds. Under section 149(d)(2) and this section, interest on a bond is not excluded from gross income if any portion of the issue of which the bond is a part is issued to advance refund a private activity bond (other than a qualified 501(c)(3) bond). For this purpose, the term private activity bond—

(1) Includes a qualified bond described in section 141(e) (other than a qualified 501(c)(3) bond), regardless of whether the refunding issue consists of private activity bonds under § 1.141-13; and

(2) Does not include a taxable bond.

(h) Effective dates—(1) In general. Except as provided in this paragraph (h), this section applies to bonds issued after June 30, 1993, to which §§ 1.148-1 through 1.148-11 apply, including conduit loans that are treated as issued after June 30, 1993, under paragraph (b)(4) of this section. In addition, this section applies to any issue to which the election described in § 1.148-11(b)(1) is made.

(2) Special effective date for paragraph (b)(3). Paragraph (b)(3) of this section applies to any advance refunding issue issued after May 28, 1991.

(3) Special effective date for paragraph (f)(3). Paragraph (f)(3) of this section applies to bonds sold on or after July 8, 1997 and to any issue to which the election described in § 1.148-11(b)(1) is made. See § 1.148-11A(i) for rules relating to certain bonds sold before July 8, 1997.

(4) Special effective date for paragraph (g). See § 1.141-15 for the applicability date of paragraph (g) of this section.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33548, June 18, 1993; 58 FR 44453, Aug. 23, 1993, as amended by T.D. 8538, 59 FR 24046, May 10, 1994; T.D. 8718, 62 FR 25513, May 9, 1997; T.D. 9234, 70 FR 75035, Dec. 19, 2005]

§ 1.149(e)-1 Information reporting requirements for tax-exempt bonds.

(a) General rule. Interest on a bond is included in gross income unless certain information with respect to the issue of which the bond is a part is reported to the Internal Revenue Service in accordance with the requirements of this section. This section applies to any bond if the issue of which the bond is a part is issued after December 31, 1986 (including any bond issued to refund a bond issued on or before December 31, 1986).

(b) Requirements for private activity bonds—(1) In general. If the issue of which the bond is a part is an issue of private activity bonds, the issuer must comply with the following requirements—

(i) Not later than the 15th day of the second calendar month after the close of the calendar quarter in which the issue is issued, the issuer must file with the Internal Revenue Service a completed information reporting form prescribed for this purpose;

(ii) If any bond that is part of the issue is taken into account under section 146 (relating to volume cap on private activity bonds), the state certification requirement of paragraph (b)(2) of this section must be satisfied; and

(iii) If any bond that is part of the issue is a qualified mortgage bond or qualified veterans' mortgage bond (within the meaning of section 143 (a) or (b) or section 103A(c) (1) or (3) as in effect on the day before enactment of the Tax Reform Act of 1986), the issuer must submit the annual report containing information on the borrowers of the original proceeds of the issue as required under § 1.103A-2 (k)(2)(ii) and (k)(3) through (k)(6).

(2) State certification with respect to volume cap—(i) In general. If an issue is subject to the volume cap under section 146, a state official designated by state law (if there is no such official, then the governor or the governor's delegate) must certify that the issue meets the requirements of section 146, and a copy of this certification must be attached to the information reporting form filed with respect to the issue. In the case of any constitutional home rule city (as defined in section 146(d)(3)(C)), the preceding sentence is applied by substituting “city” for “state” and “chief executive officer” for “governor.”

(ii) Certification. The certifying official need not perform an independent investigation in order to certify that the issue meets the requirements of section 146. For example, if the certifying official receives an affidavit that was executed by an officer of the issuer who is responsible for issuing the bonds and that sets forth, in brief and summary terms, the facts necessary to determine that the issue meets the requirements of section 146 and if the certifying official has compared the information in that affidavit to other readily available information with respect to that issuer (e.g., previous affidavits and certifications for other private activity bonds issued by that issuer), the certifying official may rely on the affidavit.

(c) Requirements for governmental bonds—(1) Issue price of $100,000 or more. If the issue of which the bond is a part has an issue price of $100,000 or more and is not an issue of private activity bonds, then, not later than the 15th day of the second calendar month after the close of the calendar quarter in which the issue is issued, the issuer must file with the Internal Revenue Service a completed information reporting form prescribed for this purpose.

(2) Issue price of less than $100,000—(i) In general. If the issue of which the bond is a part has an issue price of less than $100,000 and is not an issue of private activity bonds, the issuer must file with the Internal Revenue Service one of the following information reporting forms within the prescribed period—

(A) Separate return. Not later than the 15th day of the second calendar month after the close of the calendar quarter in which the issue is issued, a completed information reporting form prescribed for this purpose with respect to that issue; or

(B) Consolidated return. Not later than February 15 of the calendar year following the calendar year in which the issue is issued, a completed information form prescribed for this purpose with respect to all issues to which this paragraph (c)(2) applies that were issued by the issuer during the calendar year and for which information was not reported on a separate information return pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section.

(ii) Bond issues issued before January 1, 1992. Paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section does not apply if the issue of which the bond is a part is issued before January 1, 1992.

(iii) Extended filing date for first and second calendar quarters of 1992. If the issue of which the bond is a part is issued during the first or second calendar quarter of 1992, the prescribed period for filing an information reporting form with respect to that issue pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section is extended until November 16, 1992.

(d) Filing of forms and special rules—(1) Completed form. For purposes of this section—

(i) Good faith effort. An information reporting form is treated as completed if the issuer (or a person acting on behalf of the issuer) has made a good faith effort to complete the form (taking into account the instructions to the form).

(ii) Information. In general, information reporting forms filed pursuant to this section must be completed on the basis of available information and reasonable expectations as of the date the issue is issued. Forms that are filed on a consolidated basis pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i)(B) of this section, however, may be completed on the basis of information readily available to the issuer at the close of the calendar year to which the form relates, supplemented by estimates made in good faith.

(iii) Certain information not required. An issuer need not report to the Internal Revenue Service any information specified in the first sentence of section 149(e)(2) that is not required to be reported to the Internal Revenue Service pursuant to the information reporting forms prescribed under that section and the instructions to those forms.

(2) Manner of filing—(i) Place for filing. The information reporting form must be filed with the Internal Revenue Service at the address specified on the form or in the instructions to the form.

(ii) Extension of time. The Commissioner may grant an extension of time to file any form or attachment required under this section if the Commissioner determines that the failure to file in a timely manner was not due to willful neglect. The Commissioner may make this determination with respect to an issue or to a class of issues.

(e) Definitions. For purposes of this section only—(1) Private activity bond. The term “private activity bond” has the meaning given that term in section 141(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, except that the term does not include any bond described in section 1312(c) of the Tax Reform Act of 1986 to which section 1312 or 1313 of the Tax Reform Act of 1986 applies.

(2) Issue—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (e)(2), bonds are treated as part of the same issue only if the bonds are issued—

(A) By the same issuer;

(B) On the same date; and

(C) Pursuant to a single transaction or to a series of related transactions.

(ii) Draw-down loans, commercial paper, etc. (A) Bonds issued during the same calendar year may be treated as part of the same tissue if the bonds are issued—

(1) Pursuant to a loan agreement under which amounts are to be advanced periodically (“draw-down loan”); or

(2) With a term not exceeding 270 days.

(B) In addition, the bonds must be equally and ratably secured under a single indenture or loan agreement and issued pursuant to a common financing arrangement (e.g., pursuant to the same official statement that is periodically updated to reflect changing factual circumstances). In the case of bonds issued pursuant to a draw-down loan that meets the requirements of the preceding sentence, bonds issued during different calendar years may be treated as part of the same issue if all the amounts to be advanced pursuant to the draw-down loan are reasonably expected to be advanced within three years of the date of issue of the first bond.

(iii) Leases and installment sales. Bonds other than private activity bonds may be treated as part of the same issue if—

(A) The bonds are issued pursuant to a single agreement that is in the form of a lease or installment sales agreement; and

(B) All of the property covered by that agreement is reasonably expected to be delivered within three years of the date of issue of the first bond.

(iv) Qualified 501(c)(3) bonds. If an issuer elects under section 141(b)(9) to treat a portion of an issue as a qualified 501(c)(3) bond, that portion is treated as a separate issue.

(3) Date of issue—(i) Bond. The date of issue of a bond is determined under § 1.150-1.

(ii) Issue. The date of issue of an issue of bonds is the date of issue of the first bond that is part of the issue. See paragraphs (e)(2) (ii) and (iii) of this section for rules relating to draw-down loans, commercial paper, etc., and leases and installment sales.

(iii) Bonds to which prior law applied. Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph (e)(3), an issue for which an information report was required to be filed under section 103(l) or section 103A(j)(3) is treated as issued prior to January 1, 1987.

(4) Issue price. The term “issue price” has the same meaning given the term under § 1.148-1(b).

[T.D. 8425, 57 FR 36002, Aug. 12, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 24351, May 11, 1994]

§ 1.149(g)-1 Hedge bonds.

(a) Certain definitions. Except as otherwise provided, the definitions set forth in § 1.148-1 apply for purposes of section 149(g) and this section. In addition, the following terms have the following meanings:

Reasonable expectations means reasonable expectations (as defined in § 1.148-1), as modified to take into account the provisions of section 149(f)(2)(B).

Spendable proceeds means net sale proceeds (as defined in § 1.148-1).

(b) Applicability of arbitrage allocation and accounting rules. Section 1.148-6 applies for purposes of section 149(g), except that an expenditure that results in the creation of replacement proceeds (other than amounts in a bona fide debt service fund or a reasonably required reserve or replacement fund) is not an expenditure for purposes of section 149(g).

(c) Refundings—(1) Investment in tax-exempt bonds. A bond issued to refund a bond that is a tax-exempt bond by virtue of the rule in section 149(g)(3)(B) is not a tax-exempt bond unless the gross proceeds of that refunding bond (other than proceeds in a refunding escrow for the refunded bond) satisfy the requirements of section 149(g)(3)(B).

(2) Anti-abuse rule. A refunding bond is treated as a hedge bond unless there is a significant governmental purpose for the issuance of that bond (e.g., an advance refunding bond issued to realize debt service savings or to relieve the issuer of significantly burdensome document provisions, but not to otherwise hedge against future increases in interest rates).

(d) Effective date. This section applies to bonds issued after June 30, 1993 to which §§ 1.148-1 through 1.148-11 apply. In addition, this section applies to any issue to which the election described in § 1.148-11(b)(1) is made.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33549, June 18, 1993]

§ 1.150-1 Definitions.

(a) Scope and effective date—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided, the definitions in this section apply for all purposes of sections 103 and 141 through 150.

(2) Effective/applicability date—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (a)(2), this section applies to issues issued after June 30, 1993 to which §§ 1.148-1 through 1.148-11 apply. In addition, this section (other than paragraph (c)(3) of this section) applies to any issue to which the election described in § 1.148-11(b)(1) is made.

(ii) Special effective date for paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(4)(iii), and (c)(6). Paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(4)(iii), and (c)(6) of this section apply to bonds sold on or after July 8, 1997 and to any issue to which the election described in § 1.148-11(b)(1) is made. See § 1.148-11A(i) for rules relating to certain bonds sold before July 8, 1997.

(iii) Special effective date for definitions of tax-advantaged bond, issue, and grant. The definition of tax-advantaged bond in paragraph (b) of this section, the revisions to the definition of issue in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, and the definition and rules regarding the treatment of grants in paragraph (f) of this section apply to bonds that are sold on or after October 17, 2016.

(3) Exceptions to general effective date. See § 1.141-15 for the applicability date of the definition of bond documents contained in paragraph (b) of this section and the effective date of paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section.

(4) Additional exception to the general applicability date. Section 1.150-1(b), Issuance costs, applies on and after July 6, 2011.

(b) Certain general definitions. The following definitions apply:

Bond means any obligation of a State or political subdivision thereof under section 103(c)(1).

Bond documents means the bond indenture or resolution, transcript of proceedings, and any related documents.

Capital expenditure means any cost of a type that is properly chargeable to capital account (or would be so chargeable with a proper election or with the application of the definition of placed in service under § 1.150-2(c)) under general Federal income tax principles. For example, costs incurred to acquire, construct, or improve land, buildings, and equipment generally are capital expenditures. Whether an expenditure is a capital expenditure is determined at the time the expenditure is paid with respect to the property. Future changes in law do not affect whether an expenditure is a capital expenditure.

Conduit borrower means the obligor on a purpose investment (as defined in § 1.148-1). For example, if an issuer invests proceeds in a purpose investment in the form of a loan, lease, installment sale obligation, or similar obligation to another entity and the obligor uses the proceeds to carry out the governmental purpose of the issue, the obligor is a conduit borrower.

Conduit financing issue means an issue the proceeds of which are used or are reasonably expected to be used to finance at least one purpose investment representing at least one conduit loan to one conduit borrower.

Conduit loan means a purpose investment (as defined in § 1.148-1).

Governmental bond means any bond of an issue of tax-exempt bonds in which none of the bonds are private activity bonds.

Issuance costs means costs to the extent incurred in connection with, and allocable to, the issuance of an issue within the meaning of section 147(g). For example, issuance costs include the following costs but only to the extent incurred in connection with, and allocable to, the borrowing: underwriters' spread; counsel fees; financial advisory fees; fees paid to an organization to evaluate the credit quality of an issue; trustee fees; paying agent fees; bond registrar, certification, and authentication fees; accounting fees; printing costs for bonds and offering documents; public approval process costs; engineering and feasibility study costs; guarantee fees, other than for qualified guarantees (as defined in § 1.148-4(f)); and similar costs.

Issue date means, in reference to an issue, the first date on which the issuer receives the purchase price in exchange for delivery of the evidence of indebtedness representing any bond included in the issue. Issue date means, in reference to a bond, the date on which the issuer receives the purchase price in exchange for that bond. In no event is the issue date earlier than the first day on which interest begins to accrue on the bond or bonds for Federal income tax purposes.

Obligation means any valid evidence of indebtedness under general Federal income tax principles.

Pooled financing issue means an issue the proceeds of which are to be used to finance purpose investments representing conduit loans to two or more conduit borrowers, unless those conduit loans are to be used to finance a single capital project.

Private activity bond means a private activity bond (as defined in section 141).

Qualified mortgage loan means a mortgage loan with respect to an owner-occupied residence acquired with the proceeds of an obligation described in section 143(a)(1) or 143(b) (or applicable prior law).

Qualified student loan means a student loan acquired with the proceeds of an obligation described in section 144(b)(1).

Related party means, in reference to a governmental unit or a 501(c)(3) organization, any member of the same controlled group, and, in reference to any person that is not a governmental unit or 501(c)(3) organization, a related person (as defined in section 144(a)(3)).

Taxable bond means any obligation the interest on which is not excludable from gross income under section 103.

Tax-advantaged bond means a tax-exempt bond, a taxable bond that provides a federal tax credit to the investor with respect to the issuer's borrowing costs, a taxable bond that provides a refundable federal tax credit payable directly to the issuer of the bond for its borrowing costs under section 6431, or any future similar bond that provides a federal tax benefit that reduces an issuer's borrowing costs. Examples of tax-advantaged bonds include qualified tax credit bonds under section 54A(d)(1) and build America bonds under section 54AA.

Tax-exempt bond means any bond the interest on which is excludable from gross income under section 103(a). For purposes of section 148, tax-exempt bond includes:

(1) An interest in a regulated investment company to the extent that at least 95 percent of the income to the holder of the interest is interest that is excludable from gross income under section 103; and

(2) A certificate of indebtedness issued by the United States Treasury pursuant to the Demand Deposit State and Local Government Series program described in 31 CFR part 344.

Working capital expenditure means any cost that is not a capital expenditure. Generally, current operating expenses are working capital expenditures.

(c) Definition of issue—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c), the term issue means two or more bonds that meet all of the following requirements:

(i) Sold at substantially the same time. The bonds are sold at substantially the same time. Bonds are treated as sold at substantially the same time if they are sold less than 15 days apart.

(ii) Sold pursuant to the same plan of financing. The bonds are sold pursuant to the same plan of financing. Factors material to the plan of financing include the purposes for the bonds and the structure of the financing. For example, generally—

(A) Bonds to finance a single facility or related facilities are part of the same plan of financing;

(B) Short-term bonds to finance working capital expenditures and long-term bonds to finance capital projects are not part of the same plan of financing; and

(C) Certificates of participation in a lease and general obligation bonds secured by tax revenues are not part of the same plan of financing.

(iii) Payable from same source of funds. The bonds are reasonably expected to be paid from substantially the same source of funds, determined without regard to guarantees from parties unrelated to the obligor.

(2) Exceptions for different types of tax-advantaged bonds and taxable bonds. Each type of tax-advantaged bond that has a different structure for delivery of the tax benefit that reduces the issuer's borrowing costs or different program eligibility requirements is treated as part of a different issue under this paragraph (c). Further, tax-advantaged bonds and bonds that are not tax-advantaged bonds are treated as part of different issues under this paragraph (c). The issuance of tax-advantaged bonds in a transaction with other bonds that are not tax-advantaged bonds must be tested under the arbitrage anti-abuse rules under § 1.148-10(a) and other applicable anti-abuse rules (for example, limitations against window maturity structures or unreasonable allocations of bonds).

(3) Exception for certain bonds financing separate purposes—(i) In general. Bonds may be treated as part of separate issues if the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3) are satisfied. Each of these separate issues must finance a separate purpose (e.g., refunding a separate prior issue, financing a separate purpose investment, financing integrated or functionally related capital projects, and financing any clearly discrete governmental purpose). Each of these separate issues independently must be a tax-exempt bond (e.g., a governmental bond or a qualified mortgage bond). The aggregate proceeds, investments, and bonds in such a transaction must be allocated between each of the separate issues using a reasonable, consistently applied allocation method. If any separate issue consists of refunding bonds, the allocation rules in § 1.148-9(h) must be satisfied. An allocation is not reasonable if it achieves more favorable results under sections 103 and 141 to 150 than could be achieved with actual separate issues. All allocations under this paragraph (c)(3) must be made in writing on or before the issue date.

(ii) Exceptions. This paragraph (c)(3) does not apply for purposes of sections 141, 144(a), 148, 149(d) and 149(g).

(4) Special rules for certain financings—(i) Draw-down loans. Bonds issued pursuant to a draw-down loan are treated as part of a single issue. The issue date of that issue is the first date on which the aggregate draws under the loan exceed the lesser of $50,000 or 5 percent of the issue price.

(ii) Commercial paper—(A) In general. Short-term bonds having a maturity of 270 days or less (commercial paper) issued pursuant to the same commercial paper program may be treated as part of a single issue, the issue date of which is the first date the aggregate amount of commercial paper issued under the program exceeds the lesser of $50,000 or 5 percent of the aggregate issue price of the commercial paper in the program. A commercial paper program is a program to issue commercial paper to finance or refinance the same governmental purpose pursuant to a single master legal document. Commercial paper is not part of the same commercial paper program unless issued during an 18-month period, beginning on the deemed issue date. In addition, commercial paper issued after the end of this 18-month period may be treated as part of the program to the extent issued to refund commercial paper that is part of the program, but only to the extent that—

(1) There is no increase in the principal amount outstanding; and

(2) The program does not have a term in excess of—

(i) 30 years; or

(ii) The period reasonably necessary for the governmental purposes of the program.

(B) Safe harbor. The requirement of paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(A)(2) of this section is treated as satisfied if the weighted average maturity of the issue does not exceed 120 percent of the weighted average expected economic life of the property financed by the issue.

(iii) Certain general obligation bonds. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, bonds that are secured by a pledge of the issuer's full faith and credit (or a substantially similar pledge) and sold and issued on the same dates pursuant to a single offering document may be treated as part of the same issue if the issuer so elects on or before the issue date.

(5) Anti-abuse rule. In order to prevent the avoidance of sections 103 and 141 through 150 and the general purposes thereof, the Commissioner may treat bonds as part of the same issue or as part of separate issues to clearly reflect the economic substance of a transaction.

(6) Sale date. The sale date of a bond is the first day on which there is a binding contract in writing for the sale or exchange of the bond.

(d) Definition of refunding issue and related definitions—(1) General definition of refunding issue. Refunding issue means an issue of obligations the proceeds of which are used to pay principal, interest, or redemption price on another issue (a prior issue, as more particularly defined in paragraph (d)(5) of this section), including the issuance costs, accrued interest, capitalized interest on the refunding issue, a reserve or replacement fund, or similar costs, if any, properly allocable to that refunding issue.

(2) Exceptions and special rules. For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the following exceptions and special rules apply—

(i) Payment of certain interest. An issue is not a refunding issue if the only principal and interest that is paid with proceeds of the issue (determined without regard to the multipurpose issue rules of § 1.148-9(h)) is interest on another issue that—

(A) Accrues on the other issue during a one-year period including the issue date of the issue that finances the interest;

(B) Is a capital expenditure; or

(C) Is a working capital expenditure to which the de minimis rule of § 1.148-6(d)(3)(ii)(A) applies.

(ii) Certain issues with different obligors—(A) In general. An issue is not a refunding issue to the extent that the obligor (as defined in paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(B) of this section) of one issue is neither the obligor of the other issue nor a related party with respect to the obligor of the other issue.

(B) Definition of obligor. The obligor of an issue means the actual issuer of the issue, except that the obligor of the portion of an issue properly allocable to an investment in a purpose investment means the conduit borrower under that purpose investment. The obligor of an issue used to finance qualified mortgage loans, qualified student loans, or similar program investments (as defined in § 1.148-1) does not include the ultimate recipient of the loan (e.g., the homeowner, the student).

(iii) Certain special rules for purpose investments. For purposes of this paragraph (d), the following special rules apply:

(A) Refunding of a conduit financing issue by a conduit loan refunding issue. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, the use of the proceeds of an issue that is used to refund an obligation that is a purpose investment (a conduit refunding issue) by the actual issuer of the conduit financing issue determines whether the conduit refunding issue is a refunding of the conduit financing issue (in addition to a refunding of the obligation that is the purpose investment).

(B) Recycling of certain payments under purpose investments. A conduit refunding issue is not a refunding of a conduit financing issue to the extent that the actual issuer of the conduit financing issue reasonably expects as of the date of receipt of the proceeds of the conduit refunding issue to use those amounts within 6 months (or, if greater, during the applicable temporary period for those amounts under section 148(c) or under applicable prior law) to acquire a new purpose investment. Any new purpose investment is treated as made from the proceeds of the conduit financing issue.

(C) Application to tax-exempt loans. For purposes of this paragraph (d), obligations that would be purpose investments (absent section 148(b)(3)(A)) are treated as purpose investments.

(iv) Substance of transaction controls. In the absence of other applicable controlling rules under this paragraph (d), the determination of whether an issue is a refunding issue is based on the substance of the transaction in light of all the facts and circumstances.

(v) Certain integrated transactions in connection with asset acquisition not treated as refunding issues. If, within six months before or after a person assumes (including taking subject to) obligations of an unrelated party in connection with an asset acquisition (other than a transaction to which section 381(a) applies if the person assuming the obligation is the acquiring corporation within the meaning of section 381(a)), the assumed issue is refinanced, the refinancing issue is not treated as a refunding issue.

(3) Current refunding issue. Current refunding issue means:

(i) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section, a refunding issue that is issued not more than 90 days before the last expenditure of any proceeds of the refunding issue for the payment of principal or interest on the prior issue; and

(ii) In the case of a refunding issue issued before 1986—

(A) A refunding issue that is issued not more than 180 days before the last expenditure of any proceeds of the refunding issue for the payment of principal or interest on the prior issue; or

(B) A refunding issue if the prior issue had a term of less than 3 years and was sold in anticipation of permanent financing, but only if the aggregate term of all prior issues sold in anticipation of permanent financing was less than 3 years.

(4) Advance refunding issue. Advance refunding issue means a refunding issue that is not a current refunding issue.

(5) Prior issue. Prior issue means an issue of obligations all or a portion of the principal, interest, or call premium on which is paid or provided for with proceeds of a refunding issue. A prior issue may be issued before, at the same time as, or after a refunding issue. If the refunded and unrefunded portions of a prior issue are treated as separate issues under § 1.148-9(i), for the purposes for which that section applies, except to the extent that the context clearly requires otherwise, references to a prior issue refer only to the refunded portion of that prior issue.

(e) Controlled group means a group of entities controlled directly or indirectly by the same entity or group of entities within the meaning of this paragraph (e).

(1) Direct control. The determination of direct control is made on the basis of all the relevant facts and circumstances. One entity or group of entities (the controlling entity) generally controls another entity or group of entities (the controlled entity) for purposes of this paragraph if the controlling entity possesses either of the following rights or powers and the rights or powers are discretionary and non-ministerial—

(i) The right or power both to approve and to remove without cause a controlling portion of the governing body of the controlled entity; or

(ii) The right or power to require the use of funds or assets of the controlled entity for any purpose of the controlling entity.

(2) Indirect control. If a controlling entity controls a controlled entity under the test in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, then the controlling entity also controls all entities controlled, directly or indirectly, by the controlled entity or entities.

(3) Exception for general purpose governmental entities. An entity is not a controlled entity under this paragraph (e) if the entity possesses substantial taxing, eminent domain, and police powers. For example, a city possessing substantial amounts of each of these sovereign powers is not a controlled entity of the state.

(f) Definition and treatment of grants—(1) Definition. Grant means a transfer for a governmental purpose of money or property to a transferee that is not a related party to or an agent of the transferor. The transfer must not impose any obligation or condition to directly or indirectly repay any amount to the transferor or a related party. Obligations or conditions intended solely to assure expenditure of the transferred moneys in accordance with the governmental purpose of the transfer do not prevent a transfer from being a grant.

(2) Treatment. Except as otherwise provided (for example, § 1.148-6(d)(4), which treats proceeds used for grants as spent for arbitrage purposes when the grant is made), the character and nature of a grantee's use of proceeds are taken into account in determining which rules are applicable to the bond issue and whether the applicable requirements for the bond issue are met. For example, a grantee's use of proceeds generally determines whether the proceeds are used for capital projects or working capital expenditures under section 148 and whether the qualified purposes for the specific type of bond issue are met.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33549, June 18, 1993; 58 FR 44453, Aug. 23, 1993, as amended by T.D. 8538, 59 FR 24046, May 10, 1994; T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2304, Jan. 16, 1997; T.D. 8718, 62 FR 25513, May 9, 1997; T.D. 9234, 70 FR 75036, Dec. 19, 2005; T.D. 9533, 76 FR 39280, July 6, 2011; T.D. 9637, 78 FR 54759, Sept. 6, 2013; T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46598, July 18, 2016]

§ 1.150-2 Proceeds of bonds used for reimbursement.

(a) Table of contents. This table of contents contains a listing of the headings contained in § 1.150-2.

(a) Table of contents.

(b) Scope.

(c) Definitions.

(d) General operating rules for reimbursement expenditures.

(1) Official intent.

(2) Reimbursement period.

(3) Nature of expenditure.

(e) Official intent rules.

(1) Form of official intent.

(2) Project description in official intent.

(3) Reasonableness of official intent.

(f) Exceptions to general operating rules.

(1) De minimis exception.

(2) Preliminary expenditures exception.

(g) Special rules on refundings.

(1) In general—once financed, not reimbursed.

(2) Certain proceeds of prior issue used for reimbursement treated as unspent.

(h) Anti-abuse rules.

(1) General rule.

(2) One-year step transaction rule.

(i) Authority of the Commissioner to prescribe rules.

(j) Effective date.

(1) In general.

(2) Transitional rules.

(3) Nature of expenditure.

(b) Scope. This section applies to reimbursement bonds (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) for all purposes of sections 103 and 141 to 150.

(c) Definitions. The following definitions apply:

Issuer means—

(1) For any private activity bond (excluding a qualified 501(c)(3) bond, qualified student loan bond, qualified mortgage bond, or qualified veterans' mortgage bond), the entity that actually issues the reimbursement bond; and

(2) For any bond not described in paragraph (1) of this definition, either the entity that actually issues the reimbursement bond or, to the extent that the reimbursement bond proceeds are to be loaned to a conduit borrower, that conduit borrower.

Official intent means an issuer's declaration of intent to reimburse an original expenditure with proceeds of an obligation.

Original expenditure means an expenditure for a governmental purpose that is originally paid from a source other than a reimbursement bond.

Placed in service means, with respect to a facility, the date on which, based on all the facts and circumstances—

(1) The facility has reached a degree of completion which would permit its operation at substantially its design level; and

(2) The facility is, in fact, in operation at such level.

Reimbursement allocation means an allocation in writing that evidences an issuer's use of proceeds of a reimbursement bond to reimburse an original expenditure. An allocation made within 30 days after the issue date of a reimbursement bond may be treated as made on the issue date.

Reimbursement bond means the portion of an issue allocated to reimburse an original expenditure that was paid before the issue date.

(d) General operating rules for reimbursement expenditures. Except as otherwise provided, a reimbursement allocation is treated as an expenditure of proceeds of a reimbursement bond for the governmental purpose of the original expenditure on the date of the reimbursement allocation only if:

(1) Official intent. Not later than 60 days after payment of the original expenditure, the issuer adopts an official intent for the original expenditure that satisfies paragraph (e) of this section.

(2) Reimbursement period—(i) In general. The reimbursement allocation is made not later than 18 months after the later of—

(A) The date the original expenditure is paid; or

(B) The date the project is placed in service or abandoned, but in no event more than 3 years after the original expenditure is paid.

(ii) Special rule for small issuers. In applying paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section to an issue that satisfies section 148(f)(4)(D)(i) (I) through (IV), the “18 month” limitation is changed to “3 years” and the “3-year” maximum reimbursement period is disregarded.

(iii) Special rule for long-term construction projects. In applying paragraph (d)(2)(i) to a construction project for which both the issuer and a licensed architect or engineer certify that at least 5 years is necessary to complete construction of the project, the maximum reimbursement period is changed from “3 years” to “5 years.”

(3) Nature of expenditure. The original expenditure is a capital expenditure, a cost of issuance for a bond, an expenditure described in § 1.148-6(d)(3)(ii)(B) (relating to certain extraordinary working capital items), a grant (as defined in § 1.150-1(f)), a qualified student loan, a qualified mortgage loan, or a qualified veterans' mortgage loan.

(e) Official intent rules. An official intent satisfies this paragraph (e) if:

(1) Form of official intent. The official intent is made in any reasonable form, including issuer resolution, action by an appropriate representative of the issuer (e.g., a person authorized or designated to declare official intent on behalf of the issuer), or specific legislative authorization for the issuance of obligations for a particular project.

(2) Project description in official intent—(i) In general. The official intent generally describes the project for which the original expenditure is paid and states the maximum principal amount of obligations expected to be issued for the project. A project includes any property, project, or program (e.g., highway capital improvement program, hospital equipment acquisition, or school building renovation).

(ii) Fund accounting. A project description is sufficient if it identifies, by name and functional purpose, the fund or account from which the original expenditure is paid (e.g., parks and recreation fund—recreational facility capital improvement program).

(iii) Reasonable deviations in project description. Deviations between a project described in an official intent and the actual project financed with reimbursement bonds do not invalidate the official intent to the extent that the actual project is reasonably related in function to the described project. For example, hospital equipment is a reasonable deviation from hospital building improvements. In contrast, a city office building rehabilitation is not a reasonable deviation from highway improvements.

(3) Reasonableness of official intent. On the date of the declaration, the issuer must have a reasonable expectation (as defined in § 1.148-1(b)) that it will reimburse the original expenditure with proceeds of an obligation. Official intents declared as a matter of course or in amounts substantially in excess of the amounts expected to be necessary for the project (e.g., blanket declarations) are not reasonable. Similarly, a pattern of failure to reimburse actual original expenditures covered by official intents (other than in extraordinary circumstances) is evidence of unreasonableness. An official intent declared pursuant to a specific legislative authorization is rebuttably presumed to satisfy this paragraph (e)(3).

(f) Exceptions to general operating rules—(1) De minimis exception. Paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section do not apply to costs of issuance of any bond or to an amount not in excess of the lesser of $100,000 or 5 percent of the proceeds of the issue.

(2) Preliminary expenditures exception. Paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section do not apply to any preliminary expenditures, up to an amount not in excess of 20 percent of the aggregate issue price of the issue or issues that finance or are reasonably expected by the issuer to finance the project for which the preliminary expenditures were incurred. Preliminary expenditures include architectural, engineering, surveying, soil testing, reimbursement bond issuance, and similar costs that are incurred prior to commencement of acquisition, construction, or rehabilitation of a project, other than land acquisition, site preparation, and similar costs incident to commencement of construction.

(g) Special rules on refundings—(1) In general—once financed, not reimbursed. Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, paragraph (d) of this section does not apply to an allocation to pay principal or interest on an obligation or to reimburse an original expenditure paid by another obligation. Instead, such an allocation is analyzed under rules on refunding issues. See § 1.148-9.

(2) Certain proceeds of prior issue used for reimbursement treated as unspent. In the case of a refunding issue (or series of refunding issues), proceeds of a prior issue purportedly used to reimburse original expenditures are treated as unspent proceeds of the prior issue unless the purported reimbursement was a valid expenditure under applicable law on reimbursement expenditures on the issue date of the prior issue.

(h) Anti-abuse rules—(1) General rule. A reimbursement allocation is not an expenditure of proceeds of an issue under this section if the allocation employs an abusive arbitrage device under § 1.148-10 to avoid the arbitrage restrictions or to avoid the restrictions under sections 142 through 147.

(2) One-year step transaction rule—(i) Creation of replacement proceeds. A purported reimbursement allocation is invalid and thus is not an expenditure of proceeds of an issue if, within 1 year after the allocation, funds corresponding to the proceeds of a reimbursement bond for which a reimbursement allocation was made are used in a manner that results in the creation of replacement proceeds (as defined in § 1.148-1) of that issue or another issue. The preceding sentence does not apply to amounts deposited in a bona fide debt service fund (as defined in § 1.148-1).

(ii) Example. The provisions of paragraph (h)(2)(i) of this section are illustrated by the following example.

Example.

On January 1, 1994, County A issues an issue of 7 percent tax-exempt bonds (the 1994 issue) and makes a purported reimbursement allocation to reimburse an original expenditure for specified capital improvements. A immediately deposits funds corresponding to the proceeds subject to the reimbursement allocation in an escrow fund to provide for payment of principal and interest on its outstanding 1991 issue of 9 percent tax-exempt bonds (the prior issue). The use of amounts corresponding to the proceeds of the reimbursement bonds to create a sinking fund for another issue within 1 year after the purported reimbursement allocation invalidates the reimbursement allocation. The proceeds retain their character as unspent proceeds of the 7 percent issue upon deposit in the escrow fund. Accordingly, the proceeds are subject to the 7 percent yield restriction of the 1994 issue instead of the 9 percent yield restriction of the prior issue.

(i) Authority of the Commissioner to prescribe rules. The Commissioner may by revenue ruling or revenue procedure (see § 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b) of this chapter) prescribe rules for the expenditure of proceeds of reimbursement bonds in circumstances that do not otherwise satisfy this section.

(j) Effective date—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided, the provisions of this section apply to all allocations of proceeds of reimbursement bonds issued after June 30, 1993.

(2) Transitional rules—(i) Official intent. An official intent is treated as satisfying the official intent requirement of paragraph (d)(1) of this section if it—

(A) Satisfied the applicable provisions of § 1.103-8(a)(5) as in effect prior to July 1, 1993, (as contained in 26 CFR part 1 revised as of April 1, 1993) and was made prior to that date, or

(B) Satisfied the applicable provisions of § 1.103-18 as in effect between January 27, 1992, and June 30, 1993, (as contained in 26 CFR part 1 revised as of April 1, 1993) and was made during that period.

(ii) Certain expenditures of private activity bonds. For any expenditure that was originally paid prior to August 15, 1993, and that would have qualified for expenditure by reimbursement from the proceeds of a private activity bond under T.D. 7199, section 1.103-8(a)(5), 1972-2 C.B. 45 (see § 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b)) of this chapter, the requirements of that section may be applied in lieu of this section.

(3) Nature of expenditure. Paragraph (d)(3) of this section applies to bonds that are sold on or after October 17, 2016.

[T.D. 8476, 58 FR 33551, June 18, 1993; 58 FR 44453, Aug. 23, 1993; T.D. 9777, 81 FR 46598, July 18, 2016]

§ 1.150-3 Retirement standards for state and local bonds.

(a) General purpose and scope. This section provides rules to determine when a tax-exempt bond is retired solely for purposes of sections 103 and 141 through 150 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code).

(b) Retirement of a tax-exempt bond—(1) General rules. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a tax-exempt bond is retired when:

(i) A significant modification of the bond occurs under § 1.1001-3;

(ii) The issuer or its agent acquires the bond in a manner that extinguishes the bond; or

(iii) The bond is otherwise redeemed (for example, redeemed at maturity).

(2) Elective retirement. In guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see § 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(a) of this chapter), the Commissioner may set forth specific circumstances under which an issuer may elect to treat a tax-exempt bond as retired for purposes of sections 103 and 141 through 150 of the Code.

(c) Exceptions to general rules for retirement of a tax-exempt bond—(1) Qualified tender right disregarded for certain purposes. In applying § 1.1001-3 to a qualified tender bond for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, both the existence and exercise of a qualified tender right are disregarded for purposes of determining whether an alteration of the interest rate or interest rate mode that occurs pursuant to the terms of the bond is a modification. Thus, an issuer's exercise of an option to alter the interest rate or interest rate mode on a qualified tender bond generally is not a modification under § 1.1001-3 because the alteration occurs by operation of the terms of the bond and the holder's resulting right to put the bond to the issuer or the issuer's agent pursuant to the disregarded qualified tender right does not prevent the issuer's option from qualifying as a unilateral option under § 1.1001-3(c)(3) that would not give rise to a modification.

(2) Acquisition pursuant to a qualified tender right. An acquisition of a qualified tender bond by the issuer or its agent does not result in the retirement of the bond under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section if the acquisition is pursuant to the operation of a qualified tender right and neither the issuer nor its agent continues to hold the bond after the close of the 90-day period beginning on the date of the tender.

(3) Acquisition of a tax-exempt bond by a guarantor or liquidity facility provider. An acquisition of a tax-exempt bond by a guarantor or liquidity facility provider acting on the issuer's behalf does not result in the retirement of the bond under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section if the acquisition is pursuant to the terms of the guarantee or liquidity facility and the guarantor or liquidity facility provider is not a related party (as defined in § 1.150-1(b)) to the issuer.

(d) Effect of retirement. If a bond is retired pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section (that is, in a transaction treated as an exchange of the bond for a bond with modified terms), the bond is treated as a new bond issued at the time of the modification as determined under § 1.1001-3. If the issuer or its agent resells a bond retired pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, the bond is treated as a new bond issued on the date of resale. The rules of § 1.150-1(d) apply to determine if the new bond is part of a refunding issue.

(e) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) Issuer means the State or local governmental unit (as defined in § 1.103-1) that actually issues the tax-exempt bond and any related party (as defined in § 1.150-1(b)) to the actual issuer (as distinguished, for example, from a conduit borrower that is not a related party to the actual issuer).

(2) Qualified tender bond means a tax-exempt bond that, pursuant to the terms of the bond, has all of the following features:

(i) During each authorized interest rate mode, the bond bears interest at a fixed interest rate, a qualified floating rate under § 1.1275-5(b), or an objective rate for a tax-exempt bond under § 1.1275-5(c)(5);

(ii) Interest on the bond is unconditionally payable (as defined in § 1.1273-1(c)(1)(ii)) at periodic intervals of no more than one year;

(iii) The bond has a stated maturity date that is not later than 40 years after the issue date of the bond; and

(iv) The bond includes a qualified tender right.

(3) Qualified tender right means a right or obligation of a holder of a tax-exempt bond pursuant to the terms of the bond to tender the bond for purchase as described in this paragraph (e)(3). The purchaser under the tender may be the issuer, its agent, or another party. The tender right is available on at least one date before the stated maturity date. For each such tender, the purchase price of the bond is equal to par (plus any accrued interest). Following each such tender, the issuer, its agent, or another party either redeems the bond or uses reasonable best efforts to resell the bond within the 90-day period beginning on the date of the tender. Upon any such resale, the resale price of the bond is equal to the par amount of the bond (plus any accrued interest), except that, if the tender right is exercised in connection with a conversion of the interest rate mode on the bond to a fixed rate for the remaining term of the bond, the bond may be resold at any price, including a premium price above the par amount of the bond or a discount price below the par amount of the bond (plus any accrued interest). Any premium received by the issuer pursuant to such a resale is treated solely for purposes of the arbitrage investment restrictions under section 148 of the Code as additional sale proceeds of the bonds.

(f) Applicability date—(1) General applicability. This section applies to events occurring and actions taken with respect to bonds on or after December 30, 2025.

(2) Permissive applicability. An issuer may choose to apply this section to events occurring and actions taken with respect to bonds on or after December 30, 2024.

[T.D. 10020, 89 FR 106319, Dec. 30, 2024]

§ 1.150-4 Change in use of facilities financed with tax-exempt private activity bonds.

(a) Scope. This section applies for purposes of the rules for change of use of facilities financed with private activity bonds under sections 150(b)(3) (relating to qualified 501(c)(3) bonds), 150(b)(4) (relating to certain exempt facility bonds and small issue bonds), 150(b)(5) (relating to facilities required to be owned by governmental units or 501(c)(3) organizations), and 150(c).

(b) Effect of remedial actions—(1) In general. Except as provided in this section, the change of use provisions of sections 150(b) (3) through (5), and 150(c) apply even if the issuer takes a remedial action described in §§ 1.142-2, 1.144-2, or 1.145-2.

(2) Exceptions—(i) Redemption. If nonqualified bonds are redeemed within 90 days of a deliberate action under § 1.145-2(a) or within 90 days of the date on which a failure to properly use proceeds occurs under § 1.142-2 or § 1.144-2, sections 150(b) (3) through (5) do not apply during the period between that date and the date on which the nonqualified bonds are redeemed.

(ii) Alternative qualifying use of facility. If a bond-financed facility is used for an alternative qualifying use under §§ 1.145-2 and 1.141-12(f), sections 150(b) (3) and (5) do not apply because of the alternative use.

(iii) Alternative use of disposition proceeds. If disposition proceeds are used for a qualifying purpose under §§ 1.145-2 and 1.141-12(e), 1.142-2(c)(4), or 1.144-2, sections 150(b) (3) through (5) do not apply because of the deliberate action that gave rise to the disposition proceeds after the date on which all of the disposition proceeds have been expended on the qualifying purpose. If all of the disposition proceeds are so expended within 90 days of the date of the deliberate action, however, sections 150(b) (3) through (5) do not apply because of the deliberate action.

(c) Allocation rules—(1) In general. If a change in use of a portion of the property financed with an issue of qualified private activity bonds causes section 150 (b)(3), (b)(4), or (b)(5) to apply to an issue, the bonds of the issue allocable to that portion under section 150(c)(3) are the same as the nonqualified bonds determined for purposes of §§ 1.142-1, 1.144-1, and 1.145-1, except that bonds allocable to all common areas are also allocated to that portion.

(2) Special rule when remedial action is taken. If an issuer takes a remedial action with respect to an issue of private activity bonds under §§ 1.142-2, 1.144-2, or 1.145-2, the bonds of the issue allocable to a portion of property are the same as the nonqualified bonds determined for purposes of those sections.

(d) Effective dates. For effective dates of this section, see § 1.141-16.

[T.D. 8712, 62 FR 2304, Jan. 16, 1997]

§ 1.150-5 Filing notices and elections.

(a) In general. Notices and elections under the following sections must be filed with the Internal Revenue Service, 1111 Constitution Avenue, NW, Attention: T:GE:TEB:O, Washington, DC 20224 or such other place designated by publication of a notice in the Internal Revenue Bulletin—

(1) Section 1.141-12(d)(4);

(2) Section 1.142(f)(4)-1; and

(3) Section 1.142-2(c)(2).

(b) Effective dates. This section applies to notices and elections filed on or after January 19, 2001.

[T.D. 8941, 66 FR 4671, Jan. 18, 2001, as amended by T.D. 9741, 80 FR 65646, Oct. 27, 2015]

Regulations Applicable to Certain Bonds Sold Prior to July 8, 1997

§§ 1.148-1A-1.148-6A [Reserved]

§§ 1.148-9A-1.148-10A [Reserved]

§ 1.148-11A Effective dates.

(a) through (c)(3) [Reserved]. For guidance see § 1.148-11.

(c)(4) Retroactive application of overpayment recovery provisions. An issuer may apply the provisions of § 1.148-3(i) to any issue that is subject to section 148(f) or to sections 103(c)(6) or 103A(i) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.

(d) through (h) [Reserved]. For guidance see § 1.148-11.

(i) Transition rules for certain amendments—(1) In general. Section 1.103-8(a)(5), §§ 1.148-1, 1.148-2, 1.148-3, 1.148-4, .148-5, 1.148-6, 1.148-7, 1.148-8, 1.148-9, 1.148-10, 1.148-11, 1.149(d)-1, and 1.150-1 as in effect on June 7, 1994 (see 26 CFR part 1 as revised April 1, 1997), and §§ 1.148-1A through 1.148-11A, 1.149(d)-1A, and 1.150-1A apply, in whole, but not in part—

(i) To bonds sold after June 6, 1994, and before July 8, 1997;

(ii) To bonds issued before July 1, 1993, that are outstanding on June 7, 1994, if the first time the issuer applies §§ 1.148-1 through 1.148-11 as in effect on June 7, 1994 (see 26 CFR part 1 as revised April 1, 1997), to the bonds under § 1.148-11 (b) or (c) is after June 6, 1994, and before July 8, 1997;

(iii) At the option of the issuer, to bonds to which §§ 1.148-1 through 1.148-11, as in effect on July 1, 1993 (see 26 CFR part 1 as revised April 1, 1994), apply, if the bonds are outstanding on June 7, 1994, and the issuer applies § 1.103-8(a)(5), §§ 1.148-1, 1.148-2, 1.148-3, 1.148-4, 1.148-5, 1.148-6, 1.148-7, 1.148-8, 1.148-9, 1.148-10, 1.148-11, 1.149(d)-1, and 1.150-1 as in effect on June 7, 1994 (see 26 CFR part 1 as revised April 1, 1997), and §§ 1.148-1A through 1.148-11A, 1.149(d)-1A, and 1.150-1A to the bonds before July 8, 1997.

(2) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (i)(1) of this section, any reference to a particular paragraph of §§ 1.148-1T, 1.148-2T, 1.148-3T, 1.148-4T, 1.148-5T, 1.148-6T, 1.148-9T, 1.148-10T, 1.148-11T, 1.149(d)-1T, or 1.150-1T shall be applied as a reference to the corresponding paragraph of §§ 1.148-1A, 1.148-2A, 1.148-3A, 1.148-4A, 1.148-5A, 1.148-6A, 1.148-9A, 1.148-10A, 1.148-11A, 1.149(d)-1A, or 1.150-1A, respectively.

(3) Identification of certain hedges. For any hedge entered into after June 18, 1993, and on or before June 6, 1994, that would be a qualified hedge within the meaning of § 1.148-4(h)(2), as in effect on June 7, 1994 (see 26 CFR part 1 as revised April 1, 1997), except that the hedge does not meet the requirements of § 1.148-4A(h)(2)(ix) because the issuer failed to identify the hedge not later than 3 days after which the issuer and the provider entered into the contract, the requirements of § 1.148-4A(h)(2)(ix) are treated as met if the contract is identified by the actual issuer on its books and records maintained for the hedged bonds not later than July 8, 1997.

[T.D. 8538, 59 FR 24046, May 10, 1994. Redesignated and amended by T.D. 8718, 62 FR 25507, 25513, May 9, 1997]

Deductions for Personal Exemptions

§ 1.151-1 Deductions for personal exemptions.

(a) In general. (1) In computing taxable income, an individual is allowed a deduction for the exemptions specified in section 151. Such exemptions are: (i) The exemptions for an individual taxpayer and spouse (the so-called personal exemptions); (ii) the additional exemptions for a taxpayer attaining the age of 65 years and spouse attaining the age of 65 years (the so-called old-age exemptions); (iii) the additional exemptions for a blind taxpayer and a blind spouse; and (iv) the exemptions for dependents of the taxpayer.

(2) A nonresident alien individual who is a bona fide resident of Puerto Rico during the entire taxable year and subject to tax under section 1 or 1201(b) is allowed as deductions the exemptions specified in section 151, even though as to the United States such individual is a nonresident alien. See section 876 and the regulations thereunder, relating to alien residents of Puerto Rico.

(b) Exemptions for individual taxpayer and spouse (so-called personal exemptions). Section 151(b) allows an exemption for the taxpayer and an additional exemption for the spouse of the taxpayer if a joint return is not made by the taxpayer and his spouse, and if the spouse, for the calendar year in which the taxable year of the taxpayer begins, has no gross income and is not the dependent of another taxpayer. Thus, a husband is not entitled to an exemption for his wife on his separate return for the taxable year beginning in a calendar year during which she has any gross income (though insufficient to require her to file a return). Since, in the case of a joint return, there are two taxpayers (although under section 6013 there is only one income for the two taxpayers on such return, i.e., their aggregate income), two exemptions are allowed on such return, one for each taxpayer spouse. If in any case a joint return is made by the taxpayer and his spouse, no other person is allowed an exemption for such spouse even though such other person would have been entitled to claim an exemption for such spouse as a dependent if such joint return had not been made.

(c) Exemptions for taxpayer attaining the age of 65 and spouse attaining the age of 65 (so-called old-age exemptions). (1) Section 151(c) provides an additional exemption for the taxpayer if he has attained the age of 65 before the close of his taxable year. An additional exemption is also allowed to the taxpayer for his spouse if a joint return is not made by the taxpayer and his spouse and if the spouse has attained the age of 65 before the close of the taxable year of the taxpayer and, for the calendar year in which the taxable year of the taxpayer begins, the spouse has no gross income and is not the dependent of another taxpayer. If a husband and wife make a joint return, an old-age exemption will be allowed as to each taxpayer spouse who has attained the age of 65 before the close of the taxable year for which the joint return is made. The exemptions under section 151(c) are in addition to the exemptions for the taxpayer and spouse under section 151(b).

(2) In determining the age of an individual for the purposes of the exemption for old age, the last day of the taxable year of the taxpayer is the controlling date. Thus, in the event of a separate return by a husband, no additional exemption for old age may be claimed for his spouse unless such spouse has attained the age of 65 on or before the close of the taxable year of the husband. In no event shall the additional exemption for old age be allowed with respect to a spouse who dies before attaining the age of 65 even though such spouse would have attained the age of 65 before the close of the taxable year of the taxpayer. For the purposes of the old-age exemption, an individual attains the age of 65 on the first moment of the day preceding his sixty-fifth birthday. Accordingly, an individual whose sixty-fifth birthday falls on January 1 in a given year attains the age of 65 on the last day of the calendar year immediately preceding.

(d) Exemptions for the blind. (1) Section 151(d) provides an additional exemption for the taxpayer if he is blind at the close of his taxable year. An additional exemption is also allowed to the taxpayer for his spouse if the spouse is blind and, for the calendar year in which the taxable year of the taxpayer begins, has no gross income and is not the dependent of another taxpayer. The determination of whether the spouse is blind shall be made as of the close of the taxable year of the taxpayer, unless the spouse dies during such taxable year, in which case such determination shall be made as of the time of such death.

(2) The exemptions for the blind are in addition to the exemptions for the taxpayer and spouse under section 151(b) and are also in addition to the exemptions under section 151(c) for taxpayers and spouses attaining the age of 65 years. Thus, a single individual who has attained the age of 65 before the close of his taxable year and who is blind at the close of his taxable year is entitled, in addition to the so-called personal exemption, to two further exemptions, one by reason of his age and the other by reason of his blindness. If a husband and wife make a joint return, an exemption for the blind will be allowed as to each taxpayer spouse who is blind at the close of the taxable year for which the joint return is made.

(3) A taxpayer claiming an exemption allowed by section 151(d) for a blind taxpayer and a blind spouse shall, if the individual for whom the exemption is claimed is not totally blind as of the last day of the taxable year of the taxpayer (or, in the case of a spouse who dies during such taxable year, as of the time of such death), attach to his return a certificate from a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye or a registered optometrist stating that as of the applicable status determination date in the opinion of such physician or optometrist (i) the central visual acuity of the individual for whom the exemption is claimed did not exceed 20/200 in the better eye with correcting lenses or (ii) such individual's visual acuity was accompanied by a limitation in the fields of vision such that the widest diameter of the visual field subtends an angle no greater than 20 degrees. If such individual is totally blind as of the status determination date there shall be attached to the return a statement by the person or persons making the return setting forth such fact.

(4) Notwithstanding subparagraph (3) of this paragraph, this subparagraph may be applied where the individual for whom an exemption under section 151(d) is claimed is not totally blind, and in the certified opinion of an examining physician skilled in the diseases of the eye there is no reasonable probability that the individual's visual acuity will ever improve beyond the minimum standards described in subparagraph (3) of this paragraph. In this event, if the examination occurs during a taxable year for which the exemption is claimed, and the examining physician certifies that, in his opinion, the condition is irreversible, and a copy of this certification is filed with the return for that taxable year, then a statement described in subparagraph (3) of this paragraph need not be attached to such individual's return for subsequent taxable years so long as the condition remains irreversible. The taxpayer shall retain a copy of the certified opinion in his records, and a statement referring to such opinion shall be attached to future returns claiming the section 151(d) exemption.

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960, as amended by T.D. 7114, 36 FR 9018, May 18, 1971; T.D. 7230, 37 FR 28288, Dec. 22, 1972]

§ 1.151-2 Additional exemptions for dependents.

(a) Section 151(e) allows to a taxpayer an exemption for each dependent (as defined in section 152) whose gross income (as defined in section 61) for the calendar year in which the taxable year of the taxpayer begins is less than the amount provided in section 151(e)(1)(A) applicable to the taxable year of the taxpayer, or who is a child of the taxpayer and who—

(1) The taxable year of the taxpayer begins, or

(2) Is a student, as defined in paragraph (b) of § 1.151-3.

No exemption shall be allowed under section 151(e) for any dependent who has made a joint return with his spouse under section 6013 for the taxable year beginning in the calendar year in which the taxable year of the taxpayer begins. The amount provided in section 151(e)(1)(A) is $750 in the case of a taxable year beginning after December 31, 1972; $700 in the case of a taxable year beginning after December 31, 1971, and before January 1, 1973; $650 in the case of a taxable year beginning after December 31, 1970, and before January 1, 1972; $625 in the case of a taxable year beginning after December 31, 1969, and before January 1, 1971; and $600 in the case of a taxable year beginning before January 1, 1970. For special rules in the case of a taxpayer whose taxable year is a fiscal year ending after December 31, 1969, and beginning before January 1, 1973, see section 21(d) and the regulations thereunder.

(b) The only exemption allowed for a dependent of the taxpayer is that provided by section 151(e). The exemptions provided by section 151(c) (old-age exemptions) and section 151(d) (exemptions for the blind) are allowed only for the taxpayer or his spouse. For example, where a taxpayer provides the entire support for his father who meets all the requirements of a dependent, he is entitled to only one exemption for his father (section 151(e)), even though his father is over the age of 65.

[T.D. 7114, 36 FR 9019, May 18, 1971]

§ 1.151-3 Definitions.

(a) Child. For purposes of sections 151(e), 152, and the regulations thereunder, the term “child” means a son, stepson, daughter, stepdaughter, adopted son, adopted daughter, or for taxable years beginning after December 31, 1958, a child who is a member of an individual's household if the child was placed with the individual by an authorized placement agency for legal adoption pursuant to a formal application filed by the individual with the agency (see paragraph (c)(2) of § 1.152-2), or, for taxable years beginning after December 31, 1969, a foster child (if such foster child satisfies the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of § 1.152-1 with respect to the taxpayer) of the taxpayer.

(b) Student. For purposes of section 151(e) and section 152(d), and the regulations thereunder, the term “student” means an individual who during each of 5 calendar months during the calendar year in which the taxable year of the taxpayer begins is a full-time student at an educational institution or is pursuing a full-time course of institutional on-farm training under the supervision of an accredited agent of an educational institution or of a State or political subdivision of a State. An example of “institutional on-farm training” is that authorized by 38 U.S.C. 1652 (formerly section 252 of the Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act of 1952), as described in section 252 of such act. A full-time student is one who is enrolled for some part of 5 calendar months for the number of hours or courses which is considered to be full-time attendance. The 5 calendar months need not be consecutive. School attendance exclusively at night does not constitute full-time attendance. However, full-time attendance at an educational institution may include some attendance at night in connection with a full-time course of study.

(c) Educational institution. For purposes of sections 151(e) and 152, and the regulations thereunder, the term “educational institution” means a school maintaining a regular faculty and established curriculum, and having an organized body of students in attendance. It includes primary and secondary schools, colleges, universities, normal schools, technical schools, mechanical schools, and similar institutions, but does not include noneducational institutions, on-the-job training, correspondence schools, night schools, and so forth.

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960, as amended by T.D. 7051, 35 FR 11020, July 9, 1970]

§ 1.151-4 Amount of deduction for each exemption under section 151.

The amount allowed as a deduction for each exemption under section 151 is (a) $750 in the case of a taxable year beginning after December 31, 1972; (b) $700 in the case of a taxable year beginning after December 31, 1971, and before January 1, 1973; (c) $650 in the case of a taxable year beginning after December 31, 1970, and before January 1, 1972; (d) $625 in the case of a taxable year beginning after December 31, 1969, and before January 1, 1971; and (e) $600 in the case of a taxable year beginning before January 1, 1970. For special rules in the case of a fiscal year ending after December 31, 1969, and beginning before January 1, 1973, see section 21(d) and the regulations thereunder.

[T.D. 7114, 36 FR 9019, May 18, 1971]

§ 1.152-1 General definition of a dependent.

(a)(1) For purposes of the income taxes imposed on individuals by chapter 1 of the Code, the term “dependent” means any individual described in paragraphs (1) through (10) of section 152(a) over half of whose support, for the calendar year in which the taxable year of the taxpayer begins, was received from the taxpayer.

(2)(i) For purposes of determining whether or not an individual received, for a given calendar year, over half of his support from the taxpayer, there shall be taken into account the amount of support received from the taxpayer as compared to the entire amount of support which the individual received from all sources, including support which the individual himself supplied. The term “support” includes food, shelter, clothing, medical and dental care, education, and the like. Generally, the amount of an item of support will be the amount of expense incurred by the one furnishing such item. If the item of support furnished an individual is in the form of property or lodging, it will be necessary to measure the amount of such item of support in terms of its fair market value.

(ii) In computing the amount which is contributed for the support of an individual, there must be included any amount which is contributed by such individual for his own support, including income which is ordinarily excludable from gross income, such as benefits received under the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. ch. 7). For example, a father receives $800 social security benefits, $400 interest, and $1,000 from his son during 1955, all of which sums represent his sole support during that year. The fact that the social security benefits of $800 are not includible in the father's gross income does not prevent such amount from entering into the computation of the total amount contributed for the father's support. Consequently, since the son's contribution of $1,000 was less than one-half of the father's support ($2,200) he may not claim his father as a dependent.

(iii)(a) For purposes of determining the amount of support furnished for a child (or children) by a taxpayer for a given calendar year, an arrearage payment made in a year subsequent to a calendar year for which there is an unpaid liability shall not be treated as paid either during that calendar year or in the year of payment, but no amount shall be treated as an arrearage payment to the extent that there is an unpaid liability (determined without regard to such payment) with respect to the support of a child for the taxable year of payment; and

(b) Similarly, payments made prior to any calendar year (whether or not made in the form of a lump sum payment in settlement of the parent's liability for support) shall not be treated as made during such calendar year, but payments made during any calendar year from amounts set aside in trust by a parent in a prior year, shall be treated as made during the calendar year in which paid.

(b) Section 152(a)(9) applies to any individual (other than an individual who at any time during the taxable year was the spouse, determined without regard to section 153, of the taxpayer) who lives with the taxpayer and is a member of the taxpayer's household during the entire taxable year of the taxpayer. An individual is not a member of the taxpayer's household if at any time during the taxable year of the taxpayer the relationship between such individual and the taxpayer is in violation of local law. It is not necessary under section 152(a)(9) that the dependent be related to the taxpayer. For example, foster children may qualify as dependents. It is necessary, however, that the taxpayer both maintain and occupy the household. The taxpayer and dependent will be considered as occupying the household for such entire taxable year notwithstanding temporary absences from the household due to special circumstances. A nonpermanent failure to occupy the common abode by reason of illness, education, business, vacation, military service, or a custody agreement under which the dependent is absent for less than six months in the taxable year of the taxpayer, shall be considered temporary absence due to special circumstances. The fact that the dependent dies during the year shall not deprive the taxpayer of the deduction if the dependent lived in the household for the entire part of the year preceding his death. Likewise, the period during the taxable year preceding the birth of an individual shall not prevent such individual from qualifying as a dependent under section 152(a)(9). Moreover, a child who actually becomes a member of the taxpayer's household during the taxable year shall not be prevented from being considered a member of such household for the entire taxable year, if the child is required to remain in a hospital for a period following its birth, and if such child would otherwise have been a member of the taxpayer's household during such period.

(c) In the case of a child of the taxpayer who is under 19 or who is a student, the taxpayer may claim the dependency exemption for such child provided he has furnished more than one-half of the support of such child for the calendar year in which the taxable year of the taxpayer begins, even though the income of the child for such calendar year may be equal to or in excess of the amount determined pursuant to § 1.151-2 applicable to such calendar year. In such a case, there may be two exemptions claimed for the child: One on the parent's (or stepparent's) return, and one on the child's return. In determining whether the taxpayer does in fact furnish more than one-half of the support of an individual who is a child, as defined in paragraph (a) of § 1.151-3, of the taxpayer and who is a student, as defined in paragraph (b) of § 1.151-3, a special rule regarding scholarships applies. Amounts received as scholarships, as defined in paragraph (a) of § 1.117-3, for study at an educational institution shall not be considered in determining whether the taxpayer furnishes more than one-half the support of such individual. For example, A has a child who receives a $1,000 scholarship to the X college for 1 year. A contributes $500, which constitutes the balance of the child's support for that year. A may claim the child as a dependent, as the $1,000 scholarship is not counted in determining the support of the child. For purposes of this paragraph, amounts received for tuition payments and allowances by a veteran under the provisions of the Servicemen's Readjustment Act of 1944 (58 Stat. 284) or the Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act of 1952 (38 U.S.C. ch. 38) are not amounts received as scholarships. See also § 1.117-4. For definition of the terms “child”, “student”, and “educational institution”, as used in this paragraph, see § 1.151-3.

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960, as amended by T.D. 6603, 28 FR 7094, July 11, 1963; T.D. 7099, 36 FR 5337, Mar. 20, 1971; T.D. 7114, 36 FR 9019, May 18, 1971]

§ 1.152-2 Rules relating to general definition of dependent.

(a)(1) Except as provided in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, to qualify as a dependent an individual must be a citizen or resident of the United States or be a resident of the Canal Zone, the Republic of Panama, Canada, or Mexico, or, for taxable years beginning after December 31, 1971, a national of the United States, at some time during the calendar year in which the taxable year of the taxpayer begins. A resident of the Republic of the Philippines who was born to or legally adopted by the taxpayer in the Philippine Islands before January 1, 1956, at a time when the taxpayer was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States, may also be claimed as a dependent if such resident otherwise qualifies as a dependent. For definition of “Armed Forces of the United States,” see section 7701(a)(15).

(2)(i) For any taxable year beginning after December 31, 1957, a taxpayer who is a citizen, or, for any taxable year beginning after December 31, 1971, a national, of the United States is permitted under section 152(b)(3)(B) to treat as a dependent his legally adopted child who lives with him, as a member of his household, for the entire taxable year and who, but for the citizenship, nationality, or residence requirements of section 152(b)(3) and subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, would qualify as a dependent of the taxpayer for such taxable year.

(ii) Under section 152(b)(3)(B) and this subparagraph, it is necessary that the taxpayer both maintain and occupy the household. The taxpayer and his legally adopted child will be considered as occupying the household for the entire taxable year of the taxpayer notwithstanding temporary absences from the household due to special circumstances. A nonpermanent failure to occupy the common abode by reason of illness, education, business, vacation, military service, or a custody agreement under which the legally adopted child is absent for less than six months in the taxable year of the taxpayer shall be considered temporary absence due to special circumstances. The fact that a legally adopted child dies during the year shall not deprive the taxpayer of the deduction if the child lived in the household for the entire part of the year preceding his death. The period during the taxable year preceding the birth of a child shall not prevent such child from qualifying as a dependent under this subparagraph. Moreover, a legally adopted child who actually becomes a member of the taxpayer's household during the taxable year shall not be prevented from being considered a member of such household for the entire taxable year, if the child is required to remain in a hospital for a period following its birth and if such child would otherwise have been a member of the taxpayer's household during such period.

(iii) For purposes of section 152(b)(3)(B) and this subparagraph, any child whose legal adoption by the taxpayer (a citizen or national of the United States) becomes final at any time before the end of the taxable year of the taxpayer shall not be disqualified as a dependent of such taxpayer by reason of his citizenship, nationality, or residence, provided the child lived with the taxpayer and was a member of the taxpayer's household for the entire taxable year in which the legal adoption became final. For example, A, a citizen of the United States who makes his income tax returns on the basis of the calendar year, is employed in Brazil by an agency of the United States Government. In October 1958 he takes into his household C, a resident of Brazil who is not a citizen of the United States, for the purpose of initiating adoption proceedings. C lives with A and is a member of his household for the remainder of 1958 and for the entire calendar year 1959. On July 1, 1959, the adoption proceedings were completed and C became the legally adopted child of A. If C otherwise qualifies as a dependent, he may be claimed as a dependent by A for 1959.

(b)(1) A payment to a spouse (payee spouse) of alimony or separate maintenance is not treated as a payment by the payor spouse for the support of any dependent. Similarly, the distribution of income of an estate or trust to a divorced or legally separated payee spouse is not treated as a payment by the payor spouse for the support of any dependent. The preceding sentence will not apply, however, to the extent that such a distribution is in satisfaction of the amount or portion of income that, by the terms of a divorce decree, a written separation agreement, or the trust instrument is fixed as payable for the support of the minor children of the payor spouse.

(2) Paragraph (b)(1) of this section applies to taxable years beginning on or after October 13, 2020.

(c)(1) For purposes of determining the existence of any of the relationships specified in section 152 (a) or (b)(1), a legally adopted child of an individual shall be treated as a child of such individual by blood.

(2) For any taxable year beginning after December 31, 1958, a child who is a member of an individual's household also shall be treated as a child of such individual by blood if the child was placed with the individual by an authorized placement agency for legal adoption pursuant to a formal application filed by the individual with the agency. For purposes of this subparagraph an authorized placement agency is any agency which is authorized by a State, the District of Columbia, a possession of the United States, a foreign country, or a political subdivision of any of the foregoing to place children for adoption. A taxpayer who claims as a dependent a child placed with him for adoption shall attach to his income tax return a statement setting forth the name of the child for whom the dependency deduction is claimed, the name and address of the authorized placement agency, and the date the formal application was filed with the agency.

(3) The application of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.

On March 1, 1959, D, a resident of the United States, made formal application to an authorized child placement agency for the placement of E, a resident of the United States, with him for legal adoption. On June 1, 1959, E was placed with D for legal adoption. During the year 1959 E received over one-half of his support from D. D may claim E as a dependent for 1959. Since E was a resident of the United States, his qualification as a dependent is in no way based on the provisions of section 152(b)(3)(B). Therefore, it is immaterial that E was not a member of D's household during the entire taxable year.

(4) For purposes of determining the existence of any of the relationships specified in section 152 (a) or (b)(1), a foster child of an individual (if such foster child satisfies the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of § 1.152-1 with respect to such individual) shall, for taxable years beginning after December 31, 1969, be treated as a child of such individual by blood. For purposes of this subparagraph, a foster child is a child who is in the care of a person or persons (other than the parents or adopted parents of the child) who care for the child as their own child. Status as a foster child is not dependent upon or affected by the circumstances under which the child became a member of the household.

(d) In the case of a joint return it is not necessary that the prescribed relationship exist between the person claimed as a dependent and the spouse who furnishes the support; it is sufficient if the prescribed relationship exists with respect to either spouse. Thus, a husband and wife making a joint return may claim as a dependent a daughter of the wife's brother (wife's niece) even though the husband is the one who furnishes the chief support. The relationship of affinity once existing will not terminate by divorce or the death of a spouse. For example, a widower may continue to claim his deceased wife's father (his father-in-law) as a dependent provided he meets the other requirements of section 151.

(e)(1) In defining a qualifying relative for taxable year 2018, the exemption amount in section 152(d)(1)(B) is $4,150. For taxable years 2019 through 2025, the exemption amount, as adjusted for inflation, is set forth in annual guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin. See § 601.601(d)(2) of this chapter.

(2) Paragraph (e)(1) of this section applies to taxable years ending after August 28, 2018.

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960, as amended by T.D. 6603, 28 FR 7094, July 11, 1963; T.D. 7051, 35 FR 11020, July 9, 1970; T.D. 7291, 38 FR 33396, Dec. 4, 1973; T.D. 9913, 85 FR 64386, Oct. 13, 2020]

§ 1.152-3 Multiple support agreements.

(a) Section 152(c) provides that a taxpayer shall be treated as having contributed over half of the support of an individual for the calendar year (in cases where two or more taxpayers contributed to the support of such individual) if—

(1) No one person contributed over half of the individual's support,

(2) Each member of the group which collectively contributed more than half of the support of the individual would have been entitled to claim the individual as a dependent but for the fact that he did not contribute more than one-half of such support.

(3) The member of the group claiming the individual as a dependent contributed more than 10 percent of the individual's support, and

(4) Each other person in the group who contributed more than 10 percent of such support furnishes to the taxpayer claiming the dependent a written declaration that such other person will not claim the individual as a dependent for any taxable year beginning in such calendar year.

(b) Examples. Application of the rule contained in paragraph (a) of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

During the taxable year, brothers A, B, C, and D contributed the entire support of their mother in the following percentages: A, 30 percent; B, 20 percent; C, 29 percent; and D, 21 percent. Any one of the brothers, except for the fact that he did not contribute more than half of her support, would have been entitled to claim his mother as a dependent. Consequently, any one of the brothers could claim a deduction for the exemption of the mother if he obtained a written declaration (as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section) from each of the other brothers. Even though A and D together contributed more than one-half the support of the mother, A, if he wished to claim his mother as a dependent, would be required to obtain written declarations from B, C, and D, since each of those three contributed more than 10 percent of the support and, but for the failure to contribute more than half of the mother's support, would have been entitled to claim his mother as a dependent.

Example 2.

During the taxable year, E, an individual who resides with his son, S, received his entire support for that year as follows:

Source Percentage of total
Social Security 25
N, an unrelated neighbor 11
B, a brother 14
D, a daughter 10
S, a son 40
Total received by E 100

B, D, and S are persons each of whom, but for the fact that none contributed more than half of E's support, could claim E as a dependent for the taxable year. The three together contributed 64 percent of E's support, and, thus, each is a member of the group to be considered for the purpose of section 152(c). B and S are the only members of such group who can meet all the requirements of section 152(c), and either one could claim E as a dependent for his taxable year if he obtained a written declaration (as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section) signed by the other, and furnished the other information required by the return with respect to all the contributions to E. Inasmuch as D did not contribute more than 10 percent of E's support, she is not entitled to claim E as a dependent for the taxable year nor is she required to furnish a written declaration with respect to her contributions to E. N contributed over 10 percent of the support of E, but, since he is an unrelated neighbor, he does not qualify as a member of the group for the purpose of the multiple support agreement under section 152(c).

(c)(1) The member of a group of contributors who claims an individual as a dependent for a taxable year beginning before January 1, 2002, under the multiple support agreement provisions of section 152(c) must attach to the member's income tax return for the year of the deduction a written declaration from each of the other persons who contributed more than 10 percent of the support of such individual and who, but for the failure to contribute more than half of the support of the individual, would have been entitled to claim the individual as a dependent.

(2) The taxpayer claiming an individual as a dependent for a taxable year beginning after December 31, 2001, under the multiple support agreement provisions of section 152(c) must provide with the income tax return for the year of the deduction—

(i) A statement identifying each of the other persons who contributed more than 10 percent of the support of the individual and who, but for the failure to contribute more than half of the support of the individual, would have been entitled to claim the individual as a dependent; and

(ii) A statement indicating that the taxpayer obtained a written declaration from each of the persons described in section 152(c)(2) waiving the right to claim the individual as a dependent.

(3) The taxpayer claiming the individual as a dependent for a taxable year beginning after December 31, 2001, must retain the waiver declarations and should be prepared to furnish the waiver declarations and any other information necessary to substantiate the claim, which may include a statement showing the names of all contributors (whether or not members of the group described in section 152(c)(2)) and the amount contributed by each to the support of the claimed dependent.

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960, as amended by T.D. 6603, 28 FR 7094, July 11, 1963; T.D. 8989, 67 FR 20031, Apr. 24, 2002; T.D. 9040, 68 FR 4920, Jan. 31, 2003]

§ 1.152-4 Special rule for a child of divorced or separated parents or parents who live apart.

(a) In general. A taxpayer may claim a dependency deduction for a child (as defined in section 152(f)(1)) only if the child is the qualifying child of the taxpayer under section 152(c) or the qualifying relative of the taxpayer under section 152(d). Section 152(c)(4)(B) provides that a child who is claimed as a qualifying child by parents who do not file a joint return together is treated as the qualifying child of the parent with whom the child resides for a longer period of time during the taxable year or, if the child resides with both parents for an equal period of time, of the parent with the higher adjusted gross income. However, a child is treated as the qualifying child or qualifying relative of the noncustodial parent if the custodial parent releases a claim to the exemption under section 152(e) and this section.

(b) Release of claim by custodial parent—(1) In general. Under section 152(e)(1), notwithstanding section 152(c)(1)(B), (c)(4), or (d)(1)(C), a child is treated as the qualifying child or qualifying relative of the noncustodial parent (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section) if the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section are met.

(2) Support, custody, and parental status—(i) In general. The requirements of this paragraph (b)(2) are met if the parents of the child provide over one-half of the child's support for the calendar year, the child is in the custody of one or both parents for more than one-half of the calendar year, and the parents—

(A) Are divorced or legally separated under a decree of divorce or separate maintenance;

(B) Are separated under a written separation agreement; or

(C) Live apart at all times during the last 6 months of the calendar year whether or not they are or were married.

(ii) Multiple support agreement. The requirements of this paragraph (b)(2) are not met if over one-half of the support of the child is treated as having been received from a taxpayer under section 152(d)(3).

(3) Release of claim to child. The requirements of this paragraph (b)(3) are met for a calendar year if—

(i) The custodial parent signs a written declaration that the custodial parent will not claim the child as a dependent for any taxable year beginning in that calendar year and the noncustodial parent attaches the declaration to the noncustodial parent's return for the taxable year; or

(ii) A qualified pre-1985 instrument, as defined in section 152(e)(3)(B), applicable to the taxable year beginning in that calendar year, provides that the noncustodial parent is entitled to the dependency exemption for the child and the noncustodial parent provides at least $600 for the support of the child during the calendar year.

(c) Custody. A child is in the custody of one or both parents for more than one-half of the calendar year if one or both parents have the right under state law to physical custody of the child for more than one-half of the calendar year.

(d) Custodial parent—(1) In general. The custodial parent is the parent with whom the child resides for the greater number of nights during the calendar year, and the noncustodial parent is the parent who is not the custodial parent. A child is treated as residing with neither parent if the child is emancipated under state law. For purposes of this section, a child resides with a parent for a night if the child sleeps—

(i) At the residence of that parent (whether or not the parent is present); or

(ii) In the company of the parent, when the child does not sleep at a parent's residence (for example, the parent and child are on vacation together).

(2) Night straddling taxable years. A night that extends over two taxable years is allocated to the taxable year in which the night begins.

(3) Absences. (i) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section, for purposes of this paragraph (d), a child who does not reside (within the meaning of paragraph (d)(1) of this section) with a parent for a night is treated as residing with the parent with whom the child would have resided for the night but for the absence.

(ii) A child who does not reside (within the meaning of paragraph (d)(1) of this section) with a parent for a night is treated as not residing with either parent for that night if it cannot be determined with which parent the child would have resided or if the child would not have resided with either parent for the night.

(4) Special rule for equal number of nights. If a child is in the custody of one or both parents for more than one-half of the calendar year and the child resides with each parent for an equal number of nights during the calendar year, the parent with the higher adjusted gross income for the calendar year is treated as the custodial parent.

(5) Exception for a parent who works at night. If, in a calendar year, due to a parent's nighttime work schedule, a child resides for a greater number of days but not nights with the parent who works at night, that parent is treated as the custodial parent. On a school day, the child is treated as residing at the primary residence registered with the school.

(e) Written declaration—(1) Form of declaration—(i) In general. The written declaration under paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section must be an unconditional release of the custodial parent's claim to the child as a dependent for the year or years for which the declaration is effective. A declaration is not unconditional if the custodial parent's release of the right to claim the child as a dependent requires the satisfaction of any condition, including the noncustodial parent's meeting of an obligation such as the payment of support. A written declaration must name the noncustodial parent to whom the exemption is released. A written declaration must specify the year or years for which it is effective. A written declaration that specifies all future years is treated as specifying the first taxable year after the taxable year of execution and all subsequent taxable years.

(ii) Form designated by IRS. A written declaration may be made on Form 8332, Release/Revocation of Release of Claim to Exemption for Child by Custodial Parent, or successor form designated by the IRS. A written declaration not on the form designated by the IRS must conform to the substance of that form and must be a document executed for the sole purpose of serving as a written declaration under this section. A court order or decree or a separation agreement may not serve as a written declaration.

(2) Attachment to return. A noncustodial parent must attach a copy of the written declaration to the parent's return for each taxable year in which the child is claimed as a dependent.

(3) Revocation of written declaration—(i) In general. A parent may revoke a written declaration described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section by providing written notice of the revocation to the other parent. The parent revoking the written declaration must make reasonable efforts to provide actual notice to the other parent. The revocation may be effective no earlier than the taxable year that begins in the first calendar year after the calendar year in which the parent revoking the written declaration provides, or makes reasonable efforts to provide, the written notice.

(ii) Form of revocation. The revocation may be made on Form 8332, Release/Revocation of Release of Claim to Exemption for Child by Custodial Parent, or successor form designated by the IRS whether or not the written declaration was made on a form designated by the IRS. A revocation not on that form must conform to the substance of the form and must be a document executed for the sole purpose of serving as a revocation under this section. The revocation must specify the year or years for which the revocation is effective. A revocation that specifies all future years is treated as specifying the first taxable year after the taxable year the revocation is executed and all subsequent taxable years.

(iii) Attachment to return. The parent revoking the written declaration must attach a copy of the revocation to the parent's return for each taxable year for which the parent claims a child as a dependent as a result of the revocation. The parent revoking the written declaration must keep a copy of the revocation and evidence of delivery of the notice to the other parent, or of the reasonable efforts to provide actual notice.

(4) Ineffective declaration or revocation. A written declaration or revocation that fails to satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (e) has no effect.

(5) Written declaration executed in a taxable year beginning on or before July 2, 2008. A written declaration executed in a taxable year beginning on or before July 2, 2008, that satisfies the requirements for the form of a written declaration in effect at the time the written declaration is executed, will be treated as meeting the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section. Paragraph (e)(3) of this section applies without regard to whether a custodial parent executed the written declaration in a taxable year beginning on or before July 2, 2008.

(f) Coordination with other sections. If section 152(e) and this section apply, a child is treated as the dependent of both parents for purposes of sections 105(b), 132(h)(2)(B), and 213(d)(5).

(g) Examples. The provisions of this section are illustrated by the following examples that assume, unless otherwise provided, that each taxpayer's taxable year is the calendar year, one or both of the child's parents provide over one-half of the child's support for the calendar year, one or both parents have the right under state law to physical custody of the child for more than one-half of the calendar year, and the child otherwise meets the requirements of a qualifying child under section 152(c) or a qualifying relative under section 152(d). In addition, in each of the examples, no qualified pre-1985 instrument or multiple support agreement is in effect. The examples are as follows:

Example 1.

(i) B and C are the divorced parents of Child. In 2009, Child resides with B for 210 nights and with C for 155 nights. B executes a Form 8332 for 2009 releasing B's right to claim Child as a dependent for that year, which C attaches to C's 2009 return.

(ii) Under paragraph (d) of this section, B is the custodial parent of Child in 2009 because B is the parent with whom Child resides for the greater number of nights in 2009. Because the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section are met, C may claim Child as a dependent.

Example 2.

The facts are the same as in Example 1 except that B does not execute a Form 8332 or similar declaration for 2009. Therefore, section 152(e) and this section do not apply. Whether Child is the qualifying child or qualifying relative of B or C is determined under section 152(c) or (d).

Example 3.

(i) D and E are the divorced parents of Child. Under a custody decree, Grandmother has the right under state law to physical custody of Child from January 1 to July 31, 2009.

(ii) Because D and E do not have the right under state law to physical custody of Child for over one-half of the 2009 calendar year, under paragraph (c) of this section, Child is not in the custody of one or both parents for over one-half of the calendar year. Therefore, section 152(e) and this section do not apply, and whether Child is the qualifying child or qualifying relative of D, E, or Grandmother is determined under section 152(c) or (d).

Example 4.

(i) The facts are the same as in Example 3, except that Grandmother has the right to physical custody of Child from January 1 to March 31, 2009, and, as a result, Child resides with Grandmother during this period. D and E jointly have the right to physical custody of Child from April 1 to December 31, 2009. During this period, Child resides with D for 180 nights and with E for 95 nights. D executes a Form 8332 for 2009 releasing D's right to claim Child as a dependent for that year, which E attaches to E's 2009 return.

(ii) Under paragraph (c) of this section, Child is in the custody of D and E for over one-half of the calendar year, because D and E have the right under state law to physical custody of Child for over one-half of the calendar year.

(iii) Under paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section, the nights that Child resides with Grandmother are not allocated to either parent. Child resides with D for a greater number of nights than with E during the calendar year and, under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, D is the custodial parent.

(iv) Because the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section are met, section 152(e) and this section apply, and E may claim Child as a dependent.

Example 5.

(i) The facts are the same as in Example 4, except that D is away on military service from April 10 to June 15, 2009, and September 6 to October 20, 2009. During these periods Child resides with Grandmother in Grandmother's residence. Child would have resided with D if D had not been away on military service. Grandmother claims Child as a dependent on Grandmother's 2009 return.

(ii) Under paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, Child is treated as residing with D for the nights that D is away on military service. Because the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section are met, section 152(e) and this section apply, and E, not Grandmother, may claim Child as a dependent.

Example 6.

F and G are the divorced parents of Child. In May of 2009, Child turns age 18 and is emancipated under the law of the state where Child resides. Therefore, in 2009 and later years, F and G do not have the right under state law to physical custody of Child for over one-half of the calendar year, and Child is not in the custody of F and G for over one-half of the calendar year. Section 152(e) and this section do not apply, and whether Child is the qualifying child or qualifying relative of F or G is determined under section 152(c) or (d).

Example 7.

(i) The facts are the same as in Example 6, except that Child turns age 18 and is emancipated under state law on August 1, 2009, resides with F from January 1, 2009, through May 31, 2009, and resides with G from June 1, 2009, through December 31, 2009. F executes a Form 8332 releasing F's right to claim Child as a dependent for 2009, which G attaches to G's 2009 return.

(ii) Under paragraph (c) of this section, Child is in the custody of F and G for over one-half of the calendar year.

(iii) Under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, Child is treated as not residing with either parent after Child's emancipation. Therefore, Child resides with F for 151 nights and with G for 61 nights. Because the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section are met, section 152(e) and this section apply, and G may claim Child as a dependent.

Example 8.

H and J are the divorced parents of Child. Child generally resides with H during the week and with J every other weekend. Child resides with J in H's residence for 10 consecutive nights while H is hospitalized. Under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, Child resides with H for the 10 nights.

Example 9.

K and L, who are separated under a written separation agreement, are the parents of Child. In August 2009, K and Child spend 10 nights together in a hotel while on vacation. Under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, Child resides with K for the 10 nights that K and Child are on vacation.

Example 10.

M and N are the divorced parents of Child. On December 31, 2009, Child attends a party at M's residence. After midnight on January 1, 2010, Child travels to N's residence, where Child sleeps. Under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, Child resides with N for the night of December 31, 2009, to January 1, 2010, because Child sleeps at N's residence that night. However, under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the night of December 31, 2009, to January 1, 2010, is allocated to taxable year 2009 for purposes of determining whether Child resides with M or N for a greater number of nights in 2009.

Example 11.

O and P, who never married, are the parents of Child. In 2009, Child spends alternate weeks residing with O and P. During a week that Child is residing with O, O gives Child permission to spend a night at the home of a friend. Under paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, the night Child spends at the friend's home is treated as a night that Child resides with O.

Example 12.

The facts are the same as in Example 11, except that Child also resides at summer camp for 6 weeks. Because Child resides with each parent for alternate weeks, Child would have resided with O for 3 weeks and with P for 3 weeks of the period that Child is at camp. Under paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, Child is treated as residing with O for 3 weeks and with P for 3 weeks.

Example 13.

The facts are the same as in Example 12, except that Child does not spend alternate weeks residing with O and P, and it cannot be determined whether Child would have resided with O or P for the period that Child is at camp. Under paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section, Child is treated as residing with neither parent for the 6 weeks.

Example 14.

(i) Q and R are the divorced parents of Child. Q works from 11 PM to 7 AM Sunday through Thursday nights. Because of Q's nighttime work schedule, Child resides with R Sunday through Thursday nights and with Q Friday and Saturday nights. Therefore, in 2009, Child resides with R for 261 nights and with Q for 104 nights. Child spends all daytime hours when Child is not in school with Q and Q's address is registered with Child's school as Child's primary residence. Q executes a Form 8332 for 2009 releasing Q's right to claim Child as a dependent for that year, which R attaches to R's 2009 return.

(ii) Under paragraph (d) of this section, Q is the custodial parent of Child in 2009. Child resides with R for a greater number of nights than with Q due to Q's nighttime work schedule, and Child spends a greater number of days with Q. Therefore, paragraph (d)(5) of this section applies rather than paragraph (d)(1) of this section. Because the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section are met, R may claim Child as a dependent.

Example 15.

(i) In 2009, S and T, the parents of Child, execute a written separation agreement. The agreement provides that Child will live with S and that T will make monthly child support payments to S. In 2009, Child resides with S for 335 nights and with T for 30 nights. S executes a letter declaring that S will not claim Child as a dependent in 2009 and in subsequent alternate years. The letter contains all the information requested on Form 8332, does not require the satisfaction of any condition such as T's payment of support, and has no purpose other than to serve as a written declaration under section 152(e) and this section. T attaches the letter to T's return for 2009 and 2011.

(ii) In 2010, T fails to provide support for Child, and S executes a Form 8332 revoking the release of S's right to claim Child as a dependent for 2011. S delivers a copy of the Form 8332 to T, attaches a copy of the Form 8332 to S's tax return for 2011, and keeps a copy of the Form 8332 and evidence of delivery of the written notice to T.

(iii) T may claim Child as a dependent for 2009 because S releases the right to claim Child as a dependent under paragraph (b)(3) of this section by executing the letter, which conforms to the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section, and T attaches the letter to T's return in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section. In 2010, S revokes the release of the claim in accordance with paragraph (e)(3) of this section, and the revocation takes effect in 2011, the taxable year that begins in the first calendar year after S provides written notice of the revocation to T. Therefore, in 2011, section 152(e) and this section do not apply, and whether Child is the qualifying child or qualifying relative of S or T is determined under section 152(c) or (d).

Example 16.

The facts are the same as Example 15, except that the letter expressly states that S releases the right to claim Child as a dependent only if T is current in the payment of support for Child at the end of the calendar year. The letter does not qualify as a written declaration under paragraph (b)(3) of this section because S's agreement not to claim Child as a dependent is conditioned on T's payment of support and, under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section, a written declaration must be unconditional. Therefore, section 152(e) and this section do not apply, and whether Child is the qualifying child or qualifying relative of S or T for 2009 as well as 2011 is determined under section 152(c) or (d).

Example 17.

(i) U and V are the divorced parents of Child. Child resides with U for more nights than with V in 2009 through 2011. In 2009, U provides a written statement to V declaring that U will not claim Child as a dependent, but the statement does not specify the year or years it is effective. V attaches the statement to V's returns for 2009 through 2011.

(ii) Because the written statement does not specify a year or years, under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, it is not a written declaration that conforms to the substance of Form 8332. Under paragraph (e)(4) of this section, the statement has no effect. Section 152(e) and this section do not apply, and whether Child is the qualifying child or qualifying relative of U or V is determined under section 152(c) or (d).

Example 18.

(i) W and X are the divorced parents of Child. In 2009, Child resides solely with W. The divorce decree requires X to pay child support to W and requires W to execute a Form 8332 releasing W's right to claim Child as a dependent. W fails to sign a Form 8332 for 2009, and X attaches an unsigned Form 8332 to X's return for 2009.

(ii) The order in the divorce decree requiring W to execute a Form 8332 is ineffective to allocate the right to claim Child as a dependent to X. Furthermore, under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the unsigned Form 8332 does not conform to the substance of Form 8332, and under paragraph (e)(4) of this section, the Form 8332 has no effect. Therefore, section 152(e) and this section do not apply, and whether Child is the qualifying child or qualifying relative of W or X is determined under section 152(c) or (d).

(iii) If, however, W executes a Form 8332 for 2009, and X attaches the Form 8332 to X's return, then X may claim Child as a dependent in 2009.

Example 19.

(i) Y and Z are the divorced parents of Child. In 2003, Y and Z enter into a separation agreement, which is incorporated into a divorce decree, under which Y, the custodial parent, releases Y's right to claim Child as a dependent for all future years. The separation agreement satisfies the requirements for the form of a written declaration in effect at the time it is executed. Z attaches a copy of the separation agreement to Z's returns for 2003 through 2009.

(ii) Under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section, a separation agreement may not serve as a written declaration. However, under paragraph (e)(5) of this section, a written declaration executed in a taxable year beginning on or before July 2, 2008, that satisfies the requirements for the form of a written declaration in effect at the time the written declaration is executed, will be treated as meeting the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section. Therefore, the separation agreement may serve as the written declaration required by paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section for 2009, and Z may claim Child as a dependent in 2009 and later years.

Example 20.

(i) The facts are the same as in Example 19, except that in 2009 Y executes a Form 8332 revoking the release of Y's right to claim Child as a dependent for 2010. Y complies with all the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section.

(ii) Although Y executes the separation agreement releasing Y's right to claim Child as a dependent in a taxable year beginning on or before July 2, 2008, under paragraph (e)(5) of this section, Y's execution of the Form 8332 in 2009 is effective to revoke the release. Therefore, section 152(e) and this section do not apply in 2010, and whether Child is the qualifying child or qualifying relative of Y or Z is determined under section 152(c) or (d).

(h) Effective/applicability date. This section applies to taxable years beginning after July 2, 2008.

[T.D. 9408, 73 FR 37801, July 2, 2008]

§ 1.153-1 Determination of marital status.

For the purpose of determining the right of an individual to claim an exemption for his spouse under section 151(b), the determination of whether such individual is married shall be made as of the close of his taxable year, unless his spouse dies during such year, in which case the determination shall be made as of the time of such death. An individual legally separated from his spouse under a decree of divorce or separate maintenance shall not be considered as married. The provisions of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.

A, who files his returns on the basis of a calendar year, married B on December 31, 1956. B, who had never previously married, had no gross income for the calendar year 1956 nor was she the dependent of another taxpayer for such year. A may claim an exemption for B for 1956.

Example 2.

C and his wife, D, were married in 1940. They remained married until July 1956 at which time D was granted a decree of divorce. C, who files his income tax returns on a calendar year basis, cannot claim an exemption for D on his 1956 return as C and D were not married on the last day of C's taxable year. Had D died instead of being divorced, C could have claimed an exemption for D for 1956 as their marital status would have been determined as of the date of D's death.

§ 1.154 Statutory provisions; cross references.

Sec. 154. Cross references. (1) For definitions of “husband” and “wife”, as used in section 152(b)(4), see section 7701(a)(17).

(2) For deductions of estates and trusts, in lieu of the exemptions under section 151, see section 642(b).

(3) For exemptions of nonresident aliens, see section 873(b)(3).

(4) For exemptions of citizens deriving income mainly from sources within possessions of the United States, see section 931(e).

(Sec. 154 as amended by sec. 103(c)(2), Foreign Investors Tax Act 1966 (80 Stat. 1551))

[T.D. 6500, 25 FR 11402, Nov. 26, 1960; 25 FR 14021, Dec. 21, 1960, as amended by T.D. 7332, 39 FR 44216, Dec. 23, 1974]